Classification Of Antibiotics Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

What is the major difference between bactericidal and bacteriostatic antibiotics?

A

Bactericidal antibiotics kill bacteria, while bacteriostatic antibiotics inhibit bacterial growth.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Which antibiotics are considered beta-lactams?

A

Penicillins, cephalosporins, carbapenems, and monobactams.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the mechanism of action of beta-lactam antibiotics?

A

Inhibition of transpeptidases, which are involved in peptidoglycan synthesis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Name an antibiotic that inhibits cell membrane function.

A

Polymyxin B or colistin (Polymyxin E).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which antibiotics inhibit protein synthesis by targeting the 30S ribosomal subunit?

A

Aminoglycosides, tetracyclines, spectinomycin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What does the term ‘broad-spectrum antibiotic’ mean?

A

An antibiotic that is effective against a wide range of Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which class of antibiotics inhibits DNA synthesis by targeting DNA gyrase?

A

Quinolones and fluoroquinolones.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the main adverse effect associated with tetracyclines?

A

Staining of teeth and impairment of bone structure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which antibiotics are classified as glycopeptides?

A

Vancomycin and teicoplanin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the mechanism of action of macrolides?

A

Inhibit RNA-dependent protein synthesis at the chain elongation step.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which class of antibiotics works by inhibiting folic acid synthesis?

A

Sulfonamides and trimethoprim.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the primary target of aminoglycosides?

A

The 30S ribosomal subunit, leading to misreading of mRNA.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the main adverse effect associated with aminoglycosides?

A

Nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Name a fifth-generation cephalosporin that is active against MRSA.

A

Ceftaroline or ceftobiprole.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which antibiotic is often used in combination with beta-lactamase inhibitors?

A

Amoxicillin (combined with clavulanic acid).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are beta-lactamase inhibitors?

A

Compounds that prevent bacterial beta-lactamases from hydrolyzing beta-lactam antibiotics.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which antibiotic is used primarily against anaerobic bacteria?

A

Metronidazole.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which antibiotics are classified as nucleic acid synthesis inhibitors?

A

Quinolones, fluoroquinolones, and rifamycins.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the clinical significance of clavulanic acid?

A

It is a beta-lactamase inhibitor that protects antibiotics like amoxicillin from degradation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the mechanism of action of rifampicin?

A

Inhibits DNA-dependent RNA polymerase, blocking RNA synthesis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which antibiotic is a first-line treatment for tuberculosis?

A

Isoniazid or rifampicin.

22
Q

What is the primary adverse effect of fluoroquinolones?

A

Tendon rupture, particularly of the Achilles tendon.

23
Q

Which generation of cephalosporins has the broadest activity?

A

Fourth generation, such as cefepime.

24
Q

What is the spectrum of activity of monobactams like aztreonam?

A

Limited to aerobic Gram-negative bacteria.

25
Q

What is the mechanism of action of vancomycin?

A

Inhibits cell wall synthesis by preventing peptidoglycan cross-linking.

26
Q

Which antibiotic is known for causing ‘red man syndrome’?

A

Vancomycin.

27
Q

What is the primary mechanism of action of chloramphenicol?

A

Inhibits protein synthesis by binding to the 50S ribosomal subunit.

28
Q

Which antibiotic class is most commonly associated with photosensitivity?

A

Tetracyclines.

29
Q

What is the clinical use of fosfomycin?

A

Used to treat uncomplicated urinary tract infections.

30
Q

Which antibiotic inhibits protein synthesis by preventing the formation of the 70S initiation complex?

A

Linezolid.

31
Q

What is the mechanism of action of streptogramins?

A

Inhibit protein synthesis by binding to the 50S ribosomal subunit.

32
Q

Which antibiotic inhibits protein synthesis by blocking the binding of aminoacyl-tRNA to the ribosomal A-site?

A

Tetracyclines.

33
Q

What is the classification of beta-lactam antibiotics based on their chemical structure?

A

Penicillins, cephalosporins, carbapenems, and monobactams.

34
Q

Which antibiotics are considered ‘time-dependent’ in their killing activity?

A

Penicillins and cephalosporins.

35
Q

What is the mode of action of daptomycin?

A

Disrupts bacterial cell membrane function, leading to cell death.

36
Q

Which antibiotic is used as a topical treatment due to its toxicity when used systemically?

A

Bacitracin.

37
Q

What is the spectrum of activity of polymyxins?

A

Effective against Gram-negative bacteria, including Pseudomonas aeruginosa.

38
Q

Which antibiotic is commonly used for surgical prophylaxis?

A

Cefazolin (first-generation cephalosporin).

39
Q

What is the mechanism of action of sulfonamides?

A

Inhibit folic acid synthesis by competing with para-aminobenzoic acid (PABA).

40
Q

Which antibiotics are primarily used to treat urinary tract infections?

A

Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole and nitrofurantoin.

41
Q

What are the common adverse effects of chloramphenicol?

A

Bone marrow suppression and aplastic anemia.

42
Q

Which class of antibiotics includes erythromycin, azithromycin, and clarithromycin?

A

Macrolides.

43
Q

Which antibiotics are active against intracellular bacteria like Chlamydia and Mycoplasma?

A

Tetracyclines and macrolides.

44
Q

What is the mode of action of fluoroquinolones?

A

Inhibit DNA gyrase and topoisomerase IV, preventing bacterial DNA replication.

45
Q

What is the classification of fluoroquinolones based on generations?

A

First-generation: Norfloxacin; Second-generation: Ciprofloxacin; Third-generation: Levofloxacin; Fourth-generation: Moxifloxacin.

46
Q

What is the mode of action of metronidazole?

A

Causes DNA strand breakage by generating reactive free radicals in anaerobic bacteria.

47
Q

Which antibiotic is primarily effective against Gram-positive organisms resistant to other treatments?

A

Linezolid.

48
Q

Which antibiotics inhibit bacterial topoisomerase enzymes?

A

Fluoroquinolones.

49
Q

What is the significance of aminocyclitol in aminoglycosides?

A

Aminoglycosides contain an aminocyclitol ring that is essential for their activity.

50
Q

What is the mechanism of action of oxazolidinones like linezolid?

A

Inhibits protein synthesis by preventing the formation of the 70S initiation complex.