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Clinical Applications > Clinical Applications Test 2 > Flashcards

Clinical Applications Test 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What is asepsis?

A

the absence of disease producing microorganisms

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2
Q

List the disease producing microorganisms

A
  • Bacteria
  • Mycoplasmas
  • Fungi
  • Viruses
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3
Q

Complete absence of these microorganisms is _____

A

sterility

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4
Q

A _____ organism is one that can produce a disease easily

A

virulent

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5
Q

What are pathogens?

A

microorganisms that can cause disease in humans

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6
Q

About __% of mechanically ventilated patients develop pneumonia

A

25%, and 30% (of those 25% die)

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7
Q

Infection control procedures aim to:

A
  • eliminate the sources of infectious agents
  • create barriers to their transmission
  • monitor the effectiveness of control
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8
Q

3 elements that must be present of infection to spread

A
  1. source of pathogens
  2. susceptible host
  3. route of transmission
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9
Q

What/who is the source of pathogens

A
  • humans, are the primary source for infections in the health care setting
  • inanimate objects (fomites)
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10
Q

what/who are susceptible host

A

patients in the hospital who are weak and susceptible to an infection

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11
Q

what are the routes of transmission

A
  • contact
  • droplet
  • vehicle
  • airborne
  • vector-borne
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12
Q

Host factors that increase the chance of infection are:

A
  • poorly controlled diabetes
  • increased age
  • chemotherapy
  • placement of tubes and catheters
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13
Q

What are nosocomial infections?

A

infections acquired in the hospital

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14
Q

most nosocomial pneumonias occur in:

A

Patients having chest or abdominal surgery (patient does not take deep breaths or cough)

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15
Q

What is cross-contamination

A

Transmission of organisms between places and persons

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16
Q

Mode of Transmissions:

A
  • contact/indirect
  • airborne
  • droplet
  • vehicle
  • vector
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17
Q

What is Contact Transmission?

A

direct contact transmission requires physical contact between an infected person and a susceptible person, and the physical transfer of microorganisms

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18
Q

What is Indirect Contact Transmission?

A

refers to situation where a susceptible person is infected from contact with contaminated surface

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19
Q

What is airborne transmission?

A

refers to where droplet nuclei (residue from evaporated droplets) or dust particles containing microorganisms can remain suspended in air for long periods of time

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20
Q

Diseases capable of airborne transmission:

A
  • influenza
  • whooping cough
  • tuberculosis
  • polio
  • varicella-zoster (chickenpox)
  • rubeola virus (measles)
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21
Q

What is droplet transmission?

A

diseases can be transferred by infected droplets contacting surfaces of the eyes, nose, and mouth

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22
Q

What is vehicle transmission?

A

transmission of microorganisms via inanimate objects
- food
- water
- soil

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22
Q

What is vehicle transmission?

A

transmission of microorganisms via inanimate objects
- food
- water
- soil

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23
Q

What is Vector-borne transmission?

A

animals that are capable of transmitting diseases

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24
Q

What are infection control strategies?

A
  • Decreasing host susceptibility
  • eliminating the source of the pathogens
  • interrupting routes or transmission
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25
Q

Decreasing host susceptibility:

A
  • immunization
  • chemoprophylaxis post exposure
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26
Q

Eliminating the source of the pathogens:

A
  • general sanitation measures
  • specialized equipment
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27
Q

Interrupting routes of transmission:

A
  • special equipment handling
  • barrier/isolation precautions
  • disposable equipment
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28
Q

Standard precautions apply to:

A
  • Blood
  • All body fluids
  • nonintact skin
  • mucous membranes
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29
Q

PPE:

A
  • gloves
  • masks
  • N-95
  • Gowns
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30
Q

Airborne precautions

A

Negative-pressure isolation room and use of Respiratory protective equipment by health care workers and visitors to room. During transport, patient should wear a surgical mask

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31
Q

Droplet precautions

A

Gloves, mask, and eye protective eyewear; infected patients should wear a surgical mask

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32
Q

____ is the first step in all equipment processing

A

Cleaning

33
Q

___ act by reducing surface tension and forming an emulsion with organic matter

A

Soaps

34
Q
  1. Bactericidal:
  2. Bacteriostatic:
  3. Sporicidal:
  4. Virucidal:
A
  1. Method to kill bacteria
  2. Method and techniques that inhibit growth
  3. Methods to destroy spores
  4. Methods to destroy virus
35
Q

______ destroys the vegetative form of all pathogens except bacterial spores

A

Disinfection

36
Q

Types of disinfectants

A
  • Alcohols
  • Acetic acid
  • Bleach
  • Hydrogen peroxide
37
Q

____ destroys all microorganisms

A

Sterilization

38
Q

Types of sterilants

A
  • incineration
  • cider (alkaline glutaraldehyde)
  • sonacide (acid glutaraldehyde)
39
Q

3 major issues for disposable equipment

A
  • cost
  • quality
  • reuse
40
Q

Respiratory Hygiene

A
  1. education of patients and employees
  2. posted signs
  3. source control measures (covering mouth)
  4. hand hygiene
  5. spatial seperation
41
Q

___ is the most important way to prevent transmission of microorganisms via contact transmission

A

Handwashing
- 15 sec scrub: b/w patients
- 10 min scrub: prior to specialized procedures
- 2 min scrub: arriving or leaving hospital

42
Q

5 basic components of effective communication

A
  1. Sender: individual/group transmitting the message
  2. Message: information or attitude communicated by sender (verbal or nonverbal)
  3. Channel: method used to transmit messages (written or oral)
  4. Receiver: target of the communication
  5. Feedback: allows sender to measure communication success
43
Q

Senders communication skills:

A
  • eye contact
  • attitude
  • experience
  • culture
  • self concept
44
Q

Things that can improve the skill of a sender

A
  • seek to relate to people rather than control them
  • value disagreement as much as agreement
  • share information rather than telling
45
Q

4 primary sources of conflict

A
  1. poor communication
  2. structural problems
  3. personal behavior
  4. role conflict
46
Q

5 basic strategies for handling conflicts

A
  1. competing
  2. accommodating
  3. avoiding
  4. collaborating
  5. compromising
47
Q

ambulation should begin as soon as the patient is _____

A

physiologically stable and free of severe pain, NOT patient willingness

48
Q

What is voltage?

A

power behind electrical energy

49
Q

Most homes and hospitals are powered with ___ -V power sources

A

120

50
Q

Voltage:

A

the power potential behind the electrical energy

51
Q

Current:

A

the flow of electricity from a point of higher voltage to a lower point. (this represents the greatest danger to the provider and patient)

52
Q

Harmful effects of the body due to electricity depend on:

A
  1. the amount flowing through the body
  2. the path is takes
  3. the duration the current is applied
53
Q

Current = ____ / _____

A

current = voltage / resistance
(increased resistance decrease current)

54
Q

The heart is susceptible to any current level above ___ ma, ___ ma represents a potential fatal shock

A

100, 120

55
Q

What wire completes circuit by taking current to ground

A

neutral wire (ground wire)

56
Q

Macroshock

A

high current usually greater than 1ma is applied externally to skin

57
Q

Microshock

A

small amount of current less than 1ma bypasses the skin and follows a direct, low-resistance path onto the body

58
Q

True or False: a third (ground) wire prevents dangerous buildup of voltage than can occur on the metal frames of some electrical equipment

A

True

59
Q

Effects of electrical shock

A

high average to skin can cause sustained myocardial contraction, temporary respiratory paralysis, and burns

60
Q

Conditions of a fire

A
  1. flammable material must be present
  2. Oxygen must be present
  3. flammable material must be heated to or above its ignition temp
61
Q

High humidity greater than 60% can ____

A

can further reduce the risk of fire

62
Q

P.A.S.S

A

Pull pin
Aim nozzle
Squeeze handle
Sweep nozzle across base of fire

63
Q

R.A.C.E.

A

Rescue patient from immediate area of fire
Alert other personnel to the fire
Contain the fire
Evacuate other patients

64
Q

Components of medical record

A

Admission sheet, History and Physical Exam, Health Maintenance and immunization, physicians orders, progress notes, nurses notes, medication record, allergies, vital signs, I/O sheet, Lab sheets, consultant sheet, surgical and treatment consent, anesthesia and surgical record, specialized flow sheet, advanced directives

65
Q

S.O.A.P.

A

Subjective information
Objective information
Assessment
Plan

66
Q

POMR

A

Problem Oriented Medical Record
1. database
2. problem list
3. the plan of care
4. progress notes

67
Q

About ___% of all patients admitted develop an HAI

A

5%

68
Q

Standard precautions apply to:

A
  • Blood
  • All body Fluids
  • Nonintact skin
  • mucous membranes
69
Q

Acute exposure to EtO gas can cause:

A
  • airway inflammation
  • nausea
  • diarrhea
  • dizziness
70
Q

Chronic exposure is associated to:

A
  • resp. infection
  • anemia
  • altered behavior
71
Q

Accommodating:

A
  • Neglects own needs to meet needs of others
  • useful strategy to maintain harmony
72
Q

Avoiding:

A

Unassertive and uncooperative conflict resolution strategy

73
Q

Collaborating:

A

Parties find mutually satisfying solutions

74
Q

Compromising:

A

Combines assertiveness and cooperation
- best for quick resolution that both parties can live with

75
Q

Ambulation should begin as soon as the patient is ________

A

physiologically stable and free of severe pain, not patient willingness

76
Q

Contact diseases:

A
  • Hep A, B, C
  • HIV
77
Q

Droplet diseases:

A
  • Diphtheria
  • Pertussis
  • Streptococcal pneumonia
  • influenza
  • mumps
  • rubella
78
Q

Vehicle diseases:

A
  • Hep A
  • shigellosis
  • salmonellosis
79
Q

Airborne diseases:

A
  • Tuberculosis
  • varicella
  • measles
  • smallpox
80
Q

Vectorborne diseases:

A
  • rickettsia
  • Lyme disease
  • malaria
  • bubonic plague

Clinical Applications (2 decks)

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