CLASS#11-5819FFPMdPgs80–90,Add#3,AUC349,351,360,361&362,Brannigan–Chap10,11&12,TB–Tools#27,31,34&38,BISP–Ref9.5&9.7,BISP–FireCodeCh. 33 22-30, Ch38–LPG BCMichaelBarvels.pdf

Question 1

1) A newly promoted BC should be able to identify the features of Low-Rise Fireproof Multiple Dwellings (LRFPMDs). Which operational consideration below is listed incorrectly? (MD 7.2, 7.3)
A) Apartment fires in these buildings can cause the hallways and stairways to become heavily contaminated with smoke and heat once operations begin or if the apartment door was left open. The possibility of auto exposure exists and must be immediately addressed by the IC.
B) These buildings may have elevators and, regardless of the fire floor, the IC must ensure that all elevators are recalled, searched and controlled early in the operation, preventing civilians from placing themselves in danger by entering the elevator cars during the incident.
C) Stairs shall be used when the fire is on the seventh floor or below. The second arriving ladder company shall recall the elevators whether or not they will be used. The third to arrive Ladder Company shall ensure that all elevators are recalled and searched.
D) Usually not equipped with standpipe systems, these buildings may have a stairway window on each floor from which a rope can be lowered down to pull hose line up the outside of the building. The only obstruction to this operation is the existence of a small roof ledge over the building entrance door.

Answer 1

C - The first arriving ladder company shall recall the elevators, whether or not they will be used. The second to arrive ladder company shall ensure that all elevators are recalled and searched.

Question 2

2) A BC experienced in proper ventilation procedures in LRFPMD fires would know which choice below to be incorrect? (MD 7.4)
A) While roof ventilation is emphasized in LRFPMD, permission must still be granted by the IC before providing vertical ventilation via the attack stair bulkhead.
B) Particularly on windy days, the opening of the attack stairway bulkhead should be delayed until a proper size-up can be made.
C) Emphasis will generally be placed on venting the attack stair bulkhead after approval of the IC, later in the operation; usually after the fire is extinguished.
D) When ordered, the venting of the attack stairway in LRFPMDs will be accomplished by the 1st and 2nd arriving Roof firefighter positions.

Answer 2

D - Because of the lower building height of these fireproof buildings and the heavy smoke conditions that usually occur in the attack stairway after the attack has begun, emphasis will generally be placed on venting the attack stair bulkhead after approval of the IC, EARLY in the operation.

Question 3

3) At fires in LRFPMDs, the 1st arriving Ladder Company plays a pivotal role in the IC’s overall strategy. Which choice below is not in accordance with Department policy? (MD 7.7.1 A, 7.7.2, 7.7.3)
A) The 1st arriving Ladder Company will proceed to the fire floor and notify the IC if the stairs are open or enclosed. When there are two stairways, the Ladder Company will notify the IC and the Engine Officer of the attack stairway.
B) In buildings with two stairways, once the attack stair has been selected, all operations are to proceed from this stairway in order to ensure the evacuation stairway is maintained clear of smoke. No members shall utilize the evacuation stairways until the fire has been controlled; no exceptions.
C) At isolated buildings where there is only one interior stair and no adjoining building, the Ladder Company Chauffeur will have to provide access to the roof for the Roof Firefighter.
D) In an individual building with two separate sections protected by fire doors, the use of a protected adjoining section is the priority. In this situation, these doors must be checked on the fire floor and the floors above to ensure that they are in the closed position.

Answer 3

C - Roof Access will be obtained using the following priority order:

1. Stairway in an attached adjoining building. In an individual building with two separate sections protected by fire doors, the use of a protected adjoining section is the priority. In this situation, these doors must be checked on the fire floor and the floors above to ensure that they are in the closed position.
2. An enclosed evacuation stairway.
3. Aerial Ladder or Tower Ladder.

Question 4

4) There are a few isolated LRFPMD buildings that exist where there is only one open interior stairway to the roof, and the roof cannot be accessed via Aerial or Tower Ladder. Of the following choices, which is incorrect regarding roof access at these locations? (MD 7.7.3 B)
A) In this situation, a decision must be made by the company officer as to whether or not roof ventilation is required.
B) If the stairway is not an IDLH and safety permits, the Roof Firefighter may be ordered to take the interior stair to the roof, provided that the fire apartment door is controlled and maintained closed by the Ladder Company Officer.
C) If the stairway is an IDLH, the Roof Firefighter shall notify his/her officer and not ascend to the roof. Members must rely on any and all horizontal ventilation points.
D) If ordered by the IC, provide ventilation of the stairway bulkhead. The Roof Firefighter will remain on the roof until the fire is under control and the interior stairway is safe to descend.

Answer 4

C - If the stairway is an IDLH, then the Roof Firefighter must be teamed up with another member before ascending to the roof.

Question 5

5) In a LRFPMD, roof access should be obtained in which priority order? (MD 7.7.3 B)
1. Aerial Ladder or Tower Ladder.
2. An enclosed evacuation stairway.
3. Stairway in an attached, adjoining building; or the use of a protected adjoining section in a building with separate sections protected by fire doors.
A) 3, 2, 1
B) 1, 2, 3
C) 3, 1, 2
D) 2, 3, 1

Answer 5

A - Roof Access will be obtained using the following priority order:

1. Stairway in an attached adjoining building. In an individual building with two separate sections protected by fire doors, the use of a protected adjoining section is the priority. In this situation, these doors must be checked on the fire floor and the floors above to ensure that they are in the closed position.
2. An enclosed evacuation stairway.
3. Aerial Ladder or Tower Ladder.

