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Clin lab test 1 Flashcards

1
Q

1998 CLIA (Clinical Laboratory improvement) did what to deficiencies? How?

A

Decreased deficiencies by 40%. Established standards related to accuracy, reliability and timeliness.

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2
Q

What are the three parts of the EBM triad?

A
  1. Individual clinical expertise
  2. Best external evidence
  3. Patient values and expectations
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3
Q

Gray top tube is used for what? What type of additives are in the tube?

A

Blood alcohol, glucose. Sodium flouride (glucose preservative) and Potassium oxylate

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4
Q

Green Top has an anticoagulant. True or false? What is it?

A

True, Heparin

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5
Q

Lab pathology is divided into two subsections, what are they?

A

Anatomic and clinical.

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6
Q

Clinical pathology is divided into what 6 sections

A

Microbiology, UA, hematology, chemistry, serology, immunohematology

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7
Q

Light blue top tube has what in it?

A

Sodium citrate (9:1)

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8
Q

Light blue top goes to what lab section?

A

Hemotology, coagulation

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9
Q

What is the primary and secondary function of the chemical laboratory

A

Generate info and educate providers/staff.

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10
Q

What is the second most common lab sample

A

capillary pull

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11
Q

What is the role of medical laboratory testing?

A

Detect, diagnose, treat

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12
Q

What are the 5 criteria for testing complexity under clia 98?

A
  1. Risk of harm to the patient. 2. Risk of erroneous result. 3. Type of testing method used. 4. Degree of independent judgment and interpretation. 5. availability for home use.
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13
Q

What are the four categories of test complexity?

A

Waived (minimal)
Moderate (includes PPM)
High

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14
Q

What are the three types of unacceptable blood specimens?

A

Icteric (jaundiced)
Lipemic
Hemolyzed (processing error)

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15
Q

What color tube is used for a CBC? What anticoagulant is in it?

A

Lavender, EDTA

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16
Q

What determines a good screening test? What about a good confirmatory test?

A

Screen: Sensitivity and NPV high
Confirm: Specificity and PPV high

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17
Q

Define PPV, Define NPV

A

TP/TP+FP positive result actually positive ratio

TN/TN+FN negative result actually neg ratio

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18
Q

What is the best site for venipuncture

A

Median cubital vein

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19
Q

What is the most common specimen submitted to the laboratory

A

Venous blood samples

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20
Q

What is the order of draw for tubes based on color? What are the associated inversions for each?

A
  1. Yellow 8-10
  2. light blue 3-4
  3. gold/red/grey 5, red (plastic) 5, red (glass) 0, Orange 5-6
  4. Light Green, Green 8-10 (For all following as well)
  5. lavender
  6. white
  7. gray
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21
Q

A BMP (basic metabolic panel) consists of what tests?

A

Sodium, Potassium, Chloride, CO2 (Bicarb)

Blood Urea Nitrogen, Serum Creatinine, Serum Glucose, Total Calcium

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22
Q

A BMP is typically collected in what vial?

A

Red (slides say Light green, gold as well)

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23
Q

Hypernatremia always indicates what in relation to body water?

A

Relative total body water deficit

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24
Q

(Among other things…) Hyponatremia is found in what?

Hypernatremia is found in what?

A

Addison’s

Cushings

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25
Q

Hyperkalemia leads to ______?

A

Aldosterone secretion and K excretion

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26
Q

Hyperkalemia is associated with

A

Prim/Sec hypoaldosteronism

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27
Q

Hypokalemia is associated with

A

Diabetes mellitus, Cushings, Hyperaldosteronism.

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28
Q

Hyper and hypochloremia are generally tied to what?

A

Shifts in sodium and bicarb. Cl shifts to maintain electrical neutrality

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29
Q

Increased HCO3 is indicative of what disorder?

A

Metabolic alkalosis; Primary or secondary to Respiratory acidosis

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30
Q

Decreased Bicarb in BMP is associated with what disorder?

A

Metabolic acidosis

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31
Q

Increased blood urea nitrogen on a panel is indicitave of disorder with what organ? What could be happening?

A

Kidneys. Decreased GFR/Increased tubular reabsorption, inadequate excretion, or increased gut production from too much protein or blood.

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32
Q

Serum calcium is tied to changes in what?

A

Serum albumin

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33
Q

A Complete metabolic panel includes what tests?

A

All BMP plus albumin, alanine transaminase (ALT), Alkaline phosphatase (ALP), Aspartate aminotransferase (AST), Bilirubin, Total protein

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34
Q

Albumin comprises _______ percent of total extracellular blood protein. It is a measure of ______ function

A

60%

Hepatic

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35
Q

Increased ALT mainly signifies what?

Increased ALP signifies what?

A

Damage to the liver (though remember skeletal muscles too)

liver or bone disorders

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36
Q

AST is most commonly a reflection of what?

If AST is >2 x the ALT, what should you suspect?

A

Liver injury

Alcohol abuse w/ cirrhosis or alcoholic hepatitis

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37
Q

Total protein measures what 2 classes of protein?

A

Albumin and globulin

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38
Q

CBC contains what information?

Include critical values

A 
Total RBC
Hemoglobin
Hematocrit (RBC volume of total blood)
Mean Corpuscular value (avg size of RBC)
Mean Corpuscular Hemoglobin
MCHC (proportion of cell occupied by hemoglobin --color)
RBC distribution width (variation in RBC size)
WBC count (crit - <2k or >30k)
Platelets (crit - <20k)
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39
Q

UA panel consists of what 10 tests?

A 
Specific gravity
pH
Protein (kidneys)
Glucose 
Ketones
Blood (ketones vs. trauma)
Leucocyte esterase (infection)
Nitrite (bacterial metabolism product)
Bilirubin 
Urobilinogen (formed from bilirubin in intestine)
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40
Q

What are desirable and high levels for Total Cholesterol?

A

D: less than 200 mg/dl
High: 240+

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41
Q

What are desirable and high levels for fasting triglycerides?

A

D: Less than 150 mg/dl
High: 200-500
VH: 500+

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42
Q

What are desirable and high levels of LDL and HDL

A

LDL
Desirable: less than 100mg/dl
High 160-189

HDL:
Desirable:60mg/dl both men and women or MORE
Low: less than 40 for men and 50 for women.

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43
Q

Up to 70% of lab errors occur during what phase of testing?

A

Pre-analytical

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44
Q

A critical test value must be reported in what timeframe? What about a STAT test result?

A

Crit: 1 hour from completion
STAT: 1 hour from receipt of order

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45
Q

What is a reflex test?

A

An automatic test conducted by the lab in the event of a specific positive first test.

46
Q

Describe cortisol’s diurnal variation

A

Peaks 4-6 AM
Lowest @ 8PM-12AM
50% lower at 8 PM than AM

47
Q

When is insulin lowest, night or daytime?

A

Night

48
Q

Iron peaks when? How much does it decrease following its peak?

A

Early to late morning

Decrease by up to 30% during the day.

49
Q

What are 10 common errors in specimen collection?

A 
Mis-ID of patient
Mislabel specimen
Bad draw/wrong ratio
Mixing problems/clots
wrong tubes
Hemolysis/Lipemia
Hemoconcentration from TQ
Exposure to light and high temps
improper timing
Processing errors
50
Q

What are 10 rejection criteria of drawn samples?

A 
Improper collection and label
Prolonged transport - degraded
Leakage
Incomplete request
Clotted/hemolysis/insuff quantity
Non-fasted
Improper preservation
Unprot from light
Acidified
Non-Frozen
51
Q

Platelets, erythrocytes, and leukocytes are ______ found in plasma?

What about serum?

A

Not

Still no, serum contains most of the same things as plasma except for fibrinogen

52
Q

Instrument failure is an example of ___________ error

A

Analytical

53
Q

Instrument failure is a part of _______ failure within _______ causes of error. It consists of what three types?

A

Measuring system; Analytical

  1. Software failure
  2. Optics drift
  3. Electronic instability
54
Q

What are the three causes of Inadequate instrument maintenance error?

A
  1. Dirty optics
  2. Contamination
  3. Scratches
55
Q

What are 5 examples of analytical errors from the slideshow?

A 
Failure to notice instrument flags
Disregarding OOC quality control results
Wrong assay performed
Test performed incorrectly
no test performed, but result produced
56
Q

Examples of post-analytical errors include what?

A 
Incorrect verbal reporting of critical/alert values
Instrument interface incompatible
reference range confusion
wrong results reported
transposed results during entry
incorrect interpretation
57
Q

Point of care testing requires what?

A

Documented training

58
Q

CLIA requirements have incorporated what to ensure proficiency of laboratories?

A

Quality assessment proficiency testing

Labs get sent outside samples, don’t cheat.

59
Q

What are the four indicators of reliability/validity of a clinical laboratory test? How are they broken down?

A
  1. Precision
  2. Accuracy (1 and 2 = how test performs day-day)
  3. Sensitivity
  4. Specificity (3 and 4 = how well the test is able to distinguish disease from absence of disease.
60
Q

What is precision? What is Accuracy?

A

Precision - repeatability (low variation = high precision)

Accuracy - Trueness (Test value being close to “True” value = high accuracy)

61
Q

A test that is more __________ will result in fewer false negative results?

A

Sensitive

62
Q

How is prevalence related to PPV?

A

High prevalence = High PPV

Low prevalence = High NPV

63
Q

What percent of a healthy population will yield an abnormal test result?

A

5%

64
Q

What are the three primary accrediting bodies for laboratories?

A

Commission on office laboratory
College of American pathologists
The Joint Commission

65
Q

To meet the criteria of PPM testing, these specifications must be met (6)

A 
Exam must be performed by a provider
Procedure must be moderate complexity
Primary instrument must be microscope
Specimen is labile
Control materials are not available
Handling of specimen is limited
66
Q

Decreased ionized calcium produces what results? (2)

A

Impaired cardiac function and tetany

67
Q

If the kidney is impaired, concentration of urea in the blood is what? Why? What can this also be dependent on?

A

Increased

Urea is a waste product from ammonia in the liver, it should be excreted.

Protein intake

68
Q

Clearance of creatinine from the plasma by the kidney is a measure of what?

A

GFR

69
Q

What are 3 common chemistry tests performed on CSF samples?

A

Protein
Glucose
Lactate
Page 456

70
Q

In addition to chemistry tests, what 2 other tests are common with a CSF sample?

A 
Microbiological exam (staining and culture)
Serology (syphilis)
71
Q

A darkfield microscope typically is used for viewing _______. How does the darkfield’s use of light compare to regular microscope?

A

Spirochetes

Background dark, specimen bright (opposite regular)

72
Q

What is a saline wet prep?

What is its other name?

A

Provider performed microscopic test. Usually vaginal smears for Trichomonads, clue cells, and yeast.

Direct wet mount

73
Q

What is a clue cell?

A

An epithelial cell that has been covered in bacteria giving it a sandy appearance. Cutoff for clue vs. non clue is detection of nucleus

74
Q

Yeast can be found with two presentations. What are they?

A

Budding (shoeprint)

Pseudohyphae

75
Q

After a saline prep, we can do a KOH prep. Why?

What kind of test is this?

A

Dissolve tissue materials so that only fungal elements remain.

PPM (Moderate)

76
Q

What is a Fern test? What type of test is it?

A

A PPM test to determine presence of amniotic fluid/determine rupture of fetal membranes before labor onset.

77
Q

What are we evaluating in a postcoital test (PCT)?

A

Infertility

78
Q

Finding an increase of what WBC on a nasal smear will indicate allergic rhinitis?

A

Eosinophils

79
Q

A rapid flu test is an example of what class of testing?

A

POC/Waived

80
Q

A major advantage of POC testing is what?

A. Faster turnaround time
B. Lower cost
C. ease of use
D. both a and b

A

Faster turn around time. POCT is more expensive in general.

81
Q

Over the counter tests approved by the FDA (so… legal) are automatically placed in what CLIA catagory?

A

Waived/minimal

82
Q

Tests for fecal occult blood are in general use as a screening test for which of the following?

Breast cancer
Colorectal cancer
Enteric infection of the colon
Malabsorption syndrome

A

Colorectal cancer

83
Q

What is the goal of therapeutic drug monitoring?

A

Increase the likelihood of a therapeutic effect and avoid or minimize adverse effects

84
Q

What is therapeutic drug monitoring?

A

The practice of measuring the concentration of a drug or its metabolite to aid in the correct dosing and/or assess patient compliance with prescribed regimen

85
Q

What is an unpredictable dose response?

