Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Neuro > Clerkship > Flashcards

Clerkship Flashcards

1
Q

intention or kinetic tremors are most characteristic of damage to the _______

A

cerebellum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

resting tremors due to damage of the ________

A

substantia nigra

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

toxic levels of phenytoin may evoke ______ in the eyes

A

lateral nystagmus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

polymyositis shows weakness in (proximal/distal) muscle groups

A

proximal–to get out of a seat, person may have to pull himself up by arms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

CN __ innervates stapedius muscle of middle ear. Paralysis of this muscle causes hyperacusis

A

CN VII facial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

CN __ innervates tensor tympani, damage can cause inappropriate slack but no increased sensitivity

A

CN V trigem motor fibers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

put warm water in one ear > indicates to the brain that the head is tilting toward that side. eyes deviate to the (same/opposite) side to maintain fixation of their target

A

same

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

mnemonic COWS for nystagmus and water in the ear

A

Cold-Opposite side, Warm-Same side

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

diseases affecting the ______ artery and the overlying sympathetic plexus do not produce anhidrosis, but do produce miosis and ptsosis (Horners)

A

internal carotid artery (dissection can lead to painful Horners after vigorous activity)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

if you suspect subarachnoid hemorrhage and no blood is seen on CT scan, what is your next diagnostic step?

A

Lumbar puncture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

tentorium cerebelli is a common site for the development of which type of tumor?

A

meningioma (it is a fold of meninges)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

calcified masses appear as (high/low) density on CT without contrast enhancement

A

high density

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

highly vascular lesions appear dense on CT (after/before) contrast enhancement

A

after

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

two tumor types more common in NF2

A

meningiomas and bilat acoustic neuromas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

NF2 arises from a deletion on the long arm of chr __

A

22

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

women with breast cancer and other gyn cancers are at an inc risk of developing what type of tumor?

A

meningiomas (sex steroid receptors on these tumors)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

chr __ assoc with NF1

A

17

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

neglect and hemiparesis likely with (R/L) brain lesions

A

right

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

left frontal-parietal-temporal region is critical for _____

A

language

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

impaired naming, comprehension, and repetition, but patient has fluent speech

A

Wernicke aphasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

R sided occipital lesion causes a (R/L) homonymous hemianopia

A

Left

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

alexia without agraphia is a disconnection syndrome assoc with lesions involving the (R/L) occipital lobe and splenium of the _______

A

L occ lobe and corpus callosum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

elevated ESR, periungual telangiectasias suggest _____

A

dermatomyositis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

test to confirm a primary muscle disease (myopathy)

A

creatine phosphokinase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

(poly/dermato)myositis: perifascicular muscle fiber atrophy, and inflamm infiltrate occurs in perimysial connective tissue rather than throughout the muscle fibers themsevles

A

dermatomyositis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

(poly/dermato)myositis: extensive necrosis of muscle fiber segements with macrophage and lymphocyte infiltration

A

polymyositis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

ascending paralysis with preserved sensation and sphincter control

A

Guillain Barre

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

CSF findings in Guillain Barre

A

markedly high protein, xanthrochromia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

CSF findings in MS

A

elevation of gamma globulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

in order to accurately measure pressure in idiopathic inc in ICP assoc with pseudotumor cerebri, place pt in _____ position

A

lateral recumbent position

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

if you are concerned for stroke, but patient has elevated INR on warfarin and might have intracerebral hemorrhage, what do you do?

A

CT to rule out hemorrhage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what test is indicated if there is strong suspicion of aneurysm or vascular malformation

A

cerebral angiogram

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

ipsilateral ataxia and ipsilateral Horner, ipsi facial pain, ipsi impairment of corneal reflex, contralat pain and temp disturbances in limbs and trunk, dysphagia, dysphonia

A

Wallenberg/lateral medullary syndrome: CN V, nuc ambiguus, lateral spinothalamic tracts, inferior cerebellar peduncle, descending sympathetic fibers, vagus, glossopharyngeal nerves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

most cases of lateral medullary infarction are caused by occlusion of the ______ artery

A

vertebral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

the ____ artery supplies the entire posterior brain circulation

A

basilar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

the _____ artery supplies the superior portions of the cerebellum

A

superior cerebellar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

____ artery supplies portions of cerebellum and lower cranial nerves

A

AICA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

MCC of lobar hemorrhage in elderly patients without hypertension

A

cerebral amyloid angiopathy aka congophilic angiopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

treatment for focal seizure after an intracerebral or subarachnoid hemorrhage

A

antiepileptic drug such as levetiracetam (fast acting, unlike lamotrigine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

congenital disturbance that produces facial cutaneous angiomas, MR, hemiparesis or hemiatrophy, seizures

A

Sturge Weber aka encephalofacial angiomatosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

type of tumor assoc with sturge weber

A

leptomingeal angiomas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

tumor assoc with von hippel lindau

A

telangiectasia of retina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

tumor assoc with polycystic kidney disease

A

hemangioblastomas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

_____ are very small, develop in pts with chronic HTN, commonly occur in lenticulostriate arteries

A

charcot-bouchard aneurysms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

most common site for hematoma formation from rupture of charcot-bouchard aneurysm

A

putamen (because they occur in lenticulostriate arteries)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

an aneurysm on the posterior communicating artery is especially likely to compress CN __

A

III oculomotor, leads to problems with pupil activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

what drug is used to prevent vasospasm as a complication of SAH (could cause a stroke)

A

niodipine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

carotid endarectomy can reduce the risk of stroke in pts with symptomatic stenosis by __% or more and should be offered to all pts with symptomatic disease of internal carotid artery

A

70%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

lesion of left inferior frontal gyrus

A

Brocas aphasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

isolated word finding deficit

A

anomic aphasia–diffuse brain dysf

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

_______ aphasia is similar to Brocas aphasia with the exception of preserved repetition

A

transcortical motor aphasia–left frontal white matter and spares overlying cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

_______ aphasia is similar to Wernicke aphasia with the exception of preserved repetition

A

transcortical sensory aphasia–white matter underlying the cortex of Wernicke area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

EEG pattern of 3Hz spike and wave pattern

A

generalized epilepsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

most helpful diagnostic test if someone presents with a simple partial seizure

A

MRI to look for focal brain lesion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

greatest risk for alcohol withdrawal seizure occurs within ____ days after drinking cessation

A

1 day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

delirium tremens occurs within ____ days after drinking cessation

A

2 to 4 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

mental dysf, mutliple seizure types, 1 to 2 Hz generalized spike wave discharges on EEG

A

Lennox-Gastaut

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

syndrome assoc with loss of language function and an abnormal EEG during sleep

A

Landau-Kleffner syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

relatively benign epilepsy syndrome with onset in late adolescence or early adulthood

A

juvenile myoclonic epilepsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

olfactory halluc (preseizure aura phenomenon) due to lesions of: _____

A

hippocampus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

prophylactic phenytoin reduces incidence of (early/late) posttraumatic seizures

A

early (after TBI)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

focal seizure activity that is primarily motor and spreads, often secondarily generalizes

A

Jacksonian march aka sequential seizure (hand is a common site for the start)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

seizure type that occurs when the pt is waking up, may be triggered by light flashes or loud sounds

A

myoclonic seizure, most commonly seen in benign juvenile myoclonic epilepsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

EEG abnormalities all over the cortex simultaneously, always lose consciousness, may be confused after the seizure

A

generalized tonic-clonic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

seizure that lasts 30 minutes or a series of seizures over a 30 minute period without the patient regaining full consciousness between them

A

status epilepticus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

condition of persistent focal motor activity, distal hand and foot most commonly affected, seizures may persist for hours or months

A

epilepsia partialis continua

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

tx for complex partial seizures without secondary generalization

A

levetiracetam (low side effect profile)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

tx for West syndrome (infants)

A

ACTH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

lesion to reticular activating system

A

coma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

lesion to mamillary bodies

A

Wernicke Korsakoff (thiamine def)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

lesion to superior colliculi and name of syndrome

A

paralysis of upward gaze, Parinaud syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

lesion to amygdala

A

Kluver Bucy syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

lesion to frontal lobe

A

disinhibited, poor concentration, poor logic, poor judgment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

lesion to cerebellar hemisphere

A

intention tremor, ataxia-fall toward side of lesion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

lesion to parietal lobe, non dominant (usually Right side)

A

hemispatial neglect–ignore the other side of the world

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

lesion to dominant parietal lobe (usually left), and syndrome name

A

agraphia, acalculia, finger agnosia, L/R disorientation (angular gyrus–Gerstmann Syndrome)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

lesion to cerebellar vermis (midline)

A

truncal ataxia, dysarthria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

lesion to subthalamic nucleus

A

hemiballismus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

lesion to PPRF

A

eyes away from lesion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

non dominant broca aphasia

A

inability to EXPRESS emotion in speech

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

non dominant Wernicke aphasia

A

inability to COMPREHEND emotion in speech

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

lesion to arcuate fasciculus

A

cannot repeat. that is what connects Wernicke’s area to broca’s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

occlusion of posterior cerebral artery

A

damage to occipital lobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

which artery: Broca’s OR Wernicke’s aphasia

A

MCA

85
Q

which artery: unilateral lower extremity sensory and/or motor loss

A

anterior cerebral

86
Q

which artery: unilateral facial and army sensory and/or motor loss

A

MCA

87
Q

provides taste to anterior 2/3 of tongue

A

CN VII facial

88
Q

provides taste to posterior third of tongue

A

CN IX glossopharyngeal

89
Q

provides motor to tongue

A

CN XII hypoglossal

90
Q

(classic/common) migraine: preceded by an aura of neurological dysf, usually visual

A

classic

91
Q

classic migraines and basilar migraines are more common in (men/women)

A

women

92
Q

(classic/basilar) migraine: visual change may develop into blindness, irritability may develop into psychosis, transient quadriplegia, stupor, coma for several hours

A

basilar

93
Q

symptomatic trigem neuralgia often assoc with what disease

A

MS

94
Q

paroxysmal, lancinating pains in face

A

trigem neuralgia

95
Q

constant, deep pain in face

A

atypical facial pain–often tx with antidepressants

96
Q

(abortive/prophylactic) migraine tx: amitriptyline HCl, propranolol, verapamil, valproate

A

prophylactic

97
Q

(abortive/prophylactic) migraine tx: metoclopramide HCl, ergotamine, sumatriptan

A

abortive

98
Q

sudden onset of a very severe headache with no apparent structural cause

A

thunderclap headache

99
Q

trauma to nerves in extremities may give rise to ____, a disturbance in sensory perception characterized by hypesthesia, dysesthesia, and allodynia

A

causalgia

100
Q

claw deformity

A

ulnar n

101
Q

trauma to elbow leads to damage of which nerve

A

ulnar n

102
Q

which nerve is damaged with fractures of the humerus

A

musculocutaneous

103
Q

saturday night palsy nerve

A

radial>wrist drop

104
Q

what med to give after spinal cord injury within 8 hours of injury

A

methylprednisone

105
Q

most common sequela of encephalitis lethargica

A

Parkinsonism

106
Q

acquired by ingesting material contaminated with fecal matter from sheep or dogs, encephalic hydatidosis, cysts, cyst behaves like a tumor

A

echinococcus

107
Q

tx for T gondii

A

sulfadiazine and pyrimethamine

108
Q

both HIV and CMV infxns in the brain characteristically produce ____

A

microglial nodules

109
Q

type of EEG seen with HSV encephalitis

A

bilat periodic epileptiform discharges over temporal regions

110
Q

where do brain abscesses usually form

A

gray white junction

111
Q

MC sx with brain abscess

A

headache

112
Q

tx for listeria

A

amp plus genta

113
Q

MC site of primary cancer that mets to the brain

A

lung (2/3 of cases)

114
Q

type of primary brain tumor only seen in AIDS patients

A

primary brain lymphoma

115
Q

what type of herniation occurs with tumor of posterior fossa?

A

transtentorial

116
Q

one of the MC CNS tumors of childhood, develops in cerebellum, causes ataxia, hydrocephalus

A

medulloblastoma

117
Q

optic gliomas seen in NF (1/2)

A

NF1 (also in NF1: cafe au last spots, bone cysts, sphenoid bone dysgenesis, precocious puberty, pheochromocytoma, syringomyelia, cortical dysgenesis)

118
Q

girl with headaches, diplopia, impaired upward gaze, lid retraction, convergence-retraction nystagmus. pupils react on convergence but not to light

A

pineocytoma–dorsal midbrain in the region of the superior colliculus (Parinaud syndrome)

119
Q

in context of cancer: lethargy, weakness, areflexia, coma and convulsions can occur

A

hypercalcemia from paraneoplastic disease or bone destruction

120
Q

polyneuropathy in context of monoclonal gammopathy on serum protein electrophoresis and plasma cell dyscrasia on bone marrow biopsy

A

multiple myeloma causing paraproteinemic polyneuropathy

121
Q

dz in which accumulation of glucosylceramide produces HSM and may cause lethal CNS disease

A

Gaucher-def of glucocerebrosidase in fibroblasts or leukocytes

122
Q

a pt with progressive chronic liver failure for 5 years would show changes in what type of CNS cell at death?

