Class Questions

Question 1

1. Edema occurs even in non- injured tissues with injury of how much TBSA?
>10-15%
>25-30%
>20-50%
>75%

Answer 1

> 25-30%

Question 2

2. Two hours after sustaining extensive burns of the head, neck and chest in a house fire, a patient has stridor and difficulty breathing. The most appropriate management is:
   administration of aerosolized epinephrine
   administration of helium and oxygen
   endotracheal intubation
   intravenous injection of dexamethasone

Answer 2

endotracheal intubation

Question 3

3. What medication is most likely to be used for RSI of a major burn patient 5 days after injury?
2 mg/kg Succinylcholine
0.6 mg/kg Roc
1.5 mg/kg Roc
1 mg/kg Succinylcholine

Answer 3

1.5 mg/kg Roc

Question 4

4. A 70 kg adult male burn patient with severe burns to body (27% TBSA) is coming in for emergent surgery to I&D the necrosed skin and assess other damages. Using the Parkland formula, how much fluid should he receive in the first 8 hours (not including maintenance/ surgery fluids they’re already going to receive)?
7560ml
3780 ml
1890 ml
945 ml

Answer 4

3780 ml

Question 5

1. Which Tumor suppressor gene is mostly correlated with oncogene functions?
p12
e52
p53
p35

Answer 5

p53

Question 6

2. Which therapy is not associated with treatment of cancer?
cryotherapy
cyberknife
inhalational
chemotherapy

Answer 6

inhalational

Question 7

3. What type drug therapy is most effective for bone cancer patients?
Morphine
NSAID
Anticonvulsants
Tricyclic antidepressant drugs

Answer 7

NSAID

Question 8

4. When considering a anesthetic plans for a cancer patient, which anesthetic method may help reduce overall administration of opioids?
General
MAC
TIVA
Neuraxial

Answer 8

Neuraxial

Question 9

1. Patients that are malnourished are at a higher risk of ______
   a) hyperthermia
   b) hypertension
   c) hypothermia
   hyperkalemia

Answer 9

c) hypothermia

Question 10

2. hyperventilation in malnourished patients can further lower what levels ?
   a) calcium
   b) sodium
   c) potassium
   d) chloride

Answer 10

c) potassium

Question 11

1. What is the potentially life-threatening condition caused by excessive serotonergic activity in the nervous system?
   a. Malignant Hyperthermia
   b. Serotonin Syndrome
   c. Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome
   d. Anticholinergic Toxidrome

Answer 11

b.Serotonin Syndrome

Question 12

2. If your patient is taking Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitors (MAOIs), which drug is safe to use?
   a. Meperidine
   b. Ketamine
   c. Epinephrine with regional anesthesia
   d. Benzodiazepines

Answer 12

d.Benzodiazepines

Question 13

3. A patient taking anti-psychotics had a recent increase in drug dosage, and is scheduled to undergo a laparoscopic hysterectomy. What condition are you specifically concerned of?
   a. Serotonin Syndrome
   b. Anticholinergic Toxidrome
   c. Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome
   d. Malignant Hyperthermia

Answer 13

c.Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome

Question 14

4. Which of the following is a main treatment for Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome?
   a. Cyproheptadine
   b. Bromocriptine
   c. Chlorpromazine
   d. Olanzapine

Answer 14

b.Bromocriptine

Question 15

1. Normal intraabdominal pressure is 2–5 mm Hg. Intraabdominal pressure is \_\_\_\_\_ in critically ill patients, typically \_\_\_\_\_\_mmHg. 
A) Lower, 0-2mmHg
B) the same, 2-5mmHg
C) Higher, 5-7mmHg
D) Higher, 10-12mmHg

Answer 15

C) Higher, 5-7mmHg

Question 16

2. What symptoms known as the lethal triad may result in death for trauma patients?
   A) hypertension, proteinuria, and edema
   B) hypothermia, coagulopathy, and acidosis
   C) persistent inflammation, protease–antiprotease imbalance, and oxidative stress
   D) bradycardia, irregular respirations, and a widened pulse pressure

