Class review Flashcards

1
Q

Which
antibody is
NOT known
to fix
compliment?

A. anti-Jka
B. anti-P
C. anti-B
D. anti-k

A

D. anti-k

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2
Q

Which
antithetical
pair is NOT a
high/low
incidence
pair?

A. Lua/Lub
B. Dia/Dib
C. Fya/Fyb
D. K/k

A

C. Fya/Fyb

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3
Q

Which
antibody is
known to
demonstrate
dosage?

A. anti-Jka
B. anti-P
C. anti-Lea
D. Anti-U

A

A. anti-Jka

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4
Q

Which
antigen system
is the entry
point for
Plasmodium
Falciparum?

A. MNS
B. Lutheran
C. Duffy
D. Rhesus

A

A. MNS

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5
Q

Secretor status is
coded on
chromosome 19,
which of the
following systems is
also on this
chromosome?

A. Kell
B. Duffy
C. Lutheran
D. P/Glob

A

C. Lutheran

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6
Q

Which
antigen system
is involved in
urea transport
in the cell?

A. Duffy
B. Kell
C. Kidd
D. P

A

C. Kidd

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7
Q

Which
antibody is
associated with
paroxysmal cold
hemoglobinuria?

A. anti-P1
B. anti-P
C. anti-M
D. Anti-I

A

B. anti-P

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8
Q

Which
antibody
classically gives
mixed field
agglutination
reactions?

A. anti-Lea
B. anti-Lub
C. anti-I
D. Anti-D

A

B. anti-Lub

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9
Q

Which
antibody is
considered a
warm acting
antibody?

A. anti-M
B. anti-N
C. anti-S
D. Anti-Lua

A

C. anti-S

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10
Q

Which
phenotype is
NOT a null
phenotype?

A. Jk3-
B. U-
C. Fy(a-b-)
D. k-

A

D. k-

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11
Q

Which antibody
is most commonly
associated with
delayed hemolytic
transfusion
reactions?

A. anti-s
B. anti-k
C. anti-Lua
D. Anti-Jka

A

D. Anti-Jka

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12
Q

Which of
the
following phen
otypes may
make an allo-
anti-U?

A. M+N+S+s-
B. M+N-S-s-
C. M-N+S-s+
D. M+N-S+s+

A

B. M+N-S-s-

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13
Q

Which
phenotype is
considered
homozygous?

A. R1r”
B. Fy(a+b+)
C. Jk(a-b+)
D. K+k+

A

C. Jk(a-b+)

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14
Q

Your facility has
a rule to not
phenotype units for
antigens that are
<10% prevalent in
the population.
Which clinically
significant antibody
might they miss?

A. E
B. Lea
C. S
D. K

A

D. K

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15
Q

Which duffy
phenotype is
prevalent in the
black population but
nearly non-existent
in caucasians?

A. Fy(a+b+)
B. Fy(a+b-)
C. Fy(a-b+)
D. Fy(a-b-)

A

D. Fy(a-b-)

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16
Q

Which
antigen of the
Kell system is
more frequent
in the black
population?

A. K
B. Kpa
C. Jsa
D. Jka

17
Q

Which
antibody is
produced by
the p null
phenotype?

A. anti-p
B. anti-P
C. anti-P1
D. Anti-PP1Pk

A

D. Anti-PP1Pk

18
Q

Which
antigen is
created by the
transferase
that competes
with Pk
transferase?

A. I
B. N
C. Lea
D. H

19
Q

Which
antigen is NOT
strongly
expressed at
birth in cord
blood?

A. K
B. I
C. Fya
D. M

20
Q

Which
antigen
activity is
enhanced with
treatment
with enzymes?

A. MN
B. Duffy
C. Rh
D. None of them

21
Q

Which
antigen would
NOT be found
on glycophorin
B?

A. M
B. N
C. S
D. s

22
Q

Which red
cell morphology
occurs
commonly when
Kell antigens are
missing from the
red cell surface?

A. Spherocytes
B. Acanthocytes
C. Hypochromasia
D. Resistence to lysis in 2M
urea

A

B. Acanthocytes

23
Q

How many
units should you
test to find 2
compatible
blood units for a
patient who has
an anti-Fya?

A. 1
B. 3
C. 5
D. 10

24
Q

How many units
should you test to
find 1 compatible
blood unit for a
patient who has an
anti-K, anti-E and
anti-S?

A. 1
B. 3
C. 9
D. 5

25
Which antigen on the antigram is NOT low incident? A. Cw B. V C. Kpa D. f
D. f
26
Which of the following antibodies can be naturally occurring? A. anti-K B. anti-D C. anti-S D. anti-P1
D. anti-P1
27
Choose the true statement for Anti-K. A. Agglutinates in the IS phase of testing B. Is usually IgM C. Loses reactivity when tested with DTT treated cells D. Does not agglutinate with K+k+ cells
C. Loses reactivity when tested with DTT treated cells
28
Chronic granulomatous disease is associated with a depression of the antigens in the __system. A. Duffy B. Kidd C. Kell D. P
C. Kell
29
Which of these lesser known antigens is not on the antigram because it is not clinically significant? A. Ch B. Dia C. Ge2 D. Ytb
A. Ch
30
A patient transfused 2 years ago had anti-Jkb. Now their screen is negative. What is the appropriate followup? A. Antibody panel B. Phenotype the patient for Jkb C. Phenotype units for Jkb D. Immediate spin Crossmatch
C. Phenotype units for Jkb
31
An antibody that reacts with all cells on a panel except the autocontrol is referred to as... A. High Titer Low Avidity B. High Incidence C. Low Incidence D. Auto Antibody
B. High Incidence
32
An antibody’s clinical significance refers to its ability to cause A. HDN B. HTR C. Formation of antibody D. Two of these
D. Two of these
33
True or False, after neutralization procedures, the patient plasma mixed with antigen positive cell should produce an agglutination result.
F
34
For what purpose would you choose a heterozygous cell? A. Rule out B. Rule in C. Positive control for Phenotype D. Negative control for Phenotype
C. Positive control for Phenotype
35
Which of the following stock antibodies would be an appropriate negative control after enzymatic treatment of a panel? A. Anti-c B. Anti-Fyb C. Anti-K D. Anti-Jka
B. Anti-Fyb
36
Which of the following is NOT a technique used to pretreat a red cell panel for complex antibody identification? A. Hydatid Cyst fluid B. Ficin C. Papain D. DTT
A. Hydatid Cyst fluid
37
You are working on a patient you suspect has a high incidence antibody. You have only been able to authorize plasma transfusion for this patient while you wait for reference lab workup. The patient’s most recent sample is now giving negative results after plasma transfusion. What has happened? A. The Chido/Rodgers antibody was neutralized by normal plasma. B. The autoantibody was diluted by plasma transfusion. C. The Lewis antibody was neutralized by normal plasma. D. The incorrect patient was collected.
A. The Chido/Rodgers antibody was neutralized by normal plasma.
38
You are attempting to differentiate anti-S from anti-M which of the following information is most helpful. A. The patient diagnosis is Malarial infection. B. The patient antibody reacts with 8 out of 12 cells on the antigram. C. The patient antibody is non agglutinating with enzyme treated panel. D. The patient has an ABO discrepancy of extra reactions in the reverse type.
D. The patient has an ABO discrepancy of extra reactions in the reverse type.