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Clinical Microscopy Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following organizations publishes guidelines for writing procedures and policies in the urinalysis?
A. CDC
B. OSHA
C. CLSI
D. CLIA

A

C. CLSI

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2
Q

Exposure to toxic, carcinogenic, or caustic agents is what type of laboratory safety hazard?
A. Biological
B. Sharps
C. Chemical
D. Fire/explosive

A

C. Chemical

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3
Q

In the urinalysis laboratory, the primary source in the chain of infection would be:
A. Patients
B. Needlesticks
C. Specimens
D. Biohazardous waste

A

C. Specimens

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4
Q

The best way to break the chain of infection is:
A. Hand sanitizing
B. Personal protective equipment
C. Aerosol prevention
D. Decontamination

A

A. Hand sanitizing

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5
Q

The current routine infection control policy developed by CDC and followed in all health-care settings is:
A. Universal Precautions
B. Isolation Precautions
C. Blood and Body Fluid Precautions
D. Standard Precautions

A

D. Standard Precautions

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6
Q

An employee who is accidentally exposed to a possible bloodborne pathogen should immediately:
A. Report to a supervisor
B. Flush the area with water
C. Clean the area with disinfectant
D. Receive HIV prophylaxis

A

A. Report to a supervisor

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7
Q

Personnel in the urinalysis laboratory should wear laboratory coats that:
A. Do not have buttons
B. Are fluid-resistant
C. Have short sleeves
D. Have full-length zippers

A

B. Are fluid-resistant

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8
Q

All of the following should be discarded in biohazardous waste containers except:
A. Urine specimen containers
B. Towels used for decontamination
C. Disposable laboratory coats
D. Blood collection tubes

A

A. Urine specimen containers

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9
Q

An employer who fails to provide sufficient gloves for the employees may be fined by the:
A. CDC
B. NFPA
C. OSHA
D. FDA

A

C. OSHA

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10
Q

An acceptable disinfectant for decontamination of blood and body fluids is:
A. Sodium hydroxide
B. Antimicrobial soap
C. Hydrogen peroxide
D. Sodium hypochlorite

A

D. Sodium hypochlorite

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11
Q

Correct hand washing includes all of the following except:
A. Using warm water
B. Rubbing to create a lather
C. Rinsing hands in a downward position
D. Turning on the water with a paper towel

A

D. Turning on the water with a paper towel

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12
Q

Centrifuging an uncapped specimen may produce a biological hazard in the form of:
A. Vectors
B. Sharps contamination
C. Aerosols
D. Specimen contamination

A

C. Aerosols

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13
Q

An employee who accidentally spills acid on his arm should immediately:
A. Neutralize the acid with a base
B. Hold the arm under running water for 15 minutes
C. Consult the SDS
D. Wrap the arm in gauze and go to the emergency department

A

B. Hold the arm under running water for 15 minutes

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14
Q

When combining acid and water, ensure that:
A. Acid is added to water
B. Water is added to acid
C. They are added simultaneously
D. Water is slowly added to acid

A

A. Acid is added to water

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15
Q

An employee can learn the carcinogenic potential of potassium chloride by consulting the:
A. Chemical hygiene plan
B. Safety Data Sheet
C. OSHA standards
D. Urinalysis procedure manual

A

B. Safety Data Sheet

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16
Q

Employees should not work with radioisotopes if they are:
A. Wearing contact lenses
B. Allergic to iodine
C. Sensitive to latex
D. Pregnant

A

D. Pregnant

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17
Q

All of the following are safe to do when removing the source of an electric shock except:
A. Pulling the person away from the instrument
B. Turning off the circuit breaker
C. Using a glass container to move the instrument
D. Unplugging the instrument

A

A. Pulling the person away from the instrument

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18
Q

The acronym PASS refers to:
A. Presence of vital chemicals
B. Operation of a fire extinguisher
C. Labeling of hazardous material
D. Presence of radioactive substances

A

B. Operation of a fire extinguisher

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19
Q

The system used by firefighters to assess the risk potential when a fire occurs in the laboratory is:
A. SDS
B. RACE
C. NFPA
D. PASS