A

astrocytes (alzheimer type II astrocytes)

123
Q

tx for restless leg syndrome

A

L-dopa

124
Q

most sensitive test for B12 def

A

methylmalonic acid

125
Q

tx for benzo and alc withdrawal

A

chlordiazepoxide

126
Q

vitamin deficiency in people who drink and smoke causing injury to optic nerve

A

deficiency amblyopia

127
Q

pellagra-what’s deficient?

A

nicotinic acid aka niacin

128
Q

obesity assoc with hypersomnia and sleep apnea, sleep attacks during the day

A

Pickwickian

129
Q

young woman with optic neuritis

A

consider MS

130
Q

Alzheimer disease: (neuronal loss in cerebral cortex/demyelination in cerebral cortex/pigmentary degeneration in hippocampus)

A

demyelination in cerebral cortex

131
Q

patients who undergo ventriculoperitoneal shunting for NPH may suffer major complications such as (subdural/epidural) hematoma and infections

A

subdural. occurs because reduction in ICP brought on by shunting may cause the brain to pull away from the covering meninges, stretching and potentially rupturing the riding veins

132
Q

general paresis, chronic meningoencephalitis, dementia, delusions, dysarthria, tremor, myoclonus, seizures, spasticity. Dx-monocytic pleocytosis

A

neurosyphilis

133
Q

GI complaints, seizures, myoclonus, ataxia, supra nuclear gaze disturbances, hypothalamic dysfunction, dementia. oculomasticatory myorhythmia is pathognomonic

A

whipple disease due to T whippelli

134
Q

dopaminergic drugs may unmask (intention tremor/chorea)

A

chorea

135
Q

three areas that may be involved in parkinsonism

A

globus pallidus, subthalamic nucleus, thalamus

136
Q

Lewy bodies are intra (nuclear/cytoplasmic) inclusions

A

intracytoplasmic

137
Q

tx for parkinsonism caused by psych drugs

A

trihexyphenidyl (anticholinergic)

138
Q

form of focal dystonia characterized by blepharospasm, forceful jaw opening, lip retraction, neck contractions, tongue thrusting. can occur idiopathically

A

Meige syndrome. tx with botox

139
Q

tx for MS flare

A

corticosteroids

140
Q

tx to prevent MS flare (2)

A

glatiramer and interferon beta 1B

141
Q

MS affects 1 in ___ people

A

1000

142
Q

common S/E of corticosteroid tx for MS flare and how to tx it

A

gastric disturbance–give ranitidine

143
Q

infant who develops extensor posturing and regression around 6 months of age, myoclonic seizures may develop, defect in N-acetylaspartic acid metabolism

A

Canavan disease

144
Q

young man with centrocecal scotoma, other family members also have it

A

Leber optic atrophy

145
Q

demyelinating disorder affecting children who become symptomatic during the first months of life, but may live into their 30s. sudanophilic leukodystrophy, mostly affects males

A

Pelizaeus-Merzbacher

146
Q

newborn with cystic swelling at base of spine covered with hyper pigmented skin and coarse hair. what’s most likely?

A

meningocele

147
Q

female carriers of fragile X have MR in __% of cases

A

about half. mild MR

148
Q

17 month old boy who started having progressive gait problems at 13 months old. pt is spastic, yet nerve conduction studies show slowed motor and sensory conduction velocities. CSF protein is elevated, MRI shows white matter abnormalities. def arylsulfatase A. what disease? what test will give useful diagnostic info?