Question 6

6) At a LRFPMD fire, the IC should be aware of all resources at his/her disposal and how they can be utilized. An experienced BC should know which point below to be incorrect? (MD 7.8.1 A, D, 7.8.2 B, 7.9C)
A) The 2nd arriving Ladder Company Roof FF will bring the KO curtain to the roof for a top floor fire.
B) The 2nd arriving Ladder Company inside team is responsible for all floors and stairs above the fire floor
C) Often the 4th floor can be reached with a 35’ portable ladder. If the fire floor can be laddered, the 2nd arriving Chauffeur/OV team can assist the 1st Ladder in outside operations, performing VEIS from the exterior.
D) Rescue and Squad Companies can be assigned to perform or reinforce various assignments as needed and ordered; however, they should not be assigned to perform secondary searches.

Answer 6

D - Rescue and Squad Companies can be assigned to perform or reinforce various assignments as needed and ordered. Some examples include:
 Assist when life saving rope rescue is in progress.
 Assist in primary searches.
 Perform accounting of all elevators as directed by the IC.
 Perform secondary searches.
 Rescue operations of any firefighters or civilians trapped in elevators.

Question 7

7) When a lifesaving rope rescue is required in a LRFPMD, the IC should take into consideration all of the following tactics except? (MD 7.11)
A) Operate from the roof, if practical. This allows for the LSR rescue operation to be initiated in conjunction with early ventilation of the roof bulkhead, if ordered by the IC.
B) If the 1st Roof Firefighter determines a LSR operation is not practical from the roof level, and the 2nd Roof Firefighter has not already reached the roof, the 1st Roof Firefighter should immediately direct that member to the apartment directly above the fire apartment.
C) In isolated buildings with a single stairway, the 2nd Roof Firefighter may descend the attack stairway to the apartment directly above the fire apartment.
D) In buildings with an open interior stairway, the IC may direct members or another unit to bring an available LSR (Squad, Rescue, or Engine Company), to the apartment directly above the fire apartment.

Answer 7

C - In buildings with two enclosed stairs, the 2nd Roof Firefighter may descend the evacuation stairway to the apartment directly above the fire apartment.

Question 8

8) Wind impact fire conditions can have a detrimental effect on Department operations. Members shall be aware of all of the following correct points except? (MD Add 3 2.1, 2.2.1, 3.2.2)
A) When wind impacted fire conditions exist in a Fireproof Multiple Dwelling (FPMD), the IC shall notify the Borough dispatcher so this information can be relayed to all responding units.
B) Eliminating the flow path, by keeping doors closed, is key to preventing a fire in a FPMD from becoming wind impacted. The one factor that cannot be controlled is an occupant in another apartment opening their apartment door, especially on the same side of the fire apartment.
C) Communication of wind impacted conditions is critical to the IC and company officers operating inside the building and this message must be acknowledged.
D) The IC must immediately relay information regarding wind impacted conditions to all members on the scene. In addition, the IC must determine if an alternate strategy for extinguishing the fire should be implemented, and if so, must communicate this to all officers and receive acknowledgement of the change to the regular SOP’s.

Answer 8

B - The one factor that cannot be controlled is an occupant in another apartment opening their apartment door, especially on the OPPOSITE side of the fire apartment.

Question 9

9) Which conditions below must be present for a wind impacted fire to occur? (MD Add 3 2.2)
1. Wind.
2. Fire in an apartment.
3. Failed or opened window in the fire room.
4. Building is over 6 stories.
5. Fire apartment door leading to the public hall left open or not fully closed.
6. Long public hallways.
7. An area of low pressure such as an opened stairwell door, or an opened apartment door on the opposite side of the public hallway from the fire apartment.
A) 1, 2, 3, 5, 7
B) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
C) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7
D) 1, 2, 5, 6, 7

Answer 9

A

Question 10

10) During company drill, members discussing wind impacted fires in FPMDs identified which incorrect statement made by the probationary firefighter? (MD Add 3 3.2.1, 3.2.2, 3.3.2)
A) The direction and speed at the street level is not a reliable indicator of wind conditions above the street level. It does not take high winds to dramatically increase fire conditions inside the building.
B) Wind behavior is not consistent or predictable. Wind impacted fires have occurred on upper and lower floors.
C) The flow path of any fire will be towards the stairwell, the control of the stairwell door is critical. This door should be maintained closed as much as possible.
D) Fire or smoke venting out of an open or failed window is a potentially dangerous, life threatening condition. This is the classic ventilation profile of a wind impacted fire.

Answer 10

D - Fire or smoke visible inside the fire apartment that is NOT venting out of an open or failed window is a potentially dangerous, life threatening condition. This is the classic ventilation profile of a wind impacted fire.

Question 11

11) In a HRFPMD, the Roof Firefighter in the apartment above has an important job and can be of great assistance in many situations. Which choice below would be incorrect for the IC to consider when leveraging this member’s duties? (MD Add 3 3.3.5, 4.2.1)
A) This member may be able to provide all of the size and layout of the fire apartment as well as visible fire or smoke coming from the fire apartment.
B) By keeping the apartment door closed and opening a window, the Roof Firefighter in the apartment above will be able to simulate how the wind will flow through the apartment.
C) The deployment of wind control devices (KO Curtains and Fire Blankets) will cause an immediate reduction in heat and intensity of the fire and a possible reduction of visibility in the fire area due to an increase in smoke production.
D) Fire may periodically vent around the sides and top of the deployed wind control device with the potential for auto-exposure to the floor(s) above. The deployment window must be closed after deployment of the device.

Answer 11

B - By keeping the apartment door OPEN and opening a window, the roof firefighter will be able to simulate how the wind will flow through the apartment.

Question 12

12) Some alternate strategies used at a wind impacted FPMD fire can have a detrimental effect on Department SOPs while others must be completed in a specific manner to be effective. Which choice below is incorrect? (MD Add 3 4.2.1, 4.2.2)
A) Advancing a hose line into the fire apartment after a WCD is deployed may increase steam and/or heat production.
B) The deployment window of a WCD must remain open after the WCD is positioned in case the curtain/blanket must be re-adjusted or an additional WCD is required.
C) In FPMDs, water applied to the main body of fire from a high rise nozzle (HRN), exterior stream, or flanking strategy can rapidly knock down the fire. Any exterior stream must be directed at the ceiling of the main fire area.
D) Any use of an exterior stream requires communications between the IC and Fire Sector Supervisor to ensure that all members on the fire floor are accounted for and in a safe location before the water is applied from the exterior.

Answer 12

B - Fire may periodically vent around the sides and top of the deployed WCD with the potential for auto-exposure to the floor(s) above. The deployment window must be closed after deployment of the device.

Question 13

13) Two Lieutenants discussing the use of Wind Control Devices (WCD) and the High-Rise Nozzle (HRN) at HRFPMD fires were correct in which statement made? (MD Add 3 4.2.2, 4.2.3)
A) The deployment of the HRN to combat a wind impacted fire greatly improves conditions in the public hallway and inside the apartment when the apartment door has been left closed.
B) If members are trapped and a wind impacted fire is preventing their removal, the use of a HRN or an exterior stream may protect members and allow for their safe removal.
C) WCDs and HRNs will be effective when deployed in windows of all HRFPMD buildings, regardless of balconies or window type.
D) Any type of façade or ledge that extends beyond the face of the building may be used to your advantage as WCDs can be effectively deployed from above the fire window via the facade or ledge above.

Answer 13

B - Note: Tests done by the Department concluded that the deployment of the HRN to combat a wind impacted fire greatly improves conditions in the public hallway and inside the apartment when the apartment door has been left open. - WCDs and HRNs may be difficult or impossible to deploy in windows of buildings with the following construction features:
 Balconies that extend beyond the building face and are in front of a vented fire window.
 Luxury high-rise multiple dwellings having non-operating windows, limited opening type windows or window walls. In these instances, glass removal will be a time- consuming operation requiring specialized equipment. In addition, falling glass will present a hazard.
 Any type of façade or ledge that extends beyond the face of the building may prevent WCDs from being effectively deployed if they are above or below the fire window.
Note: Members must be aware of the obstacles that buildings in their area present. Drills shall be conducted to determine which alternate strategies may be used based on the building characteristics.

Question 14

14) A flanking strategy may be used to control a wind impacted fire in a HRFPMD. When the door to the fire apartment has been left open all of the following actions should be taken except? (MD Add 3 4.2.4 A, B)
A) Enter an adjoining apartment to apply the hose stream to the fire room or fire apartment via a breached wall adjacent to the fire area, if this adjoining area can be accessed and occupied safely.
B) A small opening is made in the adjoining wall to the fire room as close to the exterior wall as possible, so as not to create a flow path and the hose line is operated into the opening to extinguish the fire.
C) Initially, the hole in the wall should be only large enough for the main stream tip of the nozzle to be placed into the opening allowing the stream to be directed at the ceiling of the fire room.
D) When the door to the fire apartment is open or closed, stretch the hose line to the adjoining apartment via the fire floor public hallway into the adjoining apartment to operate into the fire apartment.

Answer 14

D - A. Flanking attack when the door to the fire apartment has been left open:
 This option is available based on the location of the fire apartment, the location of a stairway closer to the selected apartment, and the interior hallway conditions.
 Enter an adjoining apartment to apply the hose stream to the fire room or fire apartment via a breached wall adjacent to the fire area, if this adjoining area can be accessed and occupied safely.
 Once access is obtained to the adjoining apartment, the door to that apartment must remain closed and the hoseline stretched to this adjoining apartment from the apartment below via an exterior window or balcony using a utility rope.

Question 15

15) The Incident Commander of a wind impacted fire in a HRFPMD has many options when considering alternate strategies. Which choice below contains incorrect information regarding strategy and tactics at these fires? (MD Add 3 4.5)
A) Experience has shown that conditions at a wind impacted fire will severely tax the resources of the 3rd to arrive Ladder Company.
B) Firefighters from the 3rd to arrive Ladder Company, Rescue or Squad Company, equipped with forcible entry tools, may be assigned to force entry into the apartment below the fire apartment in order to secure the ropes of the WCD and/or provide access for the HRN Engine Company
C) The IC must ensure that the Fire Sector Supervisor and/or units operating in the Fire Sector acknowledge that an alternate strategy is to be implemented.
D) The IC may consider implementing a combination of an exterior stream operation, flanking and WCD deployment where exterior reports and interior conditions indicate additional alternate strategies are required.

Answer 15

A - Experience has shown that conditions at a wind impacted fire will severely tax the resources of the 2nd to arrive ladder company.

Question 16

16) At a HRFPMD Fire, if the heat condition in the hallway is due to a wind impacted fire with the fire apartment door left open, each of the following should be adhered to except? (MD Add 3 5.1)
A) Members shall exit the public hallway immediately, and notify the IC and Engine Officer of conditions. Units on scene shall be notified that a wind impacted fire condition exists.
B) The IC shall implement the appropriate alternate strategy to gain control of the fire area to allow the forcible entry team to reach and close the fire apartment door.
C) A hose line shall be stretched and charged in the attack stairwell and the door to the stairwell remain closed until the alternate strategy has been implemented, and the IC receives confirmation that a WCD has been deployed over the target window(s) and secured in place and/or a High Rise Nozzle, Exterior Stream, or Flanking Strategy has controlled the fire.
D) In most circumstances, the Window Blanket would normally be the first tactic used due to its availability and time it takes to deploy.

Answer 16

D - Note: In most circumstances, the KO Curtain would normally be the first tactic used due to its availability and time it takes to deploy.

Question 17

17) At a wind impacted HRFPMD fire with the fire apartment door left open, once confirmation is received that an alternative strategy has been successfully implemented, a number of actions may be taken. Which action is correct? (MD Add 3 5.1)
A) Approval to enter the public hallway must be given by the IC, Operations Section Chief or Fire Sector Supervisor. The Ladder Officer and both members of the forcible entry team shall enter the public hallway to locate and gain control of the fire apartment door.
B) The Engine Officer shall be responsible for control and coordination on the hallway side of the door. Once the Ladder Officer locates the fire apartment, have the Engine Company advance the charged hose line to the fire apartment door.
C) The Ladder Company Officer at the controlled fire apartment door shall evaluate and communicate to the IC and/or Fire Sector Supervisor the conditions found. The IC and/or Fire Sector Supervisor shall determine if additional alternate strategies are required or whether to enter the fire apartment.
D) Once the decision has been made by the IC and/or Fire Sector Supervisor to enter the fire apartment, the Ladder Company must enter the apartment first followed closely by the Engine Company with the hose line.

Answer 17

C - Only the Ladder Officer and ONE member of the forcible entry team shall enter the public hallway to locate and gain control of the fire apartment door.

Question 18

18) At a wind impacted fire in a HRFPMD where the door to the fire apartment is found closed on arrival and window failure has occurred, each of the actions below should be followed with the exception of which choice? (MD Add 3 5.2)
A) The door to the fire apartment must remain closed and the IC shall implement the appropriate alternate strategy to gain control of the fire area.
B) The hose line shall be charged at the stairwell side of the door and not advanced into the hallway until the alternate strategy has been implemented, and the IC receives confirmation that a WCD has been deployed over the target window(s) and secured in place and/or a High Rise Nozzle, Exterior Stream, or Flanking Strategy has controlled the fire.
C) The Ladder Company Officer shall evaluate and communicate to the IC and/or Fire Sector Supervisor the conditions found. The IC and/or Fire Sector Supervisor shall determine if additional alternate strategies are required or whether to enter the fire apartment.
D) Once the hose line advances towards the interior fire area as directed by the Engine Officer, the fire apartment door shall be chocked open.

Answer 18

B - c. The hoseline can be advanced to that location and charged. apartment door

Question 19

19) At a HRFPMD fire where the door to the fire apartment is found closed on arrival, window failure has not occurred but size-up indicates there is a wind condition, a knowledgeable IC should follow all of the actions below except? (MD Add 3 5.3)
A) The hose line can be advanced to the fire apartment and charged. Additionally, the High Rise Nozzle shall be ordered to the point of operation upon arrival.
B) A Wind Control Device shall be in position above the fire apartment ready for immediate deployment. Never deploy a Wind Control Device over an intact window of the fire apartment.
C) Where unable to determine the target window from the exterior, the Thermal Imaging Camera (TIC) may be of assistance. The IC shall assign a member with a TIC to scan the windows of the fire apartment from street level.
D) The Ladder Officer and one member of the forcible entry team shall enter the fire apartment to perform a search for the interior fire area location while the other member stays at the fire apartment door inside the apartment, making sure the door remains controlled in the closed position, until the Ladder Officer requests the charged hose line be advanced into the fire apartment or requires other assistance.

Answer 19

B - Wind Control Device in position above the fire apartment ready for immediate deployment. As a precautionary tactic, the IC may decide to deploy a Wind Control Device over an intact window of the fire room/area.

Question 20

20) When faced with a known life hazard in either the public hallway or the fire apartment at a HRFPMD fire impacted by wind, the following actions shall be taken with the exception of which choice? (MD Add 3 5.4.1)
A) Notify the IC and all units of the location of the known life hazard.
B) If a decision is made to attempt a rescue, it shall only be attempted after alternate strategies have been implemented.
C) The IC must be notified prior to any rescue attempt and again when the victim is removed. In addition, the IC shall also be notified of the stairway from which operations will take place.
D) If the open fire apartment door is found in close proximity to the known life hazard in a public hallway, attempt to close the door and notify the IC if the fire apartment door has been controlled.

Answer 20

B - If a decision is made to attempt a rescue, it may be performed while alternate strategies are being implemented.

Question 21

1) Which choice below contains incorrect information regarding sound powered telephones (SPT)? (TB Tools 31 1.4, 2.4, 2.6, 4.1.3, 4.3.2)
A) All Battalions have been issued sound powered telephones.
B) Headsets are preferred for use throughout the NYC Transit system, due to the high noise levels that may be encountered.
C) In under river tubes, sound powered telephone connectors are found at standpipe outlets; approximately 200 feet apart.
D) Amplifiers increase the volume of verbal transmissions, and are always required to be used.

Answer 21

D - Amplifiers - increase the volume of verbal transmissions, but are not required to be used.

Question 22

2) Two BCs discussing the Department’s use of Sound Powered Telephones in the NYC Transit system were incorrect in which comment made? (TB Tools 31 3.4-4.1.2)
A) Unlike conventional telephones, sound powered phones do not emit a ringing or buzzing sound when communications are initiated. The member monitoring must constantly listen to the headset/handset in case another member is transmitting a message.
B) NYC Transit has installed two types of hard-wired SPT systems: Street to Station and Street to Tunnel. These systems will usually be interconnected and members should be able to communicate from one SPT system to another (e.g., from an under river tunnel system to a nearby station).
C) When transmitting messages, speak loudly and clearly, keeping the mouthpiece close to your face. Use the term “K” to indicate the end of your transmission.
D) A member using a headset in a standby position awaiting a transmission should cover the mouthpiece with his or her hand. This will reduce the background noise which might be transmitted through the wire.

Answer 22

B - There is usually no connection from one SPT system to another (e.g., from an
under river tunnel system to a nearby station).

Question 23

3) An effective BC should be familiar with the tools available to Department members for extinguishment of specialized fires. Which choice below is incorrect? (TB Tools 34 1.2, 2.3, 3.1, 3.2, 3.3, 3.4)
A) The most effective way to extinguish a combustible metal fire is with the use of a class D extinguisher because it absorbs heat and smothers the flames, cutting off oxygen.
B) The MET-L-X handheld extinguisher can be identified by the yellow label affixed to the extinguisher which states “MET-L-X FOR CLASS D (or symbol) FIRES ONLY.” The LITH-X handheld extinguisher has a label which states “LITH-X” but will not have a yellow identification label.
C) MET-L-X extinguishers are superior on very hot burning metal fires such as lithium; which is commonly found in batteries. It will also be effective when used to extinguish magnesium.
D) Lith-X does not cake or crust like MET-L-X but it does exclude oxygen and acts as a heat sink directing heat away from the metal, eventually extinguishing the fire.

Answer 23

C - 3.3 The LITH-X extinguishers are superior on a very hot burning metal fire such as lithium.
Lithium is commonly found in batteries.

Question 24

4) A knowledgeable BC should be able to identify which incorrect comment regarding Fire Department Class D extinguishers? (TB Tools 34 3.3, 4, 5 G, H)
A) LITH-X effectiveness on vertical surfaces is diminished as it does not cling to metal surfaces; it is necessary to cover the burning metal completely. The MET-L-X extinguisher is superior to the LITH-X extinguisher at adhering to hot, vertical surfaces.
B) The optimum distance to start extinguishment with a Class D extinguisher is approximately 10’ from the burning material. Discharge time is approximately 30 seconds.
C) Once control of the fire is established, the metal can be covered completely and safely from close range, applying a heavy layer usually at least 1 inch thick.
D) It is important that overhaul of the hazard is delayed until the fuel has cooled; this may take up to 1 hour.

Answer 24

D - It is important that overhaul of the hazard is delayed until the fuel has cooled; this
may take up to 30 minutes.

Question 25

5) One MET-L-X handheld extinguisher and one LITH-X handheld extinguisher have been issued to each of the following units except? (TB Tools 34 6.1)
A) Decon Engines B) Haz-Mat and HMTUs
C) Rescues and Squads D) SOC Support Ladders

Answer 25

A - One MET-L-X handheld extinguisher and one LITH-X handheld extinguisher have been
issued to the following units.
 Haz-Mat
 Rescue
 HMTUs
 Squad
 SOC Support Ladders
 Purple “K” Units
Note: Incident Commanders may need to special call additional units to ensure proper
extinguishment capabilities, depending on conditions.

Question 26

6) Features of the Blitzfire Oscillating Monitor are accurately portrayed in all choices below except? (TB Tools 38 2.2, 2.3, 4.3, 4.4, 6.3, 7.3)
A) Vertical stream range is 10 to 86 degrees above horizontal. Horizontal stream range when stationary is +/- 20 degrees either side of centerline.
B) The oscillation feature provides an automatic 20, 30 or 40 degree sweep, and can easily be overridden for manual operation.
C) The Monitor offers a choice of a master stream fog nozzle or stacked smooth bore tips. However, foam nozzles shall not be used with the Blitzfire.
D) A minimum flow rate of 175 gpm is required for proper oscillating operation. The monitor should not be operated at more than 175 psi inlet pressure with any type of solid stream or fog nozzle.

Answer 26

C - The Blitzfire monitor combined with the Max-Force nozzle can be used to apply
finished firefighting foam to a fire or spill.

Question 27

7) During a recent multi-unit drill, the on-duty BC was able to identify which incorrect comment made about the Blitzfire Oscillating Monitor? (TB Tools 38 7.1. 7.5 A, 8.1, 8.2, 9.1)
A) Units issued the Blitzfire Oscillating Monitor, and trained in its use, include Foam Tanker Engine Companies, Haz-Mat Technician Engine Companies, Haz-Mat Company 1 and Satellite Engine Companies.
B) The safest method of restraining the Blitzfire monitor is to use the tie down strap. When utilized, keep the entire length of the strap as close to the ground as possible.
C) A stream shaper should be used when operating the monitor with solid stream tips. Although manufactured with an integrated stream shaper, supplementing the integrated stream shaper with a stream shaper attached to the solid stream tip will reduce stream break up and provide better stream reach.
D) The supply inlets of the Blitzfire monitor are 2 ½” and they should be supplied with two 2 ½” supply lines; although one supply line may be used if absolutely necessary.

Answer 27

D - The supply inlet of the Blitzfire monitor is 2 ½” and it should be supplied with one 2 ½”
supply line.

Question 28

1) The use of Positive Pressure Fans (PPFs) to initiate positive pressure ventilation at a fire is a tactic worthy of consideration. Of the following choices, which is incorrect? (AUC 349 3.1, 6.2, 6.3)
A) High Rise units and Ladder Companies designated as Ventilation Support Units carry two PPFs each.
B) PPF equipped units will only be dispatched to a fire or emergency when special called by the IC.
C) In a high-rise building, the attack stairwell is the first consideration for pressurization and will be pressurized upon the order of the IC.
D) Stairwell pressurization will not be initiated until authorized by the Incident Commander. All members shall be notified that PPF operations are commencing and communication with all units shall be maintained during the pressurization operation.

Answer 28

B - These PPF equipped units shall be dispatched on a signal 10-77 or these units can
be special called as needed by an IC.

Question 29

2) During a standard “positive pressure ventilation” operation at a high-rise fire, all of the following tactics would be considered correct with the exception of which choice? (AUC 349 7.2, 7.3)
A) The fan shall be properly positioned in the stairwell. One fan can provide the proper pressure in the stairwell up to 10 stories depending on conditions, and two fans will pressurize a 40 story building when properly positioned.
B) The pressure delivered to the attack stair by the PPF will be great enough to allow for up to three stairwell doors to be open and pressurization to remain effective.
C) In buildings over 40 stories in height, the IC should consider special calling an additional Ventilation Support Group.
D) If the fire floor is above the 10th floor or additional pressures are required to maintain the stairwell free of smoke, a second fan must be brought to three floors below the fire floor and set up.

Answer 29

B - The pressure delivered to the attack stair by the PPF will be great enough to allow for
up to three stairwell doors to be open and pressurization to remain effective.
However, all members should understand that keeping as many doors closed as
possible is the goal. Members are permitted to move from one area to another as long
as they remember to close the stairwell door behind them.

Question 30

3) Sequential ventilation can be carried out in a high rise building floor by floor if smoke or CO contamination occurs on multiple floors. Additionally, PPFs can be used to mechanically ventilate a large structure/area. Which method of accomplishing these goals is incorrectly stated below? (AUC 349 8.2, 9.2, 9.3)
A) During sequential ventilation, start at the highest point of contamination and work towards the bottom of the building. For taller buildings additional fans may be required in the attack stairwell to achieve adequate pressures.
B) PPF exhaust should be vented to the exterior if possible to reduce the introduction of CO into the building; electric fans can also be implemented in this situation. If CO levels are in the 0 to 60 ppm range, gasoline powered PPFs will not significantly reduce those levels due to the CO emissions produced by the fans.
C) When using positive pressure to mechanically ventilate a large structure/area where the seat of the fire is determined and the fire is controlled by a sprinkler or handline, look for an exhaust opening in that area; the higher the exhaust opening the better.
D) Fans blowing fresh exterior air into the structure have shown to be 75% more efficient then negative pressure ventilation, which uses fans to pull smoke and contaminants from within a structure to the outside air.

Answer 30

A - Start at the LOWEST point of contamination and work

towards the top of the building.

Question 31

4) A knowledgeable BC should be able to identify which incorrect comment below referring to Photovoltaic (PV) systems? (AUC 351 4.1, 4.2, 5.1-5.3)
A) “Stand-alone” PV systems operate independent of the utility grid. “On-grid” connected systems utilize grid-tie inverters that are integrated with the public utility.
B) “Stand-mounted” PV systems are typically used with larger solar panel systems.
C) “Flush-mounted” PV arrays are commonly used with small solar arrays and on peaked roofs because the structural design cannot support large ones.
D) Stand-mounted arrays may be difficult or impossible to detect during nighttime hours.

Answer 31

D - Integrated, as well as flush-mounted arrays, may be difficult or
impossible to detect during nighttime hours.

Question 32

5) During drill on PV systems, the senior BC in a busy Manhattan Battalion had to correct a newly promoted Lieutenant who made which erroneous comment? (AUC 351 6.1, 6.4, 6.6)
A) Firefighters must never cut any wires associated with a PV array.
B) The use of rooftop disconnects is the only reliable way to ensure PV arrays become de-energized and safe at an operation.
C) Using water on energized PV system components is a decision that should only be made by the IC after careful size-up. If decided upon to use water as an extinguishing agent, hose streams should not be applied directly onto energized PV system components; rather, a fog nozzle utilized from a distance, and set at a 30 degree spray pattern, is recommended.
D) The removal of modules by firefighters is not an option. The Utility Company and licensed solar power installer/electrician (if contact information is available) should be requested to respond through the dispatcher.

Answer 32

B - The use of rooftop disconnects should not be
relied upon since they are mainly installed in order to perform maintenance on the
system.

Question 33

6) Members discussing Department operations involving PV systems were accurate in a number of comments made. In which statement below was a member incorrect? (AUC 351 6.6, 6.7, 7, 8.2)
A) Incipient fires can be extinguished using Class C (dry chemical) portable fire extinguishers. Advanced fires may dictate the limited use of water in a fog pattern from a safe distance.
B) Lithium ion batteries contain flammable liquid and may burn rapidly, igniting nearby combustibles. The use of dry chemical or foam extinguishing agents has proven to be effective on battery fires.
C) PV systems do not produce electricity at night; however, lightning flashes occurring at night can energize the PV system. Auxiliary lighting equipment and apparatus headlights are also powerful enough to generate dangerous voltage from a PV array.
D) When electrical shutdown is required, request the response of the appropriate Utility Company for their expertise and to enhance the overall safety of the operation. Also, consider calling the PV installers, whose contact number information is often found on key component equipment.

Answer 33

B -  Auxiliary lighting equipment and apparatus headlights are not powerful enough to
generate dangerous voltage from a PV array.

Question 34

7) Which choice below contains incorrect information regarding the Department’s “DANGER DO NOT ENTER” tape? (AUC 360 1.1 - 2.3)
A) The tape is used by the Incident Commander (IC) to designate areas which are dangerous to FDNY members and should not be entered e.g., Collapse Zone.
B) The tape is red with black lettering and is carried by all Engines and Ladders as well as Battalion vehicles.
C) When used, the IC shall make a transmission via handie-talkie alerting units that a danger zone has been established.
D) Units are reminded that the danger zone should not be entered except to save life or when authorized by the IC or Sector Chief. This applies at all times, to all members, during all stages of the operation.

Answer 34

B - The tape is red with black lettering

and is carried in all Battalion and Division vehicles.

Question 35

8) When encountering displaced pets/pet remains at the scene of a fire or emergency, the FDNY IC shall be aware of all of the following instructions except the incorrect information in which choice? (AUC 361 2.1-2.3)
A) Protect/secure the pet with a responsible party (owner, neighbor, building representative, NYPD, etc.) if possible, and/or cover the pet remains and keep them out of view of the public and media.
B) If reunification with the owner is not possible, the FDNY IC shall contact the Animal Care Center (ACC) through the respective borough dispatcher.
C) If the fire or emergency has triggered a New York City Emergency Management (NYCEM) response, and the owner/responsible party has not been contacted, the FDNY IC shall inform the NYCEM responder that a displaced pet/pet remains have been discovered and their location(s). The NYCEM representative will then be responsible to facilitate notification to the ACC.
D) ACC will be notified to respond and attempt to make positive contact with the owner for reunification. If reunification is not possible at the scene, Fire Department members may take possession of the pet/pet remains and notify ACC of the location of the firehouse/facility to which the pet/pet remains may be reclaimed by the owner.

Answer 35

D - If reunification is not possible at the scene, ACC is responsible to take
possession of the displaced pet/pet remains, remove them to their facility, and attempt
further contact with the owner.

Question 36

9) An Exterior Insulating Finish System (EIFS) is a lightweight, synthetic, cladding system found on building exteriors. Which choice below contains incorrect information regarding EIFS? (AUC 362 1.2, 1.3 - 1.5)
A) It consists of three layers: the innermost, insulation layer composed of foam plastic insulation; the middle, reinforcing fiberglass mesh; and the outermost, finish-coat layer (usually a cement-based polymer). The system can be glued or mechanically fastened to the exterior wall of the structure.
B) The component of primary concern during firefighting operations is the outermost sheathing layer which should be considered combustible since it is essentially a thermoplastic, styrofoam material (typically ¼” to 8” thick).
C) EIFS buildings are especially vulnerable to adjacent outside fires (car, rubbish, etc.) and ignition sources found during the construction phase (portable heaters, salamanders, torches, welding equipment, etc.).
D) The rapidity of fire spread is dependent on the thickness of the finish-coat layer, the thickness of the innermost layer, (the FPI), and the integrity of the EIFS installation. EIFS fires often extend via a poorly maintained or damaged finish-coat layer.

Answer 36

D - The component of primary concern during firefighting operations is the innermost
sheathing layer of Foam Plastic Insulation (FPI). The FPI layer should be considered
combustible since it is essentially a thermoplastic, styrofoam material (typically ¼” to 8”
thick).

Question 37

10) Of the following tactics which may be employed when facing a fire in a building with an EIFS, which one is not entirely correct? (AUC 362 2.1-2.4)
A) The first-arriving Engine should consider using the deck gun for a rapid attack and knockdown.
B) Initial handlines should be positioned for both an interior and exterior attack on the fire. Depending on conditions, a fire may be quickly knocked down from the exterior before the interior attack commences.
C) After complete size-up and when conditions dictate, a handline should be dedicated to exterior extinguishment. If possible, the number of lengths stretched should be enough to cover all sides of the building.
D) All buildings with EIFS require the use of a 2½” handline to extinguish burning EIFS. A 1¾” handline shall never be used to extinguish an EIFS fire on the exterior of a structure.

Answer 37

D - A building 3 stories or higher, or a large area
building, may require the use of a 2½” handline. A 1¾” handline may be sufficient for a
smaller private dwelling.

Question 38

11) Of the following choices, which contains incorrect information regarding EIFS and Department operations? (AUC 362 2.7, 2.8, 3.2)
A) All EIFS buildings shall be entered into CIDS. The specific location of the EIFS should be outlined in the CIDS entry.
B) Upon transmission of signal 10-75 for a fire in an EIFS building, an additional Engine and Ladder shall be special called. In all cases the special called Ladder shall be a Tower Ladder.
C) A 2 ½” handline equipped with the cockloft nozzle can be used to apply water to an exterior fire that is above the reach of ground-based streams. One tip of the cockloft nozzle should be capped with a 1 ½” shut off for this tactic.
D) When using the cockloft nozzle to apply water to an exterior fire, it can provide a vertical reach of up to two floors. The nozzle should be extended approximately 3 feet from the window sill and then operated at a slight angle toward the building.

Answer 38

B - The special called Ladder shall be a Tower Ladder if

one is not assigned on the first alarm assignment.

Question 39

12) Depending on tip size and nozzle pressure, the vertical reach (from the tip of the nozzle) from each of the appliances below is accurately portrayed in all choices except? (AUC 362 3.1)
A) Tower Ladder Monitor 150’
B) Engine Deck Gun 130’
C) Multiversal Nozzle 110’
D) Satellite Monitor 130’

Answer 39

A - 135’

Question 40

1) A newly promoted BC should know which choice below is not in accordance with Department procedure when unit citations are awarded by the Board of Merit? (Regs 23.1.5)
A) Presentation of award shall be by the Division Commander responsible for administrative efficiency of the Battalion wherein the unit is located.
B) The Battalion Chief on duty shall be present at the presentation.
C) The citation shall be presented at a roll call.
D) The report, describing the duty performed by the unit, shall be read by the Battalion Chief present.

Answer 40

D The report, describing the duty performed by the unit, shall be read by the chief officer who is presenting the award.