A

C. NFPA

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20
Q

A class ABC fire extinguisher contains:
A. Sand
B. Water
C. Dry chemicals
D. Acid

A

C. Dry chemicals

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21
Q

The first thing to do when a fire is discovered is to:
A. Rescue people in danger
B. Activate the alarm system
C. Close doors to other areas
D. Extinguish the fire if possible

A

A. Rescue people in danger

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22
Q

If a red rash is observed after removing gloves, the employee:
A. May be washing her hands too often
B. May have developed a latex allergy
C. Should apply cortisone cream
D. Should not rub her hands so vigorously

A

B. May have developed a latex allergy

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23
Q

Pipetting by mouth is:
A. Acceptable for urine but not serum
B. Not acceptable without proper training
C. Acceptable for reagents but not specimens
D. Not acceptable in the laboratory

A

D. Not acceptable in the laboratory

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24
Q

The NPFA classification symbol contains information on all of the following except:
A. Fire hazards
B. Biohazards
C. Reactivity
D. Health hazards

A

B. Biohazards

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25
Q

The GHS requires the following on a chemical label:
A. Biohazard symbol, warning sign, environmental impact
B. Hazard pictogram, signal words, hazard statement
C. Biological symbol, hazard pictogram, long-term effects
D. Signal words, hazard statement, biological symbol

A

B. Hazard pictogram, signal words, hazard statement

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26
Q

The classification of a fire that can be extinguished with water is:
A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Class D

A

A. Class A

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27
Q

Employers are required to provide free immunization for:
A. HIV
B. HTLV-1
C. HBV
D. HCV

A

C. HBV

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28
Q

A possible physical hazard in the hospital is:
A. Wearing closed-toed shoes
B. Not wearing jewelry
C. Having short hair
D. Running to answer the telephone

A

D. Running to answer the telephone

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29
Q

Quality management refers to:
A. Analysis of testing controls
B. Increased productivity
C. Precise control results
D. Quality of specimens and patient care

A

D. Quality of specimens and patient care

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30
Q

During laboratory accreditation inspections, procedure manuals are examined for the presence of:
A. Critical values
B. Procedure references
C. Procedures for specimen preservation
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

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31
Q

As the supervisor of the urinalysis laboratory, you have just adopted a new procedure. You should:
A. Put the package insert in the procedure manual
B. Put a complete, referenced procedure in the manual
C. Notify the microbiology department
D. Put a cost analysis study in the procedure manual

A

B. Put a complete, referenced procedure in the manual

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32
Q

Indicate whether each of the following would be considered a 1) preexamination, 2) examination, or
3) postexamination factor by placing the appropriate
number in the blank:
1. Reagent expiration date
2. Rejecting a contaminated specimen
3. Constructing a Levy-Jennings chart
4. Telephoning a positive Clinitest result on a newborn
5. Calibrating the centrifuge
6. Collecting a timed urine specimen

A
  1. 2
  2. 1
  3. 2
  4. 3
  5. 2
  6. 1
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33
Q

The testing of a specimen from an outside agency and the comparison of results with participating laboratories
is called:
A. External QC
B. Electronic QC
C. Internal QC
D. Proficiency testing

A

D. Proficiency testing

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34
Q

A color change indicating that a sufficient amount of a patient’s specimen or reagent is added correctly to the test system would be an example of:
A. External QC
B. Equivalent QC
C. Internal QC
D. Proficiency testing

A

C. Internal QC

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35
Q

What steps are taken when the results of reagent strip QC are outside the stated confidence limits?
A. Check the expiration date of the reagent strip
B. Run a new control
C. Open a new reagent strips container
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

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36
Q

When a new bottle of QC material is opened, what information is placed on the label?
A. The supervisor’s initials
B. The lot number
C. The date and the laboratory worker’s initials
D. The time the bottle was opened

A

C. The date and the laboratory worker’s initials

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37
Q

When a control is run, what information is documented?
A. The lot number
B. Expiration date of the control
C. The test results
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