A

metachromatic leukodystrophy. do a nerve biopsy to look for sulfated in schwann cells

149
Q

5 yr old boy with MR, homonymous hemianopsia, hemiparesis. He had infantile spasm and still has epilepsy. Head CT shows calcifications in cerebral cortex in a railroad track pattern

A

sturge weber syndrome

150
Q

erythrocytosis with cerebellar signs, microscopic hematuria, and HSM

A

von Hippel Lindau

151
Q

eye finding in von Hippel Lindau

A

telangiectasis in the fundi on retina exam

152
Q

MOI of tuberous sclerosis

A

autosomal dom with incomplete penetrance

153
Q

sebaceous adenomas found in what dz

A

found in 90% of patients with tuberous sclerosis

154
Q

gliomatous tumors that require no tx and are a principal criterion for dx of tuberous sclerosis

A

retinal phakomas

155
Q

calcifications seen on CT scan of pt with tuberous sclerosis usually represents calcified (meningeal adhesions/astrocytomas/granulomas/subependymal glial nodules)

A

subependymal glial nodules

156
Q

asymptomatic dandy walker formation prognosis

A

may not affect life whatsoever

157
Q

percent of tuberous sclerosis pts with MR

A

65%. of those, half are severely retarded

158
Q

intellectual functioning in DMD

A

slightly impaired

159
Q

man with difficulty relaxing grip, hyper somnolence, premature baldness, testicular atrophy, cataracts

A

myotonic dystrophy

160
Q

EMG pattern displayed in myotonic dystrophy

A

dive bomber pattern–characteristic sound when action potentials are heard. repetitive discharges with minor stimulation

161
Q

75 year old man with elevated ESR, anemia, weight loss, malaise

A

polymyalgia rheumatica–arteritis of the elderly

162
Q

MC site of CNS atrophy assoc with chronic alcoholism

A

superior vermis

163
Q

lethal neurologic complication of organophosphate poisoning

A

severe UMN and LMN motor polyneuropathy

164
Q

______ inhalation by coal miners produces a clinical picture similar to that seen with hepatolenticular degeneration (Wilson dz). Parkinsonism is most predominant feature, axial rigidity and dystonia may develop

A

Manganese

165
Q

how does ciguatoxin (produced by dinoflagellates which are consumed by reef fish) cause food poisoning sxs and neurological sxs

A

acts on voltage gated sodium channels, leading to increased permeability to sodium and increased excitability

166
Q

MC form of retinal degeneration, hereditary, optic disc pallor seen later in disease, develops along with abetalipoproteinemia (Bassen-Kornzweig dz)

A

retinitis pigmentosa

167
Q

visual loss is usually substantial in (papilledema/papillitis)

A

papillitis (often early sign of MS)

168
Q

marcus gunn pupil

A

problem with afferent (optic nerve) in one eye, so pupils actually dilate when the flashlight is swung toward that eye, but both constrict when the light is in the other eye

169
Q

marcus gunn pupil commonly develops in people with _______ and is a sign of ______

A

MS, sequela of optic neuritis, sign of optic atrophy

170
Q

visual loss in retinal degneration, vitamin A def, color blindness

A

nyctalopia (night blindness)

171
Q

scintillating scotomas are the classic signature of the _____

A

migraine aura

172
Q

injury to the _____ results in signif loss of visual acuity, with preservation of peripheral vision

A

macula

173
Q

segmental narrowing of arterioles, arteriolar straightening, arteriolar-venular compression (nicking) seen in _____

A

long standing HTN

174
Q

injury to CN __ produces a lateral rectus palsy

A

CN 6

175
Q

an abducens dysf with lateral rectus palsy in a child may develop due to increased ICP or direct damage to the ______

A

brainstem (like a brainstem glioma)

176
Q

child with one sided facial pain and blurry vision, CN 6 lateral rectus palsy

A

Gradenigo syndrome d/t osteomyelitis (infection) of petrous pyramid as a result of chronic ear infections

177
Q

CN most at risk of injury with trauma to the orbit or the full face

A

CN 4 –will induce a slight head tilt to compensate for impaired intorsion of the affected eye

178
Q

CN affected by VZV

A

CN 4 bc it shares a sheath with CN V, where VZV is harbored

179
Q

initial sign of injury to the third nerve (usually by aneurysm)

A

impaired depression

180
Q

occlusion of the retinal (vein/artery) produces engorged tortuous veins and streaky linear retinal hemorrhage, visual loss is variable

A

vein

181
Q

occlusion of the retinal (vein/artery) produces painless visual loss, cherry red fovea, cloudy grayish yellow retina, vessels appear to have segmented columns of blood

