Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Step 1 Rapid Review > Classic/Relevant Treatments > Flashcards

Classic/Relevant Treatments Flashcards

1
Q

Ethylene glycol/Methanol intoxication

A

Fomepizole (Alcohol dehydrogenase inhibitor)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Chronic hepatitis B or C

A

IFN- alpha (HBV and HBC); ribavirin, simeprivir, sofosobuvir (HCV)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Streptococcus bovis

A

Penicillin prophylaxis; evaluation for colon cancer in liked to endocarditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Clostridium botulinum

A

Antitoxin

This bacteria prevents release of acetylcholine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Clostridium tetani

A

Antitoxin

This bacteria prevents release of the neuroinhibitors GABA and glycine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Haemophilus influenza type B

A

Amoxicillin +/-clavulanate (mucosal infections), Ceftriaxone (Meningitis),
Rifampin (prophylaxis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Neisseria gonorrhoeae

A

Ceftriaxone - 3rd gen cephalosphorin (add doxycycline to cover likely concurrent C. trachoma)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Neisseria meningitides

A

Penicillin/Ceftriaxone

Rifampin (Prophylaxis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Legionella pneumophila

A

Macrolides (ex: Azithromycin)

50S protein synthesis inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

A

Piperacillin/Tazobactam, Aminoglycosides, Carbapenems

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Treponema pallidum

A

Penicillin G

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Chlamydia trachoma’s

A

Doxycyclyine (add ceftriaxone for gonorrhea coinfection),

Oral Erythromycin for chlamydial conjunctivitis in infants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Candida albicans

A

Topical azoles (Vaginitis);
Nystatin, fluconazole, caspofungin (Oral/Esophageal);
Fluconazole, caspofungin, amphotericin B (Systemic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Cryptococcus neoformans

A

Induction with Amphotericin B and flucytosine, maintenance with fluconazole (in AIDS patients)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Sporothrix schenckii

A

Itraconazole, oral potassium iodide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Pneumocystis jirovecii

A

TMP-SMX (Prophylaxis and treatment in immunosuppressed patients, CD4 <200/mm3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Toxoplasma gondii

A

Sulfadiazine + pyrimethamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Malaria

A

Chloroquine, mefloquine, atovaquone/proguanil (for blood schizont), primaquine (for liver hypnozoite)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Trichomonas vaginalis

A

Metronidazole (patient and partner)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Streptococcus pyogenes

A

Penicillin prophylaxis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Streptococcus pneumoniae

A

Penicillin/Cephalosporin (Systemic infections, pneumonia),

Vancomycin (Meningitis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Staphylococcus aureus

A

MSSA: (“nod”) nafcillin, oxacillin, dicloxacillin (anti staphylococcal penicillins);
MRSA: Vancomycin, daptomycin, linezolid, ceftaroline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Enterococci

A

Vancomycin, aminopenicillins/cephalosporins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Rickettsia rickettsii

A

Doxycycline, chloramphenicol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Clostridium difficile

A

Oral metronidazole; if refractory, oral vancomycin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Myobacterium tuberculosis

A

RIPE (rifampin, isoniazid, pyrazinamide, ethambutol)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

UTI prophylaxis

A

TMP-SMX

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Influenza

A

Oseltamivir, Zanamivir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

CMV

A

Ganciclovir, foscarnet, cidofovir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Patent ductus arteriousus

A

Close with indomethacin,

Keep open with prostaglandin (PGE) analogs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Stable angina

A

Sublingual nitroglycerin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Buerger disease

A

Smoking cessation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Kawasaki disease

A

IVIG, aspirin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Temporal arteritis

A

High dose steroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Granulomatosis with polyangitis (Wegener)

A

Cyclophosphamide, corticosteroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Hypercholesterolemia

A

Statin (first line)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Hypertriglyceridemia

38
Q

Arrhythmia in damaged cardiac tissue

A

Class IB antiarrythmic (lidocaine, mexiletine)

39
Q

Prolactinoma

A

Cabergoline/Bromocriptine (Dopamine agonists)

40
Q

Pheochromocytoma

A

alpha antagonists (phenoxybenzamine), specially before surgical removal

41
Q

Diabetes insipidus

A

Desmopressin (ADH) - Central

Hydrochlorothiazide, indomethacin, amiloride - Nephrogenic

42
Q

SIADH

A

Fluid restriction, IV hypertonic saline, conivaptan/tolvaptan, demeclocycline

43
Q

Diabetic ketoacidosis

A

Fluids, insulin, K (potassium)