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38
Q

The principle commonly used to measure the concentration of a particular analyte in the chemical examination of urine is:
A. Reflectance photometry
B. Digital imaging
C. Flow cytometry
D. Auto particle recognition

A

A. Reflectance photometry

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39
Q

In automated urinalysis, the specific gravity is measured by:
A. Light transmittance
B. Light scattering
C. Refractometry
D. Turbidity

A

C. Refractometry

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40
Q

All of the following are true concerning fully automated urine chemistry analyzers, except:
A. They are designed for a high-volume urinalysis laboratory.
B. The reagent strip is dipped into the well-mixed urine.
C. The urine tube moves through the instrument.
D. A sample probe aspirates the urine.

A

B. The reagent strip is dipped into the well-mixed urine.

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41
Q

The advantages of an automated urine microscopy analyzer over manual microscopy includes:
A. Cost-effective
B. Centrifugation not required
C. Standardized results
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

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42
Q

Which of the following is a complete urinalysis automated urinalysis system?
A. AUTION ELEVEN AE 4022
B. Clinitek Atlas
C. iQ200 Automated Urine Microscopy
D. Clinitek AUWi Pro System

A

D. Clinitek AUWi Pro System

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43
Q

What two technologies are used for urine sediment analysis?
A. Light scattering and refractometry
B. Light scattering and flow cytometry
C. Flow cytometry and digital imaging
D. Digital imaging and refractometry

A

C. Flow cytometry and digital imaging

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44
Q

Which automated urine particle counter combines urine flow cytometry with digital image analysis?
A. UN-2000
B. iRICELL
C. UF-1000i
D. iQ 200

A

A. UN-2000

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45
Q

Which of the following urine sediment particles cannot be autovalidated but will be flagged and must be reviewed by laboratory personnel?
A. RBCs
B. WBCs
C. RTEs
D. Squamous epithelial cells

A

C. RTEs

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46
Q

Which of the automated body fluid analyzers does not need to dilute or pretreat body fluids before analysis?
A. ADVIA 2120i
B. XN Series
C. iQ 200
D. None of the above

A

B. XN Series

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47
Q

What is a disadvantage of counting body fluid cells using an automated instrument versus a Neubauer hemocytometer?
A. Less labor-intensive and time-consuming
B. More precise
C. Unable to count low WBC numbers and malignant cells
D. Able to perform a WBC differential

A

C. Unable to count low WBC numbers and malignant cells

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48
Q

The primary inorganic substance found in urine is:
A. Sodium
B. Phosphate
C. Chloride
D. Calcium

A

C. Chloride

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49
Q

An unidentified fluid is received in the laboratory with a request to determine whether the fluid is urine or another body fluid. Using routine laboratory tests, which substances
would determine that the fluid is most probably urine?
A. Glucose and ketones
B. Urea and creatinine
C. Uric acid and amino acids
D. Protein and amino acids

A

B. Urea and creatinine

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50
Q

The average daily output of urine is:
A. 200 mL
B. 500 mL
C. 1200 mL
D. 2500 mL

A

C. 1200 mL

51
Q

A patient presenting with polyuria, nocturia, polydipsia, and a low urine specific gravity is exhibiting symptoms of:
A. Diabetes insipidus
B. Diabetes mellitus
C. Urinary tract infection
D. Uremia

A

A. Diabetes insipidus

52
Q

A patient with oliguria might progress to having:
A. Nocturia
B. Polyuria
C. Polydipsia
D. Anuria

A

D. Anuria

53
Q

All of the following are characteristics of recommended urine containers except:
A. A flat bottom
B. A capacity of 50 mL
C. A snap-on lid
D. Are disposable

A

C. A snap-on lid

54
Q

Labels for urine containers are:
A. Attached to the container
B. Attached to the lid
C. Placed on the container before collection
D. Not detachable

A

C. Placed on the container before collection

55
Q

A urine specimen may be rejected by the laboratory for all of the following reasons except the fact that the:
A. Requisition form states the specimen is catheterized
B. Specimen contains toilet paper
C. Label and requisition form do not match
D. Outside of the container has contamination from fecal material

A

A. Requisition form states the specimen is catheterized

56
Q

A cloudy specimen received in the laboratory may have been preserved using:
A. Boric acid
B. Chloroform
C. Refrigeration
D. Formalin

A

C. Refrigeration

57
Q

For general screening, the specimen collected most frequently is a:
A. Random one
B. First morning
C. Midstream clean-catch
D. Timed

A

A. Random one

58
Q

The primary advantage of a first morning specimen over a random specimen is that it:
A. Is less contaminated
B. Is more concentrated
C. Is less concentrated
D. Has a higher volume

A

B. Is more concentrated

59
Q

If a routine urinalysis and a culture are requested on a catheterized specimen, then:
A. Two separate containers must be collected
B. The routine urinalysis is performed first
C. The patient must be recatheterized
D. The culture is performed first

A

D. The culture is performed first

60
Q

If a patient fails to discard the first specimen when collecting a timed specimen, then the:
A. Specimen must be re-collected
B. Results will be falsely elevated
C. Results will be falsely decreased
D. Both A and B

A

D. Both A and B

61
Q

The primary cause of unsatisfactory results in an unpreserved routine specimen not tested for 8 hours is:
A. Bacterial growth
B. Glycolysis
C. Decreased pH
D. Chemical oxidation

A

A. Bacterial growth

62
Q

Prolonged exposure of a preserved urine specimen to light will cause:
A. Decreased glucose
B. Increased cells and casts
C. Decreased bilirubin
D. Increased bacteria

A

C. Decreased bilirubin

63
Q

Which of the following would be least affected in a specimen that has remained unpreserved at room temperature for more than 2 hours?
A. Urobilinogen
B. Ketones
C. Protein
D. Nitrite

A

C. Protein

64
Q

Bacterial growth in an unpreserved specimen will:
A. Decrease clarity
B. Increase bilirubin
C. Decrease pH
D. Increase glucose

A

A. Decrease clarity

65
Q

The most sterile specimen collected is a:
A. Catheterized
B. Midstream clean-catch
C. Three-glass
D. Suprapubic aspiration

A

D. Suprapubic aspiration

66
Q

Which of the following would not be given to a patient before the collection of a midstream clean-catch
specimen?
A. Sterile container
B. Iodine cleanser
C. Antiseptic towelette
D. Instructions

A

B. Iodine cleanser

67
Q

Urine specimen collection for drug testing requires the collector to do all of the following except:
A. Inspect the specimen color
B. Perform reagent strip testing
C. Read the specimen temperature
D. Fill out a chain-of-custody form

A

B. Perform reagent strip testing

68
Q

The type of nephron responsible for renal concentration is the:
A. Cortical
B. Juxtaglomerular
C. Efferent
D. Afferent

A

B. Juxtaglomerular

69
Q

The function of the peritubular capillaries is:
A. Reabsorption
B. Filtration
C. Secretion
D. Both A and C

A

D. Both A and C

70
Q

Blood flows through the nephron in the following order:
A. Efferent arteriole, peritubular capillaries, vasa recta, afferent arteriole
B. Peritubular capillaries, afferent arteriole, vasa recta, efferent arteriole
C. Afferent arteriole, efferent arteriole, peritubular capillaries, vasa recta
D. Efferent arteriole, vasa recta, peritubular capillaries, afferent arteriole

A

C. Afferent arteriole, efferent arteriole, peritubular capillaries, vasa recta

71
Q

Filtration of protein is prevented in the glomerulus by:
A. Hydrostatic pressure
B. Oncotic pressure
C. Renin
D. The glomerular filtration barrier

A

D. The glomerular filtration barrier

72
Q

The renin–angiotensin–aldosterone system is responsible
for all of the following except:
A. Vasoconstriction of the afferent arteriole
B. Vasoconstriction of the efferent arteriole
C. Reabsorbing sodium
D. Releasing aldosterone

