Clinical Biochemistry: Laboratory Investigation of Liver & GI Tract Disease Flashcards

1
Q

Describe the structure of the liver

A
  • The liver is the largest organ in the body
  • Located in right upper quadrant of abdomen
  • Comprised of large right lobe and smaller left lobe
  • Lobes consist of lobules - sheets of hepatocytes
  • Has dual blood supply – 2/3 comes from the gut via the hepatic portal vein (nutrient rich) and 1/3 from the hepatic artery (oxygen rich)
  • Blood leaves the liver through the hepatic veins
  • Substances for excretion from the liver are secreted from hepatocytes into canaliculi.
  • The bile canaliculi merge and form bile ductules, which subsequently merge to become a bile duct and eventually become the common hepatic duct.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the major functions of the liver?

A
  • Carbohydrate metabolism
  • Fat metabolism
  • Protein metabolism
  • Synthesis of plasma proteins
  • Hormone metabolism
  • Metabolism and excretion of drugs and foreign compounds
  • Storage – glycogen, vitamin A and B12, plus iron and copper
  • Metabolism and excretion of bilirubin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are some of the most common types of liver disease?

A
  • Hepatitis
    • Inflammation of liver leading to damage of hepatocytes
  • Cholestasis
    • Blockage of canaliculi
    • Can be Intra-heptatic or extra-hepatic (in bile ducts)
  • Cirrhosis
    • Increased fibrosis - leads to scarring
    • Liver shrinkage
    • Decreased hepatocellular function
    • Obstruction of bile flow
  • Tumours
    • Can be primary cancer (e.g. Hepatocellular carcinoma)
    • More frequently secondary cancer of: colon, stomach, bronchus (known as liver metastases)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How do you biochemically assess liver function?

A
  • Use a Liver Function Test (LFT)
  • LFT useually tests for:
    • Bilirubin
    • Albumin
    • Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) or Aspartate aminotransferase (AST)
    • Alkaline phosphatase
    • Gamma glutamyltransferase
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Why are liver function tests not used for diagnosis of liver disease?

A
  • Because they are insensitive indicators of liver ‘function’ so a single result rarely provides a diagnosis on its own
  • This means you have to look for patterns of results that may indicate liver disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are liver function tests used for?

A
  • Screening for the presence of liver disease
  • Assessing prognosis
  • Measuring the efficacy of treatments for liver disease
  • Differential diagnosis: predominantly hepatic or cholestatic
  • Monitoring disease progression
  • Assessing severity, especially in patients with cirrhosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Give an example of a typical inflammatory pattern that is seen on a liver function test

A
  • Bilirubin: Either normal or slightly increased
  • ALT: Massively increased
  • ALP: Either normal or slightly increased
  • Albumin: Normal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Give an example of a typical cholestatic pattern that is seen on a liver function test

A
  • Bilirubin: Variable increase
  • ALT: Either normal or slightly increased
  • ALP: Usually massively increased
  • Albumin: Normal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What type of liver disease will cause a change in albumin levels?

A
  • Tends to decrease in chronic liver disease (cirrhosis)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is Bilirubin?

A
  • Yellow-orange pigment derived from the breakdown of haem
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the 2 different forms of Bilirubin?

A
  • Conjugated (direct-reacting bilirubin)
  • Unconjugated (indirect-reacting bilirubin) - Very hydrophobic and so has to be conjugated in liver to become more water-soluble to allow it to be excreted
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What measurements of bilirubin can be directly measured in the lab?

A
  • Total bilirubin (usually <21 mmol/L)
  • Conjugated (direct) bilirubin (usually <10 mmol/L)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How can unconjugated bilirubin be measured using total and conjugated bilirubin levels?

A
  • Unconjugated bilirubin = Total bilirubin - Conjugated (direct) bilirubin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What form of bilirubin binds to which other liver protein? Why is this?

A
  • Unconjugated bilirubin binds tightly but reversibly to albumin
  • This occurs because unconjugated bilirubin is very hydrophobic and so binding to albumin allows it to be transported via the bloodstream to the liver to be conjugated
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Describe the process of bilirubin metabolism

A
  • RBC’s transported to spleen where they get broken down by reticuloendothelial cells
  • Iron that’s formed from break down is re-utilised but haem gets broken down into bilirubin (unconjugated)
  • Bilirubin binds to albumin which allows it to travel to the liver
  • In the liver bilirubin gets conjugated to glucuronide via the enzyme UDP-glucuronyl transferase
  • This conjugated bilirubin is now water soluble and is taken to the small intestine via the bile duct
  • In the small intestine bilirubin gets converted to urobilinogen
  • Urobilinogen can enter the liver via the extrahepatic circulation or it can enter the systemic circulation where it’ll eventually be excreted by the kidneys
  • Most urobilinogen goes on to enter large intestine where bacteria converts it to stercobilin.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is Jaundice?

A
  • The yellow discolouration of tissue due to bilirubin deposition - imbalance between production & excretion
  • This imbalance results in increased serum/plasma concentration of bilirubin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How high must the serum/plasma concentration of bilirubin be before symptoms are evident?

A
  • 2x the upper reference of normal, >50 μmol/L.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Why is it important to determine whether there has been an increase in conjugated or unconjugated bilirubin in Jaundice?

A
  • Because it is key in determining what is happening to the liver and where it’s being damaged
  • If there’s an increase in unconjugated bilirubin it means production is increased beyond capacity of liver conjugation
  • If there’s an increase in conjugated bilirubin it means there’s an obstruction of bilirubin flow
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are some of the causes of Jaundice?

A
  • Pre-hepatic: Excessive production of bilirubin e.g. due to excessive haemolysis (breakdown of RBCs)
    • Can also be caused by Haemolytic anaemia, Crigler-Najjar syndrome and Gilbert’s syndrome
  • Intra-hepatic: Dysfunction of hepatic cells - can lead to some cholestasis due to scarring and constriction of caniculi
    • Can also be caused by, Viral hepatitis, Drugs and Cirrhosis
  • Extra-hepatic: Blockage of Caniculi causing Obstruction of bilirubin drainage
    • Can also be caused by Common duct stone, Carcinoma and Pancreatitis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is Neonatal Jaundice?

A
  • Jaundice in babies due to the incomplete maturation of the immune system (immaturity of bilirubin conjugation enzymes)
  • Neonatal jaundice is transient (resolves in the first 10 days).
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Why are high levels of unconjugated bilirubin very dangerous for a newborn?

A
  • Because due to its hydrophobicity unconjugated bilirubin can cross the blood-brain-barrier and cause kernicterus - brain dysfunction caused by excess bilirubin
  • This brain dysfunction occurs because bilirubin is toxic to the neurons of the brain
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How is neonatal jaundice treated?

A
  • Phototherapy with UV light – converts unconjugated bilirubin to water soluble, non-toxic conjugated form
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is it called when neonatal jaundice results in an increase in conjugated bilirubin?

A
  • Pathological jaundice
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is Gilbert’s Syndrome?

A
  • Benign liver disorder characterized by mild, fluctuating increases in unconjugated bilirubin
  • It is caused by a genetic defect in the promoter gene for UDP-glucuronyl transferase
  • This results in a decreased ability of the liver to conjugate bilirubin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are the main functions of Alanine Aminotransferase (ALT) and Aspartate Aminotransferase (AST)?

A
  • They catalyse the transfer of amino groups between amino acids (α-amino acid -> α-oxo acid)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Where are ALT and AST distributed within the body?

A
  • ALT is predominantly localised to liver
  • AST has wide tissue distribution: located in heart, skeletal muscle, kidney, brain, erythrocytes, lung & liver
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Are both ALT and AST cytosolic (found with cytosol of a cell)?

A
  • Yes both are cytosolic but AST is also present in mitochondria
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is ALT used to identify?

A
  • Used to identify liver damage arising from hepatocyte inflammation or necrosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

How can ALT/AST levels be used to differentiate between severe liver damage and cholestasis?

A
  • ALT/AST values >20x the upper limit of normal (ULN) may occur with severe liver damage
  • ALT/AST values <5x ULN may occur in cholestasis due to secondary damage to hepatocytes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What liver diseases result in a modest elevtaion of ALT/AST (5 x ULN)?

A
  • Fatty liver
  • Chronic viral hepatitis
  • Prolonged Cholestatic liver disease
  • Cirrhosis - In compensated cirrhosis values may be normal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What liver diseases result in a high elevation of ALT/AST (10-20x ULN)?

A
  • Acute viral hepatitis
  • Hepatic necrosis induced by drugs or toxins
  • Ischaemic hepatitis induced by circulatory shock
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the function of Alkaline Phosphatase (ALP)?

A
  • It removes phosphate groups from proteins and nucleic acids in alkaline pH environments
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Where is ALP distributed within the body?

A
  • ALP isoforms mainly produced in liver and bone but also placental and intestinal forms
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What type of liver disease is ALP a good marker for?

A
  • Cholestasis (Bile duct obstruction) because this causes increased ALP synthesis and thus an increase in measured activity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What are some causes of cholestasis (bile duct obstruction)?

A
  • Extrahepatic cholestatsis
    • Stones
    • Tumour
    • Stricture
  • Intrahepatic cholestasis
    • Infiltration
    • Space occupying lesion
36
Q

What liver diseases result in a large elevation of ALP (>3 x ULN)?

A
  • Intra- & extrahepatic cholestasis
37
Q

What liver diseases result in a modest elevation of ALP (<3 x ULN)?

A
  • Hepatocellular disease
38
Q

Because ALP is found mainly in bone it’s levels are associated with osteoblastic activity, what are some things associated with osteoblastic activity that result in increased ALP levels?

A
  • Healing fractures
  • Vitamin D deficiency
  • Paget’s disease
39
Q

How can the source of an elevated ALP be determined?

A
  • Can be determined by gel electrophoresis which is used to separate ALP isoenzymes into liver, bone, and intestinal fractions.
40
Q

What property of the placental isoenzyme of ALP makes it easier to identify than the other ALP isoforms?

A
  • Can be identified as it is heat stable at 65°C for 10 minutes, unlike the other isoenzymes.
41
Q

What is Gamma Glutamyl Transferase (GGT)?

A
  • GGT is a membrane bound enzyme that transfers the gamma glutamyl group from peptides such as glutathione to other peptides and L-amino acids.
42
Q

Where is GGT distributed within the body?

A
  • Wide tissue distribution, but liver isoenzyme activity predominates in serum
43
Q

What other liver enzyme is GGT used in combination with when interpreting liver function test results?

A
  • GGT used in combination with ALP,
  • Increases in GGT value confirms ALP of hepatic origin
44
Q

What liver diseases result in an increase in GGT?

A
  • Cholestasis and hepatocellular disease
45
Q

GGT can be increased in non-hepatic disorders, name of the non-hepatic disorders where this may be the case

A
  • Pancreatitis, myocardial infarction and diabetes mellitus
46
Q

What does an increase in ALP and GGT indicate?

A
  • Indicates that ALP and GGT increased due to hepatic cause (cholestasis)
47
Q

What does an increased ALP but normal GGT indicate?

A
  • Indicates increased ALP is from a bone source
48
Q

What does a normal ALP but an increased GGT indicate?

A
  • Indicates increased GGT due to excess alcohol intake
49
Q

What is Albumin?

A
  • Major circulating plasma protein synthesised exclusively in the liver
50
Q

What is the concentration of Albumin an indication of?

A
  • Concentration widely regarded as indication of hepatic synthetic function
51
Q

What happens to serum albumin levels in acute and chronic destructive liver diseases of moderate severity?

A
  • Serum albumin levels decrease
52
Q

What other things cause decreased albumin levels?

A
  • Haemodilution
  • Impaired synthesis e.g. malnutrition
  • Increased loss e.g. nephrotic syndrome
  • Inflammatory leak
53
Q

Why might albumin levels be normal in early acute hepatitis?

A
  • Because of its long half-life (21 days)
54
Q

What is the prevalence of Non-Alcoholic Fatty Liver Disease (NAFLD) and is it more prevalent than alcoholic liver disease?

A
  • Prevalence
    • 20% in general population
    • Up to 70% in type 2 diabetes
  • NAFLD more prevalent than alcoholic liver disease
55
Q

What are some of the risk factors for NAFLD?

A
  • Obesity
  • Diabetes/insulin resistance
  • Hypertension
56
Q

What are the different stages of NAFLD?

A
  • Hepatic steatosis (fat >5% liver volume) - can be reversed with exercise/diet
  • Can progress to inflammation and hepatitis
  • This leads to greater risk of : Fibrosis, Cirrhosis and Hepatocellular carcinoma
57
Q

Compare the following features between NAFLD and alcoholic liver disease:

  • Body weight
  • Fasting plasma glucose or HbA1c
  • Reported daily alcohol intake
  • ALT
  • AST
  • AST:ALT ratio
  • GGT
  • Triglycerides
  • HDL cholesterol
  • Mean corpuscular volume
A
58
Q

Describe the different tests used to determine the stage of NAFLD that a patient is in

A
  • FIB4/NAFLD fibrosis score
    • Combination of patient age, platelets and AST and ALT
    • This enables categorisation of the patients according to risk
  • ELF (Enhanced liver fibrosis) test
    • Combination of serum biomarkers: Hyaluronic acid, PN3P and TIMP
    • Levels of these biomarkers are used to produce ELF score
59
Q

What ELF score indicates high risk of advanced fibrosis and what ELF score indicates low risk. What would happen to the patient in each case?

A
  • ELF score < 9.5 = low risk so patient would be managed in primary care
  • ELF score > 9.5 = high risk so patient would be refered to hepatology clinic
60
Q

Describe the GI tract

A
  • 7-10m continuous tube that runs from mouth to the anus
  • Made up of many sections each with distinct anatomy and functions
61
Q

Describe the anatomy of the GI tract

A
  • Main organs are:
    • Oesophagus
    • Stomach
    • Large intestine (Colon)
    • Small intestine (Duodenum, Jejunum and Ileum)
  • Acessory organs are:
    • Liver
    • Gallbladder
    • Pancreas
62
Q

What is a gastric ulcer?

A
  • A break in the protective stomach mucosal lining
63
Q

What are some comon symptoms of gastric ulcers?

A
  • Pain in the abdomen that may come and go (may be eased with antacid)
  • Waking up with a feeling of pain in the abdomen
  • Bloating, retching and feeling sick
  • Feeling particularly ‘full’ after a normal size meal
64
Q

What are some causes of gastric ulcers?

A
  • Helicobacter pylori infection (80% of cases)
  • Use of aspirin and NSAIDs – non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (20% of cases)
65
Q

What is Helicobacter Pylori (H.Pylori) and how is it able to survive in the stomach?

A
  • H.pylori is helix-shaped gram-negative bacteria
  • It survives in the gastric acid by secreting urease which breaks down urea to form CO2 and ammonia
  • Ammonia neutralises gastric acid allowing H.Pylori to proliferate and damage the mucosal layer in the stomach
66
Q

How is H.Pylori able to be detected?

A
  • Patient drinks a solution containing urea labelled with an uncommon isotope e.g. non-radioactive carbon-13.
  • The detection of isotope-labelled carbon dioxide in exhaled breath indicates that the urea was broken down by urease-secreting H. pylori, present in the stomach.
67
Q

What is Vitamin B12?

A
  • Vitamin B12 (cobalamin) is a water soluble vitamin that has an essential role in the nervous system and the formation of red blood cells as a co-factor for DNA synthesis.
68
Q

Describe the process of vitamin B12 absorption

A
  • When dietary vitamin B12 enters the stomach it is bound to intrinsic factor (IF) by the parietal cells of the stomach
  • IF-bound Vitamin B12 enters intestine and when it reaches terminal ileum it binds to mucosal cells on ileum membrane
  • At this point Vitamin B12 dissociates from IF and is taken up by transcobalamin which takes it to the blood stream
69
Q

Why might it take a long time for symptoms of vitamin B12 deficiency to present themselves?

A
  • Because liver contains large store of vitamin B12 and so it takes a long time for this store to run out
70
Q

What condition is able to cause severe vitamin B12 deficiency? Why is this the case?

A
  • Pernicious anaemia causes severe vitamin B12 deficiency because it results in autoimmune attack on the gastric mucosa of stomach
  • This leads to atrophy of stomach leading to IF secretion becoming absent
71
Q

What are some signs and symptoms of Vitamin B12 defieciency?

A
  • Macrocytic anaemia (increased mean cell volume, MCV, decreased haemoglobin)
  • Weakness and tiredness
  • Pale skin
  • Glossitis – inflammation of the tongue
  • Nerve problems such as numbness or tingling (severe deficiency)
72
Q

What things can be used to test for vitamin B12 deficiency?

A
  • Serum vitamin B12 level: <150 pmol/L indicates probably B12 deficiency
  • Methylmalonic acid (MMA): Elevated in tissue B12 deficiency
  • Homocysteine: Elevated in B12 deficiency as not converted to methionine
    • Less specific than MMA as it’s also elevated in folate deficiency and hypothyroidism
  • Holotranscobalamin (active B12): Measurement of B12 bound to transcobalamin
73
Q

What is Coeliac disease?

A
  • An autoimmune disorder, primarily affecting the small intestine.
  • The disease results from immunological hypersensitivity to the ingested form of gluten (gliadin)
  • When small intestine is exposed to gliadin there’s an inflammatory reaction leading to the shortening of the villi lining and villous atrophy
74
Q

What are some of the symptoms of coeliac disease?

A
  • Anaemia
  • Weight loss
  • GI problems e.g. diarrhoea, abdominal distention, malabsorption and loss of appetite
75
Q

Describe the main test used to diagnose Coeliac disease

A
  • Tissue Transglutaminase Antibody test
    • Tissue transglutaminase (TTG) is a enzyme that deaminates (removes amino groups from) glutamine residues to glutamic acid on the gliadin fragment.
    • The enzyme can be a target autoantigen in the immune response, leading to destruction of intestinal epithelial cells and the production of anti-TTG antibodies.
    • Anti-TTG antibodies belong to the IgA subclass of immunoglobulins
    • A proportion of the healthy population are deficient in IgA so this test would produce a false negative result in IgA deficient patients with coeliac disease.
    • An alternative test that can be used in these patients is IgG deamidated gliadin peptide (DGP) antibodies.
76
Q

Describe some other tests used to diagnose Coeliac disease

A
  • Endomysial antibodies (EMA): these become elevated as part of ongoing damage to the intestine
  • A duodenal biopsy is the gold standard diagnosis of coeliac disease.
  • Gluten challenge: patients already on a gluten-free diet cannot be diagnosed as serology and histology tests will be normal until gluten is ingested.
77
Q

What is inflammatory bowel disease?

A
  • Inflammatory bowel disease(IBD) encompasses two distinct autoimmune conditions of the GI tract:
    • Ulcerative colitis - Diffuse inflammation affecting the mucosa of the colon only.
    • Crohn’s disease - Patchy ulceration affecting any part of the GI tract and may extend through to the bowel
78
Q

What are some common signs and symptoms of Crohn’s disease and Ulcerative colitis?

A
  • Abdominal pain
  • Prolonged diarrhoea with bowel urgency
  • Blood and/or mucus in stools
  • Fatigue
  • Weight loss and malnutrition
79
Q

What are some symptoms specific to Crohn’s disease?

A
  • Perianal lesions
  • Bowel obstruction leading to:
    • Abdominal bloating
    • Distension
    • Vomiting
    • Constipation
80
Q

How can Inflammatory bowel disease be diagnosed?

A
  • Colonoscopy
81
Q

Inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) and Irritable Bowel syndrome (IBS) have some common symptoms, e.g. abdominal pain. What are some of the differences between IBS and IBD?

A
82
Q

How can IBS and IBD be distinguished?

A
  • Using a faecal calprotectin test
83
Q

What is calprotectin and what is its mechanism of action?

A
  • Calprotectin is a zinc and calcium binding protein loacted within the cytosol of neutrophils
  • When there’s an inflammatory response in intestine neutrophils will migrate to lumen and will release calprotectin
  • Neutrophils will also leak into bloodstream from intestine due intestinal damage
  • This leads to Calprotectin being released into bloodstream which eventually ends up being excreted into faeces where it can be measured.
  • Calprotectin will be present in faeces of person with IBD but NOT IBS because there;s no inflammatory response during IBS
84
Q

What is Colorectal cancer?

A
  • Cancer originating in the colon/rectum
  • It arises predominantly from adenomatous polyps
  • Is often asymptomatic until late-stage disease (leading to poor prognosis).
85
Q

How can you test for colorectal cancer?

A
  • Tests must detect the small amounts of blood in faeces that may be present in asymptomatic individuals with bowel lesions - Guaic faecal occult blood (FOB)
  • Test isn’t very accurate as it can produce false positve or false negative results
86
Q

What is the Faecal Immunochemical Test (FIT)?

A
  • Dipstick’ test for blood in stool
  • Higher sensitivity than guaic FOB method
  • NICE have issued guidance saying FIT test should be used for suspected colorectal cancer patients who do not meet criteria for a suspected cancer pathway referral
87
Q

What result in a Faecal Immunochemical test would mean a positive result and indicate the patient may have colorectal cancer?

A
  • Threshold for positive screen is 120µg Hb/g faeces.
  • For symptomatic patients this threshold is only 10µg Hb/g faeces