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FINALS - SPRING 2016 > Clinical Fundamentals 2 > Flashcards

Clinical Fundamentals 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Nosocomial infection that results from a particular treatment or therapeutic procedure

A

Iatrogenic

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2
Q

Leading nosocomial infection

A

UTI due to catheter use

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3
Q

Bloodstream also at risk due to long term use of __________.

A

Vascular Access Devices (VAD)

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4
Q

4 microorganisms:

A

Bacteria
Fungi
Parasites
Viruses

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5
Q

Bacteria is classified by _____ or _____.

A

Shape

Grouping

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6
Q

Bacteria must be _____ to be seen under a microscope

A

Stained

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7
Q

Bacteria that takes stain

A

Gram-Positive

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8
Q

Bacteria that does not take stain

A

Gram-Negative

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9
Q

Bacteria resistant to colorization by acid alcohol

A

Acid Fast

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10
Q

Bacteria form a protective ________ until conditions are right to survive.

A

SPORE

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11
Q

4 EXs of bacteria

A

TB
Strep Throat
Lyme Disease
Gonorrhea

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12
Q

Fungi exists as ______ and ______.

A

Yeasts
Molds

(Ex: thrush)

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13
Q

_______ are Protoza that move by Cilia, Pseudopod, or Flagella

A

Parasites

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14
Q

Parasites are also Helminths. Helminths = ….

A

Worms

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15
Q

______ are smallest microorganisms known to cause disease

A

Viruses

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16
Q

______ attach itself to a specific host cell, invades it, then produces new viral particles as host is destroyed (“Lysis”)

A

Viruses

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17
Q

5 EXs of Viruses

A 
Flu
Cold
Mumps
HIV
Hepatitis
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18
Q

4 elements needed to transmit infection

A

Infectious agent and reservoir
Environment
Portal of exit
Portal of entrance into host

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19
Q

5 means of transmission

A 
Direct or indirect contact
Droplet
Vehicle (food, water, drugs)
Vector (insects, animals)
Airborne
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20
Q

Immune-suppressed persons at ______ risk

A

Greater

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21
Q

3 methods of acquiring immunity

A

Active
Passive
Artificial Active

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22
Q

Active Acquired Immunity

A

Antibodies produced in a person’s body

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23
Q

Passive Acquired Immunity

A

Received from another person - short-term

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24
Q

Artificial Active Acquired Immunity

A

From vaccination

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25
Q

4 process of infection

A

Incubation
Prodromal
Full Disease
Convalescent

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26
Q

Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome (AIDS) caused by ___________.

A

Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV)

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27
Q

HIV is a retrovirus that destroys ____ cells in immune system

A

T-4

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28
Q

There are ___ phases of infection.

Person is not diagnosed with AIDS until stage ___.

A

5

5

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29
Q

4 common opportunistic infections are:

A

PCP
KS
AIDs dementia
Thrush

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30
Q

No vaccine for AIDs so treatment focuses on _________ virus in bloodstream

A

Decreasing

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31
Q

Always use ___________.

A

Standard Precautions

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32
Q

If accidentally exposed…..

A

Report it immediately

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33
Q

AIDs / HIV transmitted (3)

A

Blood to blood
Semen to blood
Mother to child

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34
Q

Viral hepatitis

A

Inflammation of liver

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35
Q

6 types of Viral Hepatitis

A 
A
B
C
D
E
G
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36
Q

___ and ___ viral hepatitis spread via fecal to oral route, others via blood

A

A

E

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37
Q

HC workers are at risk for _________.

Avoid ______ sticks and _______ exposure.

A

Hepatitis B
Needle
Blood

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38
Q

Caused by AFB, mainly affects lungs but can affect other parts of body

A

Tuberculosis (TB)

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39
Q

______ skin test done to detect TB - also CXR

A

PPD (Purified Protein Derivative)

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40
Q

If pt is suspected of having TB, HC worker should wear ____ respirator mask and put _______ mask on patient if leaving their room

A

N95

Regular

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41
Q

Skin infection common in patients

A

MRSA (Methicillin-Resistant Staphylococcus Aureaus)

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42
Q

MRSA stands for

A

Methicillin-Resistant Staphylococcus Aureaus

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43
Q

15 second hand wash should ____ and ____ each patient contact

A

Precede

Follow

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44
Q

Best way to break cycle of infectivity

A

Hand washing

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45
Q

Standard Precautions Tier 1

A

Protect against blood / body fluids everyday with PPE

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46
Q

PPE

A

Gloves
Gown
Goggles
Mask

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47
Q

True or false: it is okay to recap needles

A

Never

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48
Q

Have sharps container …..

A

Near work site

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49
Q

Disinfect items appropriately by _____ and ____ means

A

Mechanical

Chemical

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50
Q

Transmission Based Precautions

A

Tier 2 - isolation

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51
Q

When microbes are suspended in air and may be inhaled

A

Airborne precaution

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52
Q

When droplets are in air via coughing or sneezing

A

Droplet precaution

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53
Q

Touch contaminated body surface

A

Direct contact precaution

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54
Q

Touch contaminated object = fomite

A

Indirect contact precaution

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55
Q

Highly susceptible patient (aka strict, protective, reverse isolation)

A

Expanded Precautions

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56
Q

Clean portable, wear PPE, wash hands for 3 minutes when entering _____.

A

NICU

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57
Q

Infections that are acquired in course of medical care

A

Nosocomial

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58
Q

4 Vitals

A

Pulse
BP
Respirations
Temperature

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59
Q

Do you need a dr orders to take vitals?

A

No

60
Q

Physiologic balance between heat produced and heat lost

A

Temperature

61
Q

Pyrexia

A

Fever

62
Q

Hypoxia

A

Below normal body temperature

63
Q

Oral temperature

A

98.6

64
Q

Axillary temperature

A

97.6

65
Q

Rectal temperature

A

99.6

66
Q

Aural temperature

A

97.6

67
Q

Ty,panic Thermometer used for _____ temperature

A

Aural

68
Q

Has a blunt tip and red cover

A

Rectal thermometer

69
Q

Pulse over heart found with stethoscope

A

Apical

70
Q

Usually take pulse at ______ artery

A

Radial

71
Q

Why should you not use your thumb to take a pulse?

A

It has a pulse of its own

72
Q

Normal average adult pulse

A

60-90 BPM

73
Q

Abnormally rapid heart rate (+ 100 BPM)

A

Tachycardia

74
Q

Abnormally slow heart rate (less than 60 BPM)

A

Bradycardia

75
Q

Respiratory System exchanges _____ for carbon dioxide

A

Oxygen

76
Q

Deoxygenated blood returns to ____ side of heart through vena cava

A

Right

77
Q

Oxygenated blood pumped out of _____ side through Aorta

A

Left

78
Q

Average adult respirations

A

16-20 BPM

79
Q

Blue discoloration due to less than 10 breaths/min

A

Cyanosis

80
Q

Difficult breathing; shortness of breath

A

Dyspnea

81
Q

Do NOT tell patient you are assessing their respirations or it may alter their breathing — pretend you are….

A

Still taking their pulse

82
Q

Amount of blood flow ejected from left ventricle during Systole and amount of resistance blood meets due to systemic vascular resistance

A

Blood Pressure

83
Q

Highest point during contraction of left ventricle (top #)

A

Systolic / systole

84
Q

Lowest point to which pressure drops during relaxation of ventricles (bottom #)

A

Diastole

85
Q

Normal adult range for systolic

A

90-120 mm. Hg

86
Q

Normal adult range for diastolic

A

50-70 mm. Hg

87
Q

Baseline pulse and BP should always be taking and recorded prior to ….

A

Injection of iodine contrast

88
Q

Use ___________ and ________________ to asses BP

A

Stethoscope

Sphygmomanometer

89
Q

Lungs supply ____ and remove _____ from body via alveoli

A

O2

CO2

90
Q

Measure blood gases via ______ artery stick

A

Radial

91
Q

Inadequate oxygen in arterial blood

A

Hypoxemia

92
Q

Excessive carbon dioxide in arterial blood

A

Hypercapnia

93
Q

__________ is used to monitor oxygen saturation of Hemoglobin using a sensor on a fingertip or earlobe

A

Pulse Oximeter

94
Q

True or false: Oxygen is not volatile

A

False, it is extremely volatile

95
Q

Should you set the oxygen first or place the device on the pt first?

A

Set oxygen first then place device on pt

96
Q

Too much oxygen in a pt with COPD can ____ them

A

Kill

97
Q

Disposable plastic device with 2 nose prongs; used most often; runs on 1-4 LPM

A

Nasal cannula

98
Q

Face mask must be run at atleast ____ LPM to flush out carbon dioxide

A

5

99
Q

Partially or fully controls patients breathing

A

Mechanical ventilator

Respirator

100
Q

Called to summon emergency response team

A

Stat page

Code blue

101
Q

Used to asses neurological response

A

Glasgow Coma Scale

102
Q

Maximum score for Glasgow Coma Scale

A

15

103
Q

Glasgow Coma Scale evaluates… (3)

A

“Eyes open”
“Motor response”
“Verbal response”

104
Q

Shock is body’s pathological reaction to… (3)

A

Illness
Trauma
Stress

105
Q

______ shock results when patient loses 15-20% of body fluids from hemorrhage, burns, vomiting, diarrhea

A

Hypovolemic

106
Q

_______ shock is caused by failure of heart to pump adequate blood to vital organs. (Ex: MI, cardiac tamponade, dysrhythmias)

A

Cardiogenic

107
Q

______ shock results from loss of nerve tone causing pooling of blood (Ex: spinal cord injury, depressant meds, anesthesia)

A

Neurogenic

108
Q

______ shock is caused by bacteria - most likely seem in ICU/ER portable situations

A

Septic

109
Q

_______ shock is from severe allergic reaction to antigen. (Ex: iodine contrast, meds, insects)

A

Anaphylactic

110
Q

Most common type of shock seen in X-ray department

A

Anaphylactic

111
Q

Student ______ sign as witness but _____ explain consent form

A

Cannot

Can

112
Q

Type of diabetes onset before 30 and needs insulin injections

A

Type 1

113
Q

Diabetes type that onsets after 40 and can hopefully be controlled by diet and exercise

A

Type 2

114
Q

Type of diabetes that occurs in late stages of pregnancy

A

Gestational

115
Q

What happens when pt has taken insulin but not eating - they need sugar

A

Hypoglycemia

116
Q

What happens when pt has ate but did not take insulin - they need insulin

A

Diabetic Ketoacidosis

117
Q

______ shock results when patient loses 15-20% of body fluids from hemorrhage, burns, vomiting, diarrhea

A

Hypovolemic

118
Q

_______ shock is caused by failure of heart to pump adequate blood to vital organs. (Ex: MI, cardiac tamponade, dysrhythmias)

A

Cardiogenic

119
Q

______ shock results from loss of nerve tone causing pooling of blood (Ex: spinal cord injury, depressant meds, anesthesia)

A

Neurogenic

120
Q

______ shock is caused by bacteria - most likely seem in ICU/ER portable situations

A

Septic

121
Q

_______ shock is from severe allergic reaction to antigen. (Ex: iodine contrast, meds, insects)

A

Anaphylactic

122
Q

Most common type of shock seen in X-ray department

A

Anaphylactic

123
Q

Student ______ sign as witness but _____ explain consent form

A

Cannot

Can

124
Q

Type of diabetes onset before 30 and needs insulin injections

A

Type 1

125
Q

Diabetes type that onsets after 40 and can hopefully be controlled by diet and exercise

A

Type 2

126
Q

Type of diabetes that occurs in late stages of pregnancy

A

Gestational

127
Q

What happens when pt has taken insulin but not eating - they need sugar

A

Hypoglycemia

128
Q

What happens when pt has ate but did not take insulin - they need insulin

A

Diabetic Ketoacidosis

129
Q

Coma complication of type 2 diabetes

A

Diabetic Coma

130
Q

Caused by occlusion of blood to brain, rupture of brain vessel resulting in blood in brain

A

CVA / Stroke

131
Q

Causes hemipariesis, dysphasia, etc

A

CVA / Stroke

132
Q

STRoke =

A

Smile
Talk
Raise arms

133
Q

When pt is having a stroke, get pt to ER stat for _____ busting drugs

A

Clot

134
Q

_____ arrest requires CPR

A

Cardiac

135
Q

CABs =

A

Circulation
Airway
Breathing

136
Q

4 steps when someone is in cardiac arrest

A

Look
Listen
Feel
Call 911

137
Q

_____ compression-to-breaths for adult and child 1 man CPR

A

30:2

138
Q

Place electrodes on pt’s chest, follow instructions for shock and compressions as needed

A

AED

139
Q

Abdominal thrust (Heimlich) or Chest Thrust if obese or pregnant

A

Airway Obstruction

140
Q

_____ do a blind finger sweep

A

Never

141
Q

Thrashing on ground, protect from injury

A

Generalized

Grand Mal Seizure

142
Q

Facial grimacing, lip smacking, etc

A

Partial

Petit Mal Complex Seizure

143
Q

Finger shake, speak unintelligibly

A

Partial simple

Absence seizure

144
Q

______ can be caused by flashing lights or video games

A

Seizures

145
Q

Fainting; put head below knees or lay pt down and elevate their feet

A

Syncope

146
Q

Give pt a guide to demonstrate their pain (2 types)

A

Numbers (1-10)

Pictures of faces

FINALS - SPRING 2016 (3 decks)

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