A

artery

182
Q

amaurosis fugax

A

fleeting loss of vision, can be caused by emboli traveling through the internal carotid that exit to the ophthalmic artery and cause obstruction before they break up

183
Q

otherwise healthy young woman with poorly responsive, dilated pupils and absent Achilles tendon reflexes bilaterally

A

Adie tonic pupil, benign tonic pupillary dilation

184
Q

medication that may induce a syndrome resembling HTN encephalopathy, “reversible posterior leukoencephalopathy,” headache, visual dysf, confusion, seizures

A

cyclosporine toxicity

185
Q

MCC of acute monocular blindness, painless, HTN and DM are risk factors

A

ischemic optic neuropathy (posterior ciliary artery is involved)

186
Q

field cuts from a lesion impinging on the optic chiasm from one side

A

field cut in the contralateral field of the contralateral eye, upper quadrant preferentially affected. ipsilateral eye may exhibit a centrocecal scotoma

187
Q

MCC of hearing loss in the elderly, high frequency perception is impaired because of sensorineural damage, spiral ganglion neurons of the cochlea most likely affected, normal Rinne test (means that middle ear deafness is not present)

A

presbycusis

188
Q

girl with mastoiditis which expands into the ______ lobe, develops fluent aphasia

A

temporal (damage to wernicke area in superior temporal lobe gyrus)

189
Q

what is damaged with the sound of an explosion? high or low tone sensorineural hearing loss?

A

cochlea–causes high tone sensorineural hearing loss

190
Q

artery with medial branches supplying the brainstem (occlusion leads to vertigo due to vestibular nuclei), and lateral branches, lateral branches may induce vertigo by injury to cerebellar flocculonodular lobule injury

A

PICA

191
Q

med that may exacerbate tinnitus

A

aspirin

192
Q

where is the olfactory cortex located

A

lateral olfactory gyrus- prepiriform area

193
Q

areflexia and flaccidity assoc with spinal shock usually evolve into hyperreflexia and spasticity within ____ (time period)

A

3 days to 3 weeks

194
Q

what type of motion of the lumbar spine during car accidents causes vertebral fracture

A

extreme flexion (if not restrained by a shoulder belt)

195
Q

artery of _____ is a major anterior radicular artery and supplies the lower two-thirds of the spinal cord. at risk of occlusion during AAA repair

A

Adamkiewicz

196
Q

abnormal collection of fluid resulting in an expansion of the central canal

A

syrinx

197
Q

first dorsal interosseous muscle is innervated by the ____ nerve, which originates at the __ and __ nerve roots

A

ulnar. C8 and T1

198
Q

where is the decussation of the pyramids?

A

junction of medulla and spinal cord

199
Q

MCC of mononeuropathy multiplex

A

DM

200
Q

what type of injury is most likely to cause an injury limited to the upper brachial plexus?

A

birth trauma

201
Q

Friedreich disease is linked to a defect on chr __

A

9

202
Q

the peripheral neuropathy seen in a patient with Friedreich develops in part because of degeneration in _____

A

dorsal root ganglia

203
Q

tx for Guillain Barre

A

plasma exchange and IVIG

204
Q

recurrent attacks of ab pain, gastroparesis, constipation due to autonomic neuropathy, psychosis, axonal motor neuropathy, autonomic instability

A

acute intermittent porphyria

205
Q

DM is a common cause of CN __ palsy via nerve infarction

A

CN III, sparring the pupillomotor parasympathetics

206
Q

periorbital ecchymosis, ecchymosis over the mastoid region, hemotympanum, or CSF rhinorrhea should be considered evidence of a ______ skull fracture

A

basilar

207
Q

(hypo/hyper) thermia has been shown to reduce cerebral injury from ischemia in its with traumatic brain injury

A

hypo. by decreasing cerebral metabolism, reducing acidosis, attenuating change in the BBB, inhibiting release of excitatory neurotransmitters

208
Q

bladder dysf in MS is a consequence of corticospinal tract disease, causing an UMN lesion leading to a spastic bladder. therefore use _____ as a tx

A

oxybutynin, also TCAs like imipramine

209
Q

______ response: an expanding intracranial mass produces an elevated BP and a slow heart rate

A

Cushing response

Neuro (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions