Clinical pharmacology and toxicology Flashcards

1
Q

how to differentiate drug induced lupus from normal lupus

A

Features: arthralgia, butterfly rash, pleurisy

don’t get neuropsych, rare to get renal (exc hydralazine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

liver enzyme inducers

A
Induction = PC BRAS
Phenytoin
Carbamazepine
Barbituates
Rifampicin
Alcohol (chronic excess)
St John’s wart
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

CYP450 inhibitors

A
CYP450 inhibitors: AODEVICCES
allopurinol (xanthine oxidase inh)
Omeprazole PPI
Disulfiram aldehyde dehydrogenase
erythromycin
Valproate gaba transaminase
Isoniazid [nucleic acid synthetase] & itiaconazole/fluconazole (ergosterol synth)
Ciprofloxacin
****Cimetidine
Ethanol (acute)
Sulfonamide (dihydropteoate synthase)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

nephrotoxics

A
Nephrotoxics
Diuretics (esp high dose loops)
ACEi/ARB/aminoglycosides/amphotericin
NSAIDs incl high dose aspirin
Cytotoxics eg cisplatin
Calicneurin inh (cylcosporin, tacrolimus)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

is rifampicin an inducer or inhibitor

A

inducer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

haemodialysis doesn’t clear what (6)

but it does clear (5)

A
benzo's
CCBs
TCAs
	• dextropropoxyphene (Co-proxamol)
	• digoxin
	• beta-blockers

can be cleared -BLAST
• Barbiturate
• Lithium
• Alcohol (inc methanol, ethylene glycol)
• Salicylates
Theophyllines (charcoal haemoperfusion is preferable)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

adrenaline doses in anaphylaxis and cardiac arrest

A

anaphylaxis: 0.5mg - 0.5ml 1:1000 IM

heart attack: 1mg - 10ml 1:10000 IV(or 1ml 1:1,000 IV)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

SE of these common cytotoxics

  • asparagine
  • cisplatin
  • vincristine/vinblastine
  • bleomycin
  • doxorubicin
  • cyclophosphamide
  • methotrexate
A

toxicity bear

  • asparagine: neurotoxic
  • cisplatin: ototoxic/nephrotoxic
  • vincristine/vinblastine: christ my nerves, blast my bones - vincr = peripheral neuropathy, vinblas = myelosuppression
  • bleomycin - pulmonary fibrosis
  • doxorubicin - cardiotoxic
  • cyclophosphamide - nephro/bladder toxic, SIADH
  • methotrexate - nephrotoxic, myelosuppression
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

drinks bottle of anti freeze

  • whats the toxin in it?
  • tx?
A

ethylene glycol
tx: fomepizole (competitive inh of alcohol dehydrogenase in liver)

windshield washer fluid: methanol - also tx with fomepizole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

lithium

  • triggers of toxicity
  • fts
  • mx
A

Triggers of toxicity: dehydration, renal failure
- Diuretics (esp thiazides), ACEi/ARB/NSAID, metronidazole

Fts of tox:

- Coarse tremor (fine in therapeutic level)
- Hyper-reflexia
- Acute confusion
- Polyuria
- Seizure
- Coma

Mx:

- Mild-mod NaCl
- Severe: haemodialysis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

st johns wort

  • effect on p450?
  • does it work? how does it work
  • adverse effects 2
A
KEY BITS
	• Inducer of p450 
NOTES
	· As effective as TCAs in mild-mod depression
	· Thought to act like SSRIs 
Adverse effects 
	• profile in trials similar to placebo
	• can cause serotonin syndrome
	• inducer of P450 system (decreased levels of warfarin, ciclosporin. Reduced effectiveness of COCP)

DETAILS
mechanism: thought to be similar to SSRIs (although noradrenaline uptake inhibition has also been demonstrated)

NB ‘may be of benefit in mild or mod depression, but its use should not be prescribed or advised because of uncertainty about appropriate doses, variation in the nature of preparations, and potential serious interactions with other drugs’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

paracetamol OD

  • increased risk (2)
  • protective (1)

single most important factor for prognosis?

Mx incl criteria for liver transplant
metabolic reason for overdose

A

Enzyme inducers&raquo_space; increase risk of hepatotoxicity

- Chronic alcohol
- Rifampicin
- Carbamazepine
- St john's wort

Other increased risk: malnourished pt (anorexia) or not eaten for a few days

prognosis: arterial pH

Acute alcohol intake - may be protective

Mx

1. Present <1hr: charcoal 
2. NAC 
- Indications: Staggered OD (taken over a period >1h), doubt over time of ingestion; Nomograph 
- Anaphylactoid reaction common - stop and restart at slower rate 
3. Liver transplant
- Arterial pH <7.3 (24h after ingestion)
- All of: PT >100s, Cr >300 + grade 3 or 4 encephalopathy

NAC = cysteine = precursor of glutathione
OD occurs when glutathione runs out&raquo_space; increase in NAPQI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q
cocaine
- abdo pain/PR bleeding, think?
- 1st line mx? mx of CP, of HTN?
- ABG pic
mechanism
effects on preg (2)
A

Mx: generally benzos 1st line
- MI due to cocaine: give IV benzo + ACS tx

Abdo pain or PR bleeding in coke pt = ischaemic colitis

Metabolic acidosis

NOTES
Mx
- Chest pain: benzo + GTN (if MI: go for PCI)
- HTN: benzo + sodium nitroprusside

Middle
Mech: Blocks uptake of dopamine, noradrenaline and serotonin

preg: IUGR, prem labour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
metformin
- acts by?
2 main effects
CI (2)
SE (3)
does it cause hypos or wt gain?
what do you do if giving contrast
A

Metformin

- Acts by activation of AMP-activated protein kinase 
- Increases insulin sensitivity, decreases hepatic gluconeogenesis 
- Leave at least 1 week between increasing doses 

Metformin
- CI CKD - review dose if Cr>130 (eGFR <45), stop If >150 (eGFR <30)
○ Periods of tissue hypoxia eg recent MI/sepsis/aki/dehydration - if give metformin > lactic acidosis
- SE
○ GI upset (nausea/anorexia/diarrhoea)
○ Reduced vit B12 abs
○ lactic acidosis w severe liver/renal disease
- Uptitrate the dose slowly (reduce chance of GI SE)
- If unacceptable SE consider MR metformin
Extra
- Biguanide
- Doesn’t cause hypoglycaemia or wt gain
- Tx t2dm, nafld, pcos
- Improve glucose tolerance; may reduce GI abs of carbs
Discontinue metformin on day of contrast and for 48h after

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q
allopurinol
- mech
- most sig adverse effects (3) - whos most at risk? what should they be screened for
interactions w 3 drugs 
how to start it 
indications
A

Key bits
- Inhibits xanthine oxiase (oxidates 6-mercaptopurine > 6-thiouric acid)

NOTES
Adverse effects
Most sig: derm - warm to stop allopurinol immediately if they develop a rash:
• severe cutaneous adverse reaction (SCAR)
• drug reaction with eosinophilia and systemic symptoms (DRESS)
• SJS
Certain ethnic groups (Chinese, Korean and Thai): increased risk of these reactions
- Pts at a high risk of severe cutaneous adverse reaction should be screened for HLA-B *5801 allele.

Interactions
Azathioprine
• metabolised to active compound 6-mercaptopurine
• xanthine oxidase is responsible for the oxidation of 6-mercaptopurine to 6-thiouric acid
• allopurinol&raquo_space; high levels of 6-mercaptopurine
• much reduced dose (e.g. 25%) must therefore be used if the combination cannot be avoided
Cyclophosphamide
• allopurinol reduces renal clearance, therefore may cause marrow toxicity
Theophylline
• allopurinol causes an increase in plasma concentration of theophylline by inhibiting its breakdown

DETAILS
Starting it
• Wait until inflam settled so pts not making choices in pain
• initial dose: 100 mg od (lower if low eGFR); titrate every few wks to aim for uric acid of < 300
• Consider colchicine cover when starting. If not tol, consider NSAIDs - take for 6 months

Indications for allopurinol
• all patients after their first attack of gout
• esp if: >= 2 attacks in 12 months, tophi, renal disease, uric acid renal stones, prophylaxis if on cytotoxics or diuretics
patients with Lesch-Nyhan syndrome often take allopurinol for life

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q
actions of these adrenoreceptors
- a1
a2
b1
b2
b3
A
Alpha-1
	• vasoconstriction
	• relaxation of GI smooth muscle
	• salivary secretion
	• hepatic glycogenolysis
Alpha-2  
	• mainly presynaptic: inhibition of transmitter release (inc NA, Ach from autonomic nerves)
	• inhibits insulin
	• platelet aggregation
Beta-1
	• mainly located in the heart
	• increase heart rate + force
Beta-2
	• vasodilation
	• bronchodilation
	• relaxation of GI smooth muscle
Beta-3  
	• Lipolysis
Pathways
	• all are G-protein coupled
	• alpha-1:activate phospholipase C → IP3 → DAG
	• alpha-2: inhibit adenylate cyclase
	• beta-1: stimulate adenylate cyclase
	• beta-2: stimulate adenylate cyclase
beta-3: stimulate adenylate cyclase
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

quinolones

  • eg abx?
  • SE (4), CI (3)
  • mech
A

= ciprofloxacin

SE
	- Lower seizure threshold in epilepsy
	- Tendon damage (increased on steroids - MUM)
	- Cartilage damage
	- Prolonged QT
CI: pregnant, breast feeding, G6PD

Mech: inh topoisomerase 2 (DNA gyrase) + topoisomerase 4
Mech of res: mutations to DNA gyrase, efflux pumps > reduce quinolone conc

G6PD = heinz bodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Drugs affected by acetylator status (5)

A

50% of the UK population are deficient in hepatic N-acetyltransferase

Drugs affected by acetylator status
	• isoniazid
	• procainamide
	• hydralazine
	• dapsone
sulfasalazine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

zero order kinetics - what is it, what 4 drugs see it

A

Zero-order kinetics
= metabolism which is indep of the concentration of the reactant.
- This is due to metabolic pathways becoming saturated resulting in a constant amount of drug being eliminated per unit time.
- This explains why people may fail a breathalyser test in the morning if they have been drinking the night before

Drugs exhibiting zero-order kinetics
	• phenytoin
	• salicylates (e.g. high-dose aspirin)
	• heparin
	• Ethanol
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

1st pass metabolism
what is it
eg drugs

A

= phenomenon where the concentration of a drug is greatly reduced before it reaches the systemic circulation due to hepatic metabolism.
- As a consequence much larger doses are need orally than if given by other routes

This effect is seen in many drugs, including:
	• aspirin
	• isosorbide dinitrate
	• glyceryl trinitrate
	• lignocaine
	• propranolol
	• verapamil
	• isoprenaline
	• testosterone
hydrocortisone
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what are phase 1 and 2 reactions in drug metabolism

where are they usually

A

Drug metabolism usually involves 2 types of biochem reactions - phase I and phase II
• phase I reactions: oxidation, reduction, hydrolysis.
○ Mainly done by P450 enzymes but some drugs are metabolised by specific enzymes, EG alcohol dehydrogenase and xanthine oxidase.
○ Products of phase I reactions are typically more active and potentially toxic
• phase II reactions: conjugation.
○ Products are typically inactive and excreted in urine or bile.
○ Glucuronyl, acetyl, methyl, sulphate and other groups are typically involved
Most phase 1 & II reactions take place in the liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

statin

  • mech of action
  • SE (2)

if on a statin and hx of myalgia, what drug do you avoid adding?

A

HMG CoA reductase inhibitor
myositis, deranged LFTs

avoid adding fibrates - risk of muscle toxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

digoxin

  • mech of action
  • fts of tox
  • triggers of tox
    • incl drugs that trigger it (8)
  • when do you check the level if suspect tox
A

Mech of action
- decreases conduction through AVN > slows ventricular rate in AF and flutter
increases force of cardiac muscle contraction due inhibition of the Na+/K+ ATPase pump. Also stimulates vagus nerve

Suspect toxicity: measure conc within 8-12h of last dose

Features of tox:

- Confused, yellow-green vision (xanthopsia)
- Unwell, tired, n/v, anorexia
- Arrhythmias: AV block, bradycardia
- Gynaecomastia 

Triggers of toxicity

- Low K 
- Older age
- Myocardial ischaemia
- Low Mg, low albumin
- Hypothermia
- Hypothyroid
- High calcium, high Na
- Acidosis
- Drugs: amiodarone, quinidine, verapamil, diltiazem, spironolactone, ciclosporin
- Drugs that cause low K: thiazides, loop diuretics 

Digoxin binds ATPase pump on same site as K. low K > digoxin can bind easier > increased ing effects

23
Q

heparin

  • 2 main types
  • mech of action?
  • SE (4)
  • OD tx
  • differences between the 2 types incl how to monitor
  • what is HIT: fts, mech, when does it occur
A

Activate antithrombin 3

- Unfractionated: form a complex > inhibits thombin, factors Xa, Ixa, Xia, XIIa
- LMWH increases action of antithrombin 3 >> inhibition of factor Xa

SE of heparin: Bleeding, low plts, osteoporosis, hyperkalaemia

Lmwh v unfractionated 
LMWH
	- SC, long action
	- Lower risk of HIT and osteoporosis
	- Monitor: anti-factor XA (but usually don’t need routine monitoring)

Standard/unfractionated heparin

- IV admin
- Short action
- Use in renal failure
- Use in high risk of bleeding as can stop quickly
- Monitor: APTT

Heparin overdose tx: protamine sulphate (only partly reverses LMWH)

Heparin induced thrombocytopenia
- Antibodies form against complexes of heparin + plt factor 4
- Develops 5-10ds after starting treatment
- Fts = >50% fall in plts, thrombosis, skin allergy
Low plts but prothrombotic

24
Q

therapeutic drug monitoring
when do you take levels for
- lithium, ciclosporin, digoxin, phenytoin

A

Lithium: take 12 hrs post-dose

Ciclosporin: trough levels immediately before dose

Digoxin: at least 6 hrs post-dose

Phenytoin: trough levels, immediately before dose
should be checked if:
• adjustment of phenytoin dose
• suspected toxicity
• detection of non-adherence to the prescribed medication
(doesn’t need routine monitoring)

25
Q

drugs acting on common receptors

  • alpha: agonist & blocker
  • beta 1, beta 2: agonists and blockers
  • dopamine: ag & antag
  • GABA: ag and antag
  • histamine 1 and 2 antagonists
  • muscarinic ag and antag
  • nicotinic ag and antag
  • serotonin ag and antag
A

Alpha

- Blocker: tamsulosin, doxazosin
- Agonist: brimonidine, phenylephrine (1), clonidine (a-2)

Beta-blockers:

- B-1: atenolol, bisoprolol
- B-2 propranolol, labetalol

Beta-agonists

- B-1: inotropes = dobutamine
- B-2 bronchodilators = salbutamol

Dopamine

- Agonists: ropinirole
- Antagonists: haloperidol, metoclopramide, domperidone

GABA

- Agonists: benzos, baclofen
- Antagonists: flumazenil

Histamine antagonists

- Hist 1=antihistamines eg loratidine 
- Hist 2=antacids eg ranitidine

Muscarinic

- Agonist: pilocarpine
- Antag: atropine, ipratropium, oxybutynin

Nicotinine

- Agonist: nicotine, vareniciline, suxamethonium
- Anatag: atracurium

Serotonin
- Agonist: triptan
Antag: ondansetron

26
Q

TB drugs (4)
which one/ones do you need to reduce dose of in renal impairment?
SE of these drugs
(mechanisms if can)
2 have effects on liver enz - induce or inh?

A

NB renal impairment: need to reduce dose of ethambutol (others are fine)

RIPE

- R: hepatitis, orange secretions
- I: peripheral neuropathy (tx with pyridoxine [vit B6]
- Pyrazinamide: gout
- Ethambutol: optic neuritis 

Effect on liver enz

- Rifampicin: inducer
- Isoniazid: inhibitor
NOTES
Rifampicin
	• mech: inh bacterial DNA dependent RNA polymerase >> preventing transcription of DNA into mRNA
	• potent liver enzyme inducer
	• hepatitis, orange secretions
	• flu-like symptoms
Isoniazid
	• mech: inhibits mycolic acid synthesis
	• peripheral neuropathy: prevent with pyridoxine (Vitamin B6)
	• hepatitis, agranulocytosis
	• liver enzyme inhibitor
Pyrazinamide
	• mech: converted by pyrazinamidase into pyrazinoic acid which in turn inhibits fatty acid synthase (FAS) 
	• hyperuricaemia causing gout
	• arthralgia, myalgia
	• hepatitis

Ethambutol
• Mech: inhibits enzyme arabinosyl transferase which polymerizes arabinose into arabinan
• optic neuritis: check visual acuity before and during treatment
• dose needs adjusting in patients with renal impairment

27
Q

adrenoceptor antagonist
alpha antagonists for a1, a1a, a2, non-selective?

beta antagonists for beta 1 and non-selective?

mixed antagonists (2)

A
Alpha antagonists
	• alpha-1: doxazosin
	• alpha-1a: tamsulosin - acts mainly on urogenital tract
	• alpha-2: yohimbine
	• non-selective: phenoxybenzamine (previously used in peripheral arterial disease)
Beta antagonists  
	• beta-1: atenolol
	• non-selective: propranolol

Mixed a and b adrenoceptor antagonist: carvedilol, labetalol

28
Q

trastuzumab

  • targets?
  • se (3)
A

herceptin
monoclonal Ab that acts on HER2/neu receptors

SE: cardiotoxicity (more common when with anthracyclines also eg doxorubicin)

- Mainly in metastatic breast cancer
- SE common - flu, diarrhoea ECHO before tx
29
Q
gentamicin
- CI (1)
- SE (2)
- what levels do we measure & when?
whats the action if one is high
A

Aminoglycoside nephrotox: due to acute tubular necrosis

NOTES
CI: myasthenia gravis

SE:

1. ototoxicity (due to auditory/vestibular nerve damage: irreversible)
2. Nephrotoxicity (due to ATN. Increased risk w furosemide.

Measure peak and trough levels

- Peak: 1h after admin - if high, decrease dose
- Trough: just before next dose - if high, increase interval between doses
30
Q

aspirin

  • mech
  • potentiates (3)
A
irreversible inh of cox 1 and 2
Potentiates
	- oral hypoglycaemics
	- warfarin
steroids
31
Q

alcohol

  • what effect does it have on ADH?
  • what drugs for acute withdrawal?
  • what 2 drugs can promote abstinence?
A

Alcohol inhibits secretion of ADH

Nutritional support: oral thiamine if their ‘diet may be deficient’

Drugs
• benzodiazepines for acute withdrawal
• disulfram: promotes abstinence
○ alcohol intake causes severe reaction due to inhibition of acetaldehyde dehydrogenase
○ even small amounts of alcohol (e.g. In perfumes, foods, mouthwashes) can produce severe symptoms
○ CI: IHD and psychosis
acamprosate: reduces craving, weak antagonist of NMDA receptors

32
Q

Ciclosporin

  • mech
  • SE
A

Adverse effects of ciclosporin (note how everything is increased - fluid, BP, K+, hair, gums, glucose)

- nephrotoxicity
- hepatotoxicity
- fluid retention
- hypertension
- hyperkalaemia
- hypertrichosis
- gingival hyperplasia
- tremor
- impaired glucose tolerance
- hyperlipidaemia
- increased susceptibility to severe infection

- decreases clonal proliferation of T cells by reducing IL-2 release
- Acts by binding to cyclophilin > forming a complex which inhibits calcineurin (a phosphatase that activates various transcription factors in T cells)
33
Q

what type of receptor do steroids and levothyroxine bind

A

nuclear receptors

34
Q
TCA OD
tx? (indications for it)
does dialysis work?
what 3 drugs to avoid 
which 2 are most dangerous in OD

more:
early fts
severe poisoning
ECG changes

A

Tx = IV bicarb (give if hypotension, arrhythmia, widening of QRS >100)
Dialysis is INEFFECTIVE at removing tricyclics

Class 1a (quinidine) and 1c anti-arrhythmics (flecainide) are CI
	- Because they prolong depolarisation

Amiodarone should be avoided as prolongs QT

Amitriptyline and dosulepin (dothiepin) are most dangerous in OD

Early fts: anticholinergic (dry mouth, dilated pupils, agitation, sinus tachy, blurred vision)
Severe poisoning: arrhythmias, seizures, metabolic acidosis, coma

ECG changes 
	- Sinus tachy
	- Widening QRS
		○ >100 = seizure risk
		○ >160 = ventricular arrhythmias 
	- Prolonged QT
35
Q

octreotide

  • uses (6)
  • what is it
  • SE 1
A

Overview
• long-acting analogue of somatostatin
• somatostatin is released from D cells of pancreas and inhibits the release of GH glucagon and insulin

Uses
• acute treatment of variceal haemorrhage
• acromegaly
• carcinoid syndrome
• prevent complications following pancreatic surgery
• VIPomas
• refractory diarrhoea

Adverse effects
gallstones (secondary to biliary stasis)

36
Q

SE of sulphonylureas (4), glitazones (4), gliptins (1)

A

Sulphonylureas
EG chlorpropamide
SE: hypoglycaemia, increased appetite/wt, SIADH, liver dysfunction (cholestatic)

glitazones SE: wt gain, fluid retention, liver dysfunction, fractures

gliptins SE: pancreatitis

37
Q

Oculogyric crisis

  • causes (3)
  • mx options (2)
A
Causes
	• antipsychotics
	• metoclopramide
	• postencephalitic Parkinson's disease
Management
intravenous antimuscarinic: benztropine or procyclidine
38
Q

lidocaine

  • fts of toxicity
  • increased risk of tox (2)
  • tx of tox
A

• Toxicity: due to IV or excess administration.
○ Increased risk if liver dysfunction or low protein states.
○ Acidosis causes lidocaine to detach from protein binding.
• Drug interactions: Beta blockers, ciprofloxacin, phenytoin
Features of toxicity:
• Initial CNS over activity then depression
○ lidocaine initially blocks inhib pathways then blocks both inh + activating pathways
• Cardiac arrhythmias.

tx: IV 20% lipid emulsion

39
Q

tacrolimus mech of action

and what other cytotoxic also works this way

A

Ciclosporin + tacrolimus: inh calcineurin > decreased IL2

40
Q

what abx affects epilepsy

A

ciprofloxacin reduces seizure threshold

41
Q

abciximab mech of action

A

Glycoprotein IIb/IIIa receptor antagonist

42
Q

methanol poisoning

  • mx options
  • abg pic
  • specific effects
A

Management
• fomepizole (competitive inhibitor of alcohol dehydrogenase) or ethanol
• haemodialysis
• cofactor therapy with folinic acid to reduce ophthalmological complications

Methanol fts
• effects ass w alcohol (intoxication, nausea etc)
• + specific visual problems, incl blindness.

Methanol v ethylene glycol
raised anion-gap metabolic acidosis: differential = methanol or ethylene glycol
- Similar biochem + clinical pic
- But eye signs (macular oedema, poor pupillary response) in drowsy pt = methanol

DETAILS
- Visual effects are thought to be secondary to the accumulation of formic acid - thought to be caused by a form of optic neuropathy

More
cases involving methanol toxicity often involve patients not meeting your gaze or asking for the lights to be switched on, as well as the more traditional visual acuity results.

43
Q

which abx inhibit protein synthesis and which part of the ribosome do they act on

  • 50s subunit (5)
  • 30s subunit (2)
A

Inhibits protein synthesis (by acting on the ribosome)
50S subunit: macrolides, chloramphenicol, clindamycin, linezolid, streptogrammins
30S subunit: aminoglycosides, tetracyclines

44
Q

amiodarone hypothyroidism: mx?

amiodarone induced thyrotox:

  • 2 types?
  • mx?
A

Amiodarone induced hypothyroidism: can continue amiodarone

Amiodarone induced thyrotoxicosis
1. Excess iodine-induced thyroid hormone synth. Goitre. Mx: carbimaozle or K perchlorate
2. Amiodarone-rel destructive thyroiditis. No goitre. Mx: steroids
Stop the amiodarone in both types

45
Q

when do you get central pontine myelinolysis

A

when you correct low Na too quick

46
Q

organophosphate insecticide poisoning

  • mx?
  • features
  • mechanism behind fts
A
Features – ACh accumulates (SLUD)
	• Salivation
	• Lacrimation
	• Urination
	• Defecation/diarrhoea
	• CV: hypotension, bradycardia
	• Small pupils, muscle fasciculation 
	• Sweating ++

Mx: Atropine

DETAILS
Overview
• Inhibits acheylcholinesterase&raquo_space; upregulation of nicotinic + muscarinic cholinergic neurotransmission
• Ach is the main neurotransmitter for parasympathetic system so it presents as upregulation of this
• Sweat glands use cholinergic transmission so get sweaty too

47
Q

cyanide

  • fts
  • mx
  • action of cyanide
A

Presentation
• ‘classical’ fts: brick-red skin, smell of bitter almonds
• acute: hypoxia, hypotension, headache, confusion
• chronic: ataxia, peripheral neuropathy, dermatitis

Management
• supportive: 100% oxygen
• definitive: hydroxocobalamin (IV) + combination of amyl nitrite (inhaled), sodium nitrite (intravenously), and sodium thiosulfate (intravenously)

DETAILS

- may be used in insecticides, photograph development and the production of certain metals
- Inhibits cytochrome c oxidase > cessation of mitochondrial electron transfer chain.

most common cause: smoke inhalation

48
Q

mechs of aspirin, clopidogrel, ticagrelor, abciximab, tirofiban

A

Clotting drugs

  • Aspirin: non reversible COX 1 and 2 inhibitor
  • Clopidogrel/ticagrelor: P2Y12-ADP rec antag
  • GP IIb/IIIa receptor inhibitors (such as abciximab, eptifibatide, tirofiban
49
Q

causes of raised anion gap metabolic acidosis (6)

A
  • lactic acidosis
    • ketoacidosis
    • renal failure (high urate)
    • toxins such as methanol, ethylene glycol, salicylates
50
Q

ethylene glycol

  • 3 stages of presentation
  • mx options
  • ABG pic
A

1st line tx: fomepizole (inh of alcohol dehydrogenase)

- Used to give ethanol - competes for alcohol dehydrogenase
- Refractory: dialysis 

NOTES
EG after drinking antifreeze/coolant

Stage 1: symptoms of alcohol intox (confused, dizzy, slurred speech)
Stage 2:
- metabolic acidosis w high anion gap and high osmolar gap
- Tachycardia, hypotension
Stage 3: AKI

DETAILS
ethanol - it competes with ethylene glycol for alcohol dehydrogenase
- This limits formation of toxic metabolites (e.g. glycoaldehyde and glycolic acid) which are responsible for the haemodynamic/metabolic features of poisoning

More
blood gas shows metabolic acidosis with respiratory compensation.
- normal glucose level: excl DKA.

51
Q

CO poisoning indications for hyperbaric oxygen (5)

A

Indications for hyperbaric oxygen: loss of consciousness, neuro signs, myocardial ischaemia, arrhythmia, pregnancy

52
Q

vit C deficiency fts

A

Eg 64y old woman w multiple non-healing leg ulcers. Generally unwell for many months. Pale conjunctiva. Poor dentition w bleeding gums

NOTES
Vitamin C deficiency (scurvy)
» defective synthesis of collagen&raquo_space; capillary fragility (bleeding tendency) and poor wound healing

Features
	• gingivitis, loose teeth
	• poor wound healing
	• bleeding from gums, haematuria, epistaxis
	• general malaise
53
Q

amiloride action

A

• blocks the epithelial sodium channel in DCT
• weak diuretic
usually given with thiazides or loop diuretics as an alternative to potassium supplementation (remember that thiazides and loop diuretics often cause hypokalaemia)

54
Q

k sparing diuretics (4)

use w caution w?

A
  • epithelial sodium channel blockers (amiloride and triamterene)
    • aldosterone antagonists (spironolactone and eplerenone).

Use w ACEi w caution: can cause hyperkalaemia

Amiloride
• blocks the epithelial sodium channel in DCT
• weak diuretic
• usually given with thiazides or loop diuretics as an alternative to potassium supplementation (remember that thiazides and loop diuretics often cause hypokalaemia)

Aldosterone antagonists e.g. spironolactone
• acts in the cortical collecting duct
• indications
○ ascites: patients with cirrhosis develop a secondary hyperaldosteronism. Relatively large doses such as 100 or 200mg are often used
○ heart failure
○ nephrotic syndrome
○ Conn’s syndrome

55
Q

allopurinol what do you need to screen for before starting in pts at risk

A

Adverse effects
Most sig: derm - warm to stop allopurinol immediately if they develop a rash:
• severe cutaneous adverse reaction (SCAR)
• drug reaction with eosinophilia and systemic symptoms (DRESS)
• SJS
Certain ethnic groups (Chinese, Korean and Thai): increased risk of these reactions
- Pts at a high risk of severe cutaneous adverse reaction should be screened for HLA-B *5801 allele.