A

When the same dose produces therapeutic effect in one patient and toxic effect in another. Also when dose produces a response beyond anticipated.

86
Q

What are the two most common carrier proteins for insoluble drugs?

A

Albumin

Alpha1-acid glycoprotein

87
Q

Presence of any liver disease will do what to the free fraction of drugs?

A

Increase it

88
Q

What is the free fraction of a drug?

A

Therapeutically (biologically) active fraction of the drug. (Not protein bound)

89
Q

Define therapeutic range

A

Range where probobility of desired response is high and probability of unacceptable toxicity is low. MEC vs MTC

90
Q

What is the trough value of a drug?

A

Lowest therapeutic concentration achieved during dosing cycle. Still in therapeutic range

91
Q

After initiation of drug therapy, how many half lives are required to reach nearly complete (97%) steady state concentration?

A

5

92
Q

What is steady state concentration?

A

Steady state = drug entering in equilibrium with drug eliminated.

93
Q

Primary site of drug metabolism is the _________.

A

Liver

94
Q

Therapeutic drug monitoring is done utilizing a _______ tube and _________ sample

A

red; serum

95
Q

Describe the acute range of toxicity for Aspirin

A 
Acute
<150 mg/kg - no toxic rxn expected
150-300 mild to moderate
300-500 serious
>500 potentially lethal
~660 average fatal
96
Q

Describe chronic ingestion toxicity for aspirin

A

Ingest >100mg/kg/day for at least 2 days

97
Q

What is the timing of monitoring for aminoglycosides in traditional dosing (q8H) and once daily dosing?

A

Trad - Peak : 1 hour after infusion complete
Trough: ~30 minutes prior to the next dose

Once-daily - 6-14 hours after the 1st infusion

98
Q

What are the 5 functions of CSF?

A

Transport of nutrients (hypothalamus releasing factors)
Mechanical barrier to cushion brain and spinal cord
Excretory waste function
Protect against sudden venous and arterial pressure changes
Maintain ionic homeostasis for CNS via BBB

99
Q

List 4 CSF testing indications.

A

Meningeal infection
Brain hemorrhage
primary or metastatic malignancy
Neuro disease

100
Q

The most common type of encephalitis is

A

Viral

101
Q

Describe how to collect CSF.

A

Puncture interspace of vertebrae L3/L4 or lower

Attach manometer through stopcock, not opening pressure (5-20cm h20)

Collect at least 10 drops of CSF in each 4 tubes up to 20 ml total.

Send tubes to lab. THIS is a STAT test.

102
Q

Describe the 4 collection tube tests for CSF

A

Tube 1 = chemical and serologic (frozen)

Tube 2 = microbiology (room temp)

Tube 3 = hematology (refrigerate)

Tube 4 = Micro or additional serological

103
Q

What are the s/s for meningitis?

A

Sudden fever, severe headache, N/V, Double vision,. drowsiness, sensitivity to light, stiff neck

104
Q

What are the s/s for encephalitis?

A

Fever, seizure, change in behavior, confusion and disorientation.

105
Q

Describe CSF levels in terms of protein, glucose, glutamine and lactate chemistry tests

A

Increased protein = meningitis, hemorrhage and MS
Decrease protein = fluid leak

Decreased glucose = bacterial meningitis , fungal and maybe parasitic

Increased Glutamine = liver disorder

Increased lactate - bacterial, fungal, and tubercular meningitis.

106
Q

CSF is usually what color? What about serous fluids?

A

Clear/colorless

Pale and yellow (straw)

107
Q

Differentiate transudate and exudate

A

Transudate is formed from a systemic disorder disrupting regulation of filtration and reabsorption

Exudates are produced by conditions that directly involve membranes of a cavity

108
Q

Chest pain (sharp or dull) that is relieved by bending forward, hearty rhythm changes or cardiomegaly o x-ray would lead to ordering what test?

A

Pericardial fluid analysis to r/o pericardial effusion and related pathology.

109
Q

Protein concentration is _________ in exudates compared to transudates.

A

Increased

110
Q

Elevated protein = ___________ glucose in serous fluid

A

decreased due to high leukocyte count

111
Q

LDH is _________ in exudates

A

Increased

Clin lab (2 decks)

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