44
Q

DM type 1

A

Dietary intervention (low carbs) + insulin replacement

45
Q

DM type 2

A

Dietary intervention, oral hypoglycemics and insulin (if refractory)

46
Q

Carcinoid syndrome

A

Octeotride

47
Q

Chrons disease

A

Corticosteroids, infliximab, azathioprine

48
Q

Ulcerative colitis

A

5-ASA preparations (mesalamine), 6-mercapturine, infliximab, colectomy

49
Q

Sickle cell disease

A

Hydroxyurea (Increases fetal hemoglobin)

50
Q

Chronic myelogenous leukemia

51
Q

Acute promyelocytic leukemia (M3)

A

All-trans retinoid acid

52
Q

DOC for anticoagulation in pregnancy or renal failure

A

Low molecular weight heparin

53
Q

Heparin reversal

A

Protamine sulfate

54
Q

Immediate anticoagulation

55
Q

Long term anticoagulation

A

Warfarin, dagibatran, rivaroxaban and apixaban

56
Q

Warfarin reversal

A

FFP (acute), Vitamin K (non acute)

57
Q

Cyclophosphamide induced hemorrhagic cystitis

58
Q

HER2/neu + breast cancer

A

Trastuzumab

59
Q

Osteoporosis

A

Calcium/Vitamin D supplementation (Prophylaxis); biphosphonates, PTH analogs, SERMs, calcitonin, denosumab (treatment)

60
Q

Osteomalacia/Rickets

A

Vitamin D supplementation

61
Q

Chronic gout

A

Xanthine oxidase inhibitors (allopurinol, febuxostat); pegloticase; probenecid

62
Q

Acute gout attack

A

NSAIDs, colchicine, glucocorticois

63
Q

Neural tube defect prevention

A

Prenatal folic acid

64
Q

Migraine

A 
Abortive therapies (Sumatriptan, NSAIDs)
Prophylaxis (Propanolol, topiramate, CCBs, amitriptyline)
65
Q

Multiple sclerosis

A

Disease modifying therapies (Beta interferon, natalizumab)

Acute flares, use IV steroids

66
Q

Degeneration of dorsal column fibers

A 
Tabes dorsalis (3 syphilis)
Subacute combined degeneration (dorsal columns, lateral corticospinal, spinocerebellar tracts affected) - Seen in Vit B12 deficiency
67
Q

Tonic clonic seizures

A

Levetiracetam, phenytoin, valproate, carbamazepine

68
Q

Absence seizures

A

Ethosuximide

69
Q

Trigeminal neuralgia (tic douloureux)

A

Carbamazepine

70
Q

Malignant hyperthermia

A

Dantrolene

71
Q

Anorexia

A

Nutrition, psychotherapy, SSRIs

72
Q

Bulimia nervosa

73
Q

Alcoholism

A

Disulfiram, acamprosate, naltrexone, supportive care

74
Q

ADHD

A

Methylphenidate, amphetamines, CBT, atomoxetine, guanfacine, clonidine

75
Q

Alcohol withdrawal

A

Long acting benzodiazepine

76
Q

Bipolar disorder

A

Mood stabilizers (lithium, valproic acid, carbamazepine(, atypical antipsychotics

77
Q

Depression

A

SSRIs (first line)

78
Q

Generalized anxiety disorder

A

SSRIs, SNRIs (first line), buspirone (second line)

79
Q

Schizophrenia (positive symptoms)

A

Typical and atypical antipsychotics

80
Q

Schizophrenia (negative symptoms)

A

Atypical antipsychotics

81
Q

Hyperaldosteronism

A

Spironolactone

82
Q

BPH

A

alpha1 antagonists (tamsulosin, prazosin), 5alpha reductase inhibitors (finasteride), PDE-5 inhibitors

83
Q

Infertility

A

Leuprolide, GnRH (pulsatile), clomiphene

84
Q

Breast cancer in postmenopausal women

A

Aromatase inhibitor (anastrozole)

85
Q

ER + breast cancer

86
Q

Prostate adenocarcinoma/uterine fibroids

A

Leuprolide, GnRH (continuous)

87
Q

Medical abortion

A

Mifepristone

88
Q

Prostate adenocarcinoma

89
Q

Erectile dysfunction

A

Sildenafil, tadalafil, vardenafil

90
Q

Pulmonary arterial hypertension (idiopathic)

A

Sildenafil, bosentan, epoprosterenol

Step 1 Rapid Review (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions