Clinical Aspects of O+G Flashcards

1
Q

What form of imaging is predominantly used in O+G?

A

US

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Evaluate the different imaging modalities which may be used in pregnancy.

A

• X-Ray

  • Away from pelvis, negligible
  • Avoid radiation of breast tissue and uterus

• MR
- No evidence of harm

• CT (+ CTPA)

  • Increased risk (10%) of breast cancer
  • Relative risk is 1.1x

• V:Q Scan

  • No established risk
  • Lower sensitivity and specificity cf CTPA

• US

  • No direct harm
  • False positive risks e.g. ovarian cysts of unknown significance  anxiety or unnecessary intervention
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

State 3 things which may be looked for when ultrasound scanning the uterus.

A

• Uterine anomalies – bicornuate uterus
• Uterine tumours – fibroids
• Cervix – length predictor for onset of labour
- Important if premature/late miscarriage
• Uterine artery blood supply – predictor for pre-eclampsia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

State 5 things a healthcare worker may be looking for when imaging a foetus with ultrasound.

A
  • ‘Alive’ or not
  • Location: IU/Ectopic
  • Size of foetus (Crown-Rump Length – CRL)
  • Number of foetuses and type
  • Anatomical structures

• Foetal anomaly screening (18-21 weeks): head/cerebral hemispheres/lateral ventricles/cerebellum/foetal face/limbs/hands/feet/diaphragm/kidneys and bladder/spine

• Growth: Abdominal and head circumference/femur length + Estimated foetal weight
• Wellbeing: Liquor volume and Foetal blood flow measurements (blood flow; absent flow in diastole ≈ high placental resistance)
- Can check Middle Cerebral Artery (foetal anaemia or hypoxia) or Ductus Venosus (reversal of wave form in pre-terminal hypoxia)
• Presentation (cephalic vs breech or transverse vs oblique)
• Position of head in labour (e.g. if occiputs transverse before using forceps)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Describe antenatal care.

A

Medical care provided to detect and manage pre-existing maternal/foetal disorders that may affect the pregnancy or foetal wellbeing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Outline what is done at an antenatal booking visit.

A
  • Full history, full examination
  • Fundal height should be taken (cm)
  • Blood tests: ABO, Rhesus, STI screening, HBV, HCV, ßhCG and PAPP-A
  • Early pregnancy US scan: viability, number of foetuses, gestation, nuchal translucency
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which blood tests are conducted at the booking visit?

A

• Blood tests: ABO, Rhesus, STI screening, HBV, HCV, ßhCG and PAPP-A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What does the early pregnancy scan look at?

A

viability, number of foetuses, gestation, nuchal translucency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

When is the booking visit scheduled for?

A

12/40

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Upon follow-up visits, what is conducted?

A
  • Full history, full examination
  • Fundal height should be taken (cm), Liqor volume, foetal lie, presentation, foetal HR
  • Mid-pregnancy scan (20 weeks): microencephaly, short limbs, brain anomalies, cardiac anomalies; placental position
  • Quadruple blood tests: ßhCG, AFP, inhibin-A, unconjugated estriol (uE3)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

When is the Quadruple test scheduled for?

A

around 20 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What does the Quadruple test assess?

A

uE3
AFP
ßhCG
Inhibin-A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

When is the mid-pregnancy scan indicated?

A

• Mid-pregnancy scan (20 weeks): microencephaly, short limbs, brain anomalies, cardiac anomalies; placental position

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What does the mid-pregnancy scan look for?

A

microencephaly, short limbs, brain anomalies, cardiac anomalies; placental position

Most are seen after 20 weeks however cardiac abnormalities are seen after 12 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the risk threshold for investigating the risk of Down Syndrome in a foetus.

A

1 in 250

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Describe CVS and the risks.

A

= Removal of chorionic villi cells from placenta to genetically analyse (12 weeks onwards)
- Miscarriage rate of 2% (2/100)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Describe Amniocentesis and the risks.

A

Removal of amniotic fluid from the uterus to genetically analyse cells (15 weeks onwards)
- Miscarriage rate of 1% (1/100)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Describe pre-implantation genetic diagnosis.

A

Genetic test using FISH on embryo prior to re-implanting. This requires ART such as IVF.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Evaluate the benefits and drawbacks of PIGD.

A

Benefits:

  • Assurance
  • Less likely to require TOP

Drawbacks:

  • Invasive
  • Costly
  • Risk of multiparity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

State the indications for PIGD.

A
  • Parental chromosomal abnormality
  • Robertsonian translocation
  • Reciprocal translocation
  • X-linked disorders
  • Genetic disorders
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

List 3 principles of safe prescribing in pregnancy

A
  • Establish exposure to medication: exposure; gestational age; PMHx; FHx; Check drug information; Background risk
  • Intended continuation/initiation of medication: Benefits > costs; try to avoid 1/3 use; Use drugs known in pregnancy; Absence of data ≠ safety
  • ICE and pre-conception planning/first consultation/background screening + check
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

List 3 drugs you should not prescribe when breastfeeding.

A
MTX
Cyclophosphamide
Lithium 
Metronidazole
Chloramphenicol
Aminoglycosie
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What if foetotoxicity?

A

toxic functional damage occurring with exposure to medication in later pregnancy

24
Q

What is teratotoxicty?

A

potential for drug cause foetal malformations affecting embryo 3-8 weeks after conception

25
What happens to the plasma drug concentration in pregnancy?
Reduced due to reduced absorption and increased elimination
26
What happens to the proportion of free drug in pregnancy?
Increased as less bound to albumin (proportionally) - narrow therapeutic window
27
Outline the key aspects of pre-conceptive advice.
* Diet * Exercise * No alcohol * Smoking cessation * Weight status
28
What is the recommended calorie intake in pregnancy?
• Calories: 2150kcal (1/3; 2/3); 2350kcal (3/3)
29
What is the standard recommended iron intake during pregnancy?
• Iron: 10mg daily
30
What is the standard recommended folic acid intake during pregnancy?
• Folic Acid: 400mcg
31
What are the indications for increasing Folic Acid intake during pregnancy? What dose should this be?
PMHx NTD - Paternal or maternal FHx NTD OHx NTD Diabetic 5mg
32
What is the standard recommended vitamin D intake during pregnancy?
• Vitamin D: 10mcg
33
What is the standard recommended vitamin C intake during pregnancy?
• Vitamin C: 70mcg
34
What is the standard recommended vitamin A intake during pregnancy?
< 600mcg
35
State 5 foods you should avoid in pregnancy.
* Soft cheeses * Soft blue cheese * Raw eggs * Raw meat * Pate * Liver (too much vitamin A) * Game (lead pellets)
36
What is an unplanned pregnancy?
Fertilisation in the absence of desire to conceive through sexual intercourse
37
Outline the Legal Abortion Act 1967.
State of law with balance between right of foetus and right of woman – not guilty if performed by a medical practitioner: social grounds, grave permanent injury, risk to life, foetal abnormality.
38
How many medical practitioners are required to agree for an abortion?
2
39
Does a foetus have a right to life?
No, not legally
40
Describe the HSA1 document.
certificate A in Scotland. Needs two doctors to sign it.
41
Describe the HSA2 document.
certificate B in Scotland. Needs to be completed by the doctor within 24 hours of an emergency abortion.
42
Describe the HSA3 document.
must be completed by the doctor and sent to the chief medical officer within 7 days of the abortion taking place.
43
Continuation of pregnancy being a risk to life of the pregnant woman is which ground for ToP?
A
44
Prevention of grave permanent danger is which ground for ToP?
B
45
Pregnancy being a risk to the physical or mental health of a woman is which ground for ToP?
C
46
Pregnancy being a risk to the physical or mental health of existing children is which ground for ToP?
D
47
If it was necessary to save the life of a woman in an emergency situation, what ground for ToP is this?
F
48
If it was necessary to prevent grave permanent injury to the physical or mental health of the woman in an emergency ToP, which ground is this?
G
49
If there is a substantial risk that the child would be born with a serious disability, what ground for ToP is this?
E
50
Outline conscientious objection in ToP.
* Doctors can object out of personal beliefs/values * Needs to be explained and passed on to another doctor * Cannot discriminate * Cannot refuse in an emergency (F, G)
51
State 3 things that should be discussed at referral to ToP.
• Discuss: certainty/ alternatives/ US Scan/ Complete Hx/ Methods
52
Describe Surgical ToP
Process of intervening to retrieve a developing foetus from the uterus either by vacuum aspiration (6-12 weeks) or dilatation and evacuation (13-24 weeks) which is usually done under local anaesthetic.
53
Outline the benefits of surgical ToP.
* Quick * Complete abortion verified * On hospital grounds * IUD insertion
54
Describe medical ToP.
Process of intervening to end the life of a foetus by administration of medication such as mifepristone (anti-progesterone steroid) and misoprostol (PGE analogue) which enable sensitisation to the contractions, ripens cervix and stimulates uterine contractions
55
Outline the benefits of medical ToP.
* No instrumentation required * Less risk of iatrogenic injury * Controlled by woman
56
State 3 potential complications of ToP.
* Haemorrhage * Infection * Pain * Incomplete procedure * Uterine perforation * Cervical trauma * Anaesthetic complications * Ongoing pregnancy * Uterine rupture
57
Give 3 examples of drugs which are teratogenic.
``` NSAIDs Trimethoprim Erythromycin Sodium valproate Warfarin ```