Answer 16

B) hypothermia, coagulopathy, and acidosis

Question 17

3. You have a patient with a blood pressure of 100/55 mmhg, HR of 92, and an IAP of 12mm Hg, what is their abdominal perfusion pressure?
A) 58
B) 73
C) 80
D) 82

Answer 17

A) 58

Question 18

1. The following anesthesia procedure carries the greatest risk of bloodstream infection:
   a. Arterial line placement
   b. Peripheral venous cannulation
   c. Epidural catheter placement
   d. Central venous catheter placement

Answer 18

d. Central venous catheter placement

Question 19

2. The primary anesthetic implication of a patient with an active Tetanus infection is:
   a. Polyuria caused by decreased ADH release
   b. Hypoglycemia secondary to insulin release
   b. Possible airway difficulty due to muscle spasms
   d. Limited cervical spine mobility

Answer 19

b. Possible airway difficulty due to muscle spasms

Question 20

3. A patient presents with an active Tuberculosis infection for an elective laparoscopic prostatectomy. What is included in your preoperative management of this patient?
   a. Administer breathing treatments including albuterol to optimize the patient.
   b. Move forward with the case after ordering pulmonary function tests.
   c. Postpone the case until patient is not infectious.
   d. Place patient in a negative pressure operating room and continue with the case.

Answer 20

c. Postpone the case until patient is not infectious.

Question 21

The primary symptom of GSD Type 1 (Von Gierke disease) is which of the following?​
A) Hyperglycemia​
B) Metabolic alkalosis​
C) Hypoglycemia​
D) Thrombocytopenia​

Answer 21

C) Hypoglycemia​

Question 22

An astute anesthetist notices a copper-colored ring around a patient's cornea. Further workup includes a history of liver dysfunction and movement disorders (dystonia). Which of the following inborn error of metabolism should be expected?​
A) Wilsons Disease​
B) Von Gierke Disease​
C) Maple Syrup Urine Disease​
D) Hemochromatosis​

Answer 22

A) Wilsons Disease​

Question 23

In which of the following inborn error of metabolism are we most concerned for monitoring for and preventing hypoglycemia?​
A) Wilsons Disease​
B) Lesch-Nyhan​
C) Maple Syrup Urine Disease​
D) Hemochromatosis

Answer 23

C) Maple Syrup Urine Disease​

Question 24

1. Alcohol acts on _____ receptor similar to ______ drug class.
   a. Beta, beta blockers
   b. GABA, opioids
   c. GABA, benzodiazepines
   d. Alpha, barbiturates

Answer 24

c.GABA, benzodiazepines

Question 25

2. Acute overdose of benzodiazepine is treated with
   a. Narcan
   b. Flumazenil
   c. Furosemide
   d. Dantrolene

Answer 25

b.Flumazenil

Question 26

3. Which of the following is NOT a true statement regarding opioid addiction?
   a. NSAIDs and clonidine are appropriate supplements for analgesia.
   b. Opioid administration should be terminated perioperatively, and reversal agents should be administered instead.
   c. Long-term use of opioids will cause tolerance and increase anesthetic requirements.
   d. Naloxone (reversal agent) can be administered intranasally or IV.

Answer 26

b.Opioid administration should be terminated perioperatively, and reversal agents should be administered instead.

Question 27

4. Cocaine blocks the postsynaptic reuptake of what two neurotransmitters?
   a. Serotonin and dopamine
   b. Epinephrine and dopamine
   c. Dopamine and norepinephrine
   d. Norepinephrine and serotonin

Answer 27

c.Dopamine and norepinephrine

Question 28

Which of the following is NOT a potential qualification for SIRS in the diagnosis of sepsis?
WBC >12,000 or <4,000
pH <7.1
Temp >38C or <36C
Tachycardia
RR>20/PaCO2 <32

Answer 28

pH <7.1

Question 29

2. What is the recommended ventilator setting for patients with pneumonia?
Tidal Volume ( mL/kg IBW))    PIP(cmH2O)

          6-8                                 25
          2-4                                 25
          4-6                                 30
          6-8                                 30
          2-4                                 35

Answer 29

6-8 30