A

A. Vasoconstriction of the afferent arteriole

73
Q

The primary chemical affected by the renin–angiotensin–aldosterone system is:
A. Chloride
B. Sodium
C. Potassium
D. Hydrogen

A

B. Sodium

74
Q

Secretion of renin is stimulated by:
A. Juxtaglomerular cells
B. Angiotensin I and II
C. Macula densa cells
D. Circulating angiotensin-converting enzyme

A

C. Macula densa cells

75
Q

The hormone aldosterone is responsible for:
A. Hydrogen ion secretion
B. Potassium secretion
C. Chloride retention
D. Sodium retention

A

D. Sodium retention

76
Q

The fluid leaving the glomerulus has a specific gravity of:
A. 1.005
B. 1.010
C. 1.015
D. 1.020

A

B. 1.010

77
Q

For active transport to occur, a chemical must:
A. Combine with a carrier protein to create electrochemical energy
B. Be filtered through the proximal convoluted tubule
C. Be in higher concentration in the filtrate than in the blood
D. Be in higher concentration in the blood than in the filtrate

A

A. Combine with a carrier protein to create electrochemical energy

78
Q

Which of the tubules is impermeable to water?
A. Proximal convoluted tubule
B. Descending loop of Henle
C. Ascending loop of Henle
D. Distal convoluted tubule

A

C. Ascending loop of Henle

79
Q

Glucose will appear in the urine when the:
A. Blood level of glucose is 200 mg/dL
B. Tm for glucose is reached
C. Renal threshold for glucose is exceeded
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

80
Q

Concentration of the tubular filtrate by the countercurrent mechanism depends on all of the following except:
A. High salt concentration in the medulla
B. Water-impermeable walls of the ascending loop of Henle
C. Reabsorption of sodium and chloride from the ascending loop of Henle
D. Reabsorption of water in the descending loop of Henle

A

D. Reabsorption of water in the descending loop of Henle

81
Q

ADH regulates the final urine concentration by controlling:
A. Active reabsorption of sodium
B. Tubular permeability
C. Passive reabsorption of urea
D. Passive reabsorption of chloride

A

B. Tubular permeability

82
Q

Decreased production of ADH:
A. Produces a low volume of urine
B. Produces a high volume of urine
C. Increases excretion of ammonia
D. Affects active transport of sodium

A

B. Produces a high volume of urine

83
Q

Bicarbonate ions filtered by the glomerulus are returned to the blood:
A. In the proximal convoluted tubule
B. Combined with hydrogen ions
C. By tubular secretion
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

84
Q

If ammonia is not produced by the distal convoluted tubule, the urine pH will be:
A. Acidic
B. Basic
C. Hypothenuric
D. Hypersthenuric

A

B. Basic

85
Q

Place the appropriate letter in front of the following clearance substances:
A. Exogenous
B. Endogenous
1. beta2-microglobulin
2. creatinine
3. cystatin C
4. 125 I-iothalmate

A
  1. B
  2. B
  3. B
  4. A
86
Q

The largest source of error in creatinine clearance tests is:
A. Secretion of creatinine
B. Improperly timed urine specimens
C. Refrigeration of the urine
D. Time of collecting blood specimen

A

B. Improperly timed urine specimens

86
Q

Clearance tests used to determine the glomerular filtration rate must measure substances that are:
A. Not filtered by the glomerulus
B. Completely reabsorbed by the proximal convoluted tubule
C. Secreted in the distal convoluted tubule
D. Neither reabsorbed nor secreted by the tubules

A

D. Neither reabsorbed nor secreted by the tubules

86
Q

Performing a clearance test using radionucleotides:
A. Eliminates the need to collect urine
B. Does not require an infusion
C. Provides visualization of the filtration
D. Both A and C

A

D. Both A and C

86
Q

Given the following information, calculate the creatinine
clearance:

24-hour urine volume = 1000 mL; serum creatinine = 2.0 mg/dL;
urine creatinine = 200 mg/dL

A

200 mg/dl x 1000mL /
2.0 mg/dL x 1440 mg
3.= 69 mL/min

87
Q

Variables that are included in the MDRD-IDSM estimated calculations of creatinine clearance include all
of the following except:
A. Serum creatinine
B. Weight
C. Age
D. Gender

A

B. Weight

88
Q

An advantage to using cystatin C to monitor GFR is that:
A. It does not require urine collection
B. It is not secreted by the tubules
C. It can be measured by immunoassay
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

89
Q

Solute dissolved in solvent will:
A. Raise the vapor pressure
B. Lower the boiling point
C. Decrease the osmotic pressure
D. Lower the freezing point

A

D. Lower the freezing point

90
Q

Substances that may interfere with freezing-point measurement of urine and serum osmolarity include all
of the following except:
A. Ethanol
B. Lactic acid
C. Sodium
D. Lipids

A

C. Sodium

91
Q

Clinical osmometers use NaCl as a reference solution because:
A. 1 g molecular weight of NaCl will lower the freezing point 1.86°C
B. NaCl is readily frozen
C. NaCl is partially ionized, similar to the composition of urine
D. 1 g equivalent weight of NaCl will raise the freezing point 1.86°C

A

C. NaCl is partially ionized, similar to the composition of urine

92
Q

The normal serum osmolarity is:
A. 50 to 100 mOsm
B. 275 to 300 mOsm
C. 400 to 500 mOsm
D. 3 times the urine osmolarity

A

B. 275 to 300 mOsm

93
Q

After controlled fluid intake, the urine-to-serum osmolarity ratio should be at least:
A. 1:1
B. 2:1
C. 3:1
D. 4:1

A

A. 1:1

94
Q

To provide an accurate measure of renal blood flow, a test substance should be completely:
A. Filtered by the glomerulus
B. Reabsorbed by the tubules
C. Secreted when it reaches the distal convoluted tubule
D. Cleared on each contact with functional renal tissue

A

D. Cleared on each contact with functional renal tissue

95
Q

Renal tubular acidosis can be caused by the:
A. Production of excessively acidic urine due to increased filtration of hydrogen ions
B. Production of excessively acidic urine due to increased secretion of hydrogen ions
C. Inability to produce an acidic urine due to impaired production of ammonia
D. Inability to produce an acidic urine due to increased production of ammonia

A

C. Inability to produce an acidic urine due to impaired production of ammonia

96
Q

Tests performed to detect renal tubular acidosis after administering an ammonium chloride load include all of
the following except:
A. Urine ammonia
B. Arterial pH
C. Urine pH
D. Titratable acidity

A

B. Arterial pH

97
Q

The concentration of a normal urine specimen can be estimated by which of the following?
A. Color
B. Clarity
C. Foam
D. Odor

A

A. Color

98
Q

The normal yellow color of urine is produced by:
A. Bilirubin
B. Hemoglobin
C. Urobilinogen
D. Urochrome

A

D. Urochrome

99
Q

The presence of bilirubin in a urine specimen produces a:
A. Yellow foam when shaken
B. White foam when shaken
C. Cloudy specimen
D. Yellow-red specimen

A

A. Yellow foam when shaken

100
Q

A urine specimen containing melanin will appear:
A. Pale pink
B. Dark yellow
C. Blue-green
D. Black

A

D. Black

101
Q

Specimens that contain hemoglobin can be visually distinguished from those that contain RBCs because:
A. Hemoglobin produces a clear yellow specimen
B. Hemoglobin produces a cloudy pink specimen
C. RBCs produce a cloudy red specimen
D. RBCs produce a clear red specimen

A

C. RBCs produce a cloudy red specimen

102
Q

A patient with a viscous orange specimen may have been:
A. Treated for a urinary tract infection
B. Taking vitamin B pills
C. Eating fresh carrots
D. Taking antidepressants

A

A. Treated for a urinary tract infection

103
Q

The presence of a pink precipitate in a refrigerated specimen is caused by:
A. Hemoglobin
B. Urobilin
C. Uroerythrin
D. Beets

A

C. Uroerythrin

104
Q

Microscopic examination of a clear urine that produces a white precipitate after refrigeration will show:
A. Amorphous urates
B. Porphyrins
C. Amorphous phosphates
D. Yeast

A

C. Amorphous phosphates

105
Q

The color of urine containing porphyrins will be:
A. Yellow-brown
B. Green
C. Orange
D. Port wine

A

D. Port wine

106
Q

Which of the following specific gravities would be most likely to correlate with a urine that is pale yellow?
A. 1.005
B. 1.010
C. 1.020
D. 1.030

A

A. 1.005

107
Q

A urine specific gravity measured by a refractometer is 1.029, and the temperature of the urine is 14°C. The
specific gravity should be reported as:
A. 1.023
B. 1.027
C. 1.029
D. 1.032

A

C. 1.029

108
Q

The principle of refractive index is to compare:
A. Light velocity in solutions with light velocity in solids
B. Light velocity in air with light velocity in solutions
C. Light scattering by air with light scattering by solutions
D. Light scattering by particles in solution

A

B. Light velocity in air with light velocity in solutions

109
Q

A correlation exists between a specific gravity by a refractometer of 1.050 and a:
A. 2+ glucose
B. 2+ protein
C. First morning specimen
D. Radiographic dye infusion

A

D. Radiographic dye infusion

110
Q

A cloudy urine specimen turns black upon standing and has a specific gravity of 1.012. The major concern about this specimen would be:
A. Color
B. Turbidity
C. Specific gravity
D. All of the above

A

A. Color

111
Q

A specimen with a specific gravity of 1.035 would be considered:
A. Isosthenuric
B. Hyposthenuric
C. Hypersthenuric
D. Not urine

A

C. Hypersthenuric

112
Q

A specimen with a specific gravity of 1.001 would be considered:
A. Hyposthenuric
B. Not urine
C. Hypersthenuric
D. Isosthenuric

A

B. Not urine

113
Q

A strong odor of ammonia in a urine specimen could indicate:
A. Ketones
B. Normalcy
C. Phenylketonuria
D. An old specimen

A

D. An old specimen

114
Q

The microscopic examination of a clear red urine is reported as many WBCs and epithelial cells. What does
this suggest?
A. Urinary tract infection
B. Dilute random specimen
C. Hematuria
D. Possible mix-up of specimen and sediment

A

D. Possible mix-up of specimen and sediment

115
Q

Which of the following would contribute the most to a urine osmolality?
A. One osmole of glucose
B. One osmole of urea
C. One osmole of sodium chloride
D. All contribute equally

A

C. One osmole of sodium chloride

116
Q

Which of the following colligative properties is not stated correctly?
A. The boiling point is raised by solute
B. The freezing point is raised by solute
C. The vapor pressure is lowered by solute
D. The osmotic pressure is raised by solute

A

B. The freezing point is raised by solute

117
Q

An osmole contains:
A. One gram molecular weight of solute dissolved in 1 liter of solvent
B. One gram molecular weight of solute dissolved in 1 kilogram of solvent
C. Two gram molecular weights of solute dissolved in 1 liter of solvent
D. Two gram molecular weights of solute dissolved in 1 kilogram of solvent

A

B. One gram molecular weight of solute dissolved in 1 kilogram of solvent

118
Q

The unit of osmolality measured in the clinical laboratory is the:
A. Osmole
B. Milliosmole
C. Molecular weight
D. Ionic charge

A

A. Osmole

119
Q

In the reagent strip specific gravity reaction, the polyelectrolyte:
A. Combines with hydrogen ions in response to ion concentration
B. Releases hydrogen ions in response to ion concentration
C. Releases hydrogen ions in response to pH
D. Combines with sodium ions in response to pH

A

B. Releases hydrogen ions in response to ion concentration

120
Q

Which of the following will react in the reagent strip specific gravity test?
A. Glucose
B. Radiographic dye
C. Protein
D. Chloride

A

D. Chloride

121
Q

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A

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