Question 41

2) Two recently promoted BCs discussing policy and procedure regarding meritorious acts were able to identify which incorrect statement? (Regs 23.1.6, 23.2.1, 23.2.3)
A) When a member has performed duty at a fire or emergency on his own initiative, prior to the arrival of Department units, such act shall be classified as voluntary duty and will not be deemed a meritorious act.
B) Meritorious acts shall be reported immediately after occurrence to the Deputy Chief at the scene. If no Deputy Chief is present, the Officer in Command shall notify the dispatcher of the meritorious act, who will notify the Deputy Chief and the Deputy Chief shall respond. Meritorious acts not reported at the scene may not receive consideration for an award.
C) Upon return to quarters, reports of meritorious acts, embracing all pertinent information, shall be promptly prepared, signed and forwarded by the company officer for members below the rank of Lieutenant and by the Battalion Chief for acts performed by company officers.
D) When any member performs duty, which may be classified as a meritorious act, at a location where no officer of the Department was present, and to which there was no subsequent Fire Department response, all pertinent details of action taken shall be conveyed, as soon as practicable to the officer on duty with member’s assigned unit.

Answer 41

A - When a member has performed duty at a fire or an emergency on his own initiative, prior to the arrival of Department units, such act shall not be classified as voluntary duty. If worthy of official recognition, it shall be deemed as a meritorious act.

Question 42

3) Findings of the Board of Merit may not sit well with some units. Which choice below contains incorrect information regarding the meritorious acts and appeals process? (Regs 23.2.5, 23.4.1. 23.4.2, 23.5.1)
A) All meritorious acts, voluntary duty and unit citation reports should be forwarded to the Board of Merit not later than 30 days from the date of the act. To receive consideration for an award, all reports of meritorious acts for the same operation shall be forwarded in one package.
B) Appeals shall not be considered unless submitted within three months after official promulgation of awards on a Department Order.
C) Appeals shall not be considered unless the appeal clearly discloses new evidence or additional facts relative to the act or work performed by applicant which are not included in the original report considered by the Board of Merit.
D) Meritorious acts at fires or emergencies involving more than one member, which cannot be classified and limited to a unit citation, shall be recorded by forwarding individual reports citing outstanding acts and corroborating information pertaining to each member. All reports for the same operation are to be forwarded at one time.

Answer 42

B - Appeals from findings of the Board of Merit shall not be considered unless submitted within thirty days after official promulgation of awards on a Department Order.

Question 43

4) While working a 6X9 tour in the borough of Queens on a Friday night, you receive a response ticket for an administrative assignment at a local restaurant/bar. Upon arrival, you find an overcrowded condition. Which action below is not in accordance with Department policy? (BISP Ch 5 Ref 9.5 2.2, 2.4, 2.5, 3.2)
A) A summons shall be served for Violation of the Law.
B) A forthwith violation order (VO) shall be issued to reduce the number of occupants.
C) If conditions are deemed hazardous or the occupancy load cannot readily be reduced to the legal limit, a vacate order should be considered.
D) Check the FDNY Public Assembly Permit as well as the posted occupancy load. (They should agree.) If no Public Assembly Permit is present, issue a forthwith violation order (VO).

Answer 43

D - 3.2 Check the FDNY Public Assembly Permit as well as the posted occupancy load. (They should agree.) If no Public Assembly Permit is present, issue an FDNY Summons (19).

Question 44

5) While discussing overcrowding enforcement with the Deputy Chief, the newly appointed Battalion Chief made an incorrect comment which can be found in which choice? (BISP Ch 5 Ref 9.5 3.1, 4.5, 4.8, 4.11)
A) A cabaret or social club of any size must have at least 20 Sq. Ft. of space per person.
B) Every room or space that is an assembly occupancy shall have the occupant load of the room or space posted in a conspicuous place, near the main exit or exit access doorway from the room or space.
C) Where a building contains two or more occupancies, the means of egress requirements shall apply to each portion of the building based on the occupancy of that space. Where two or more occupancies utilize portions of the same means of egress system, those egress components shall meet the more stringent requirements of all occupancies that are served.
D) The occupant load of a mezzanine level with egress onto a room or area below shall be added to that room or area’s occupant load, and the capacity of the exits shall be designed for the total occupant load established.

Answer 44

A - A cabaret or social club of any size must have at least 10 Sq. Ft. of space per person.

Question 45

6) Officers shall cause the inspection of steel plated buildings to determine if they present firefighting problems, require surveillance and to discover violations. Of the following choices, which is incorrect? (BISP Ch 5 Ref 9.7 1-4)
A) Forward a DOB Referral Report marked as High Priority where doubt exists as to the legality of an alteration utilizing steel plates.
B) A mandatory sprinkler recommendation should be submitted; alternatives to sprinklers are not considered suitable for this type of alteration.
C) A partial sprinkler system shall never be recommended as it is not considered suitable for this type of alteration.
D) A sign shall be provided (not less than 12” x 15”), posted at or near the entrance to the building, giving the location of steel plating in legible red lettering on a white background

Answer 45

C - A partial sprinkler system may be recommended if:
• It will provide sufficient protection to the steel plated area and,
• A fire in the un-sprinklered sections of the building would not adversely affect steel plated area.

Question 46

7) When a building with steel playing is identified, the administrative company should complete and submit a CIDS Card via the eCids application on the intranet. The CIDS Card should specify all of the following except? (BISP Ch 5 Ref 9.7 5)
A) Location of the Steel Plating.
B) Areas covered by the Sprinkler System.
C) Location of the sign.
D) Location of shut-offs and any other pertinent information.

Answer 46

C - Administrative company should complete and submit a CIDS Card via the ecids application on the intranet. CIDS Card should specify:
• Location of Steel Plating.
• Areas covered by Sprinkler System.
• Location of shut offs and any other pertinent information

Question 47

1) For an offshore display of fireworks where the size of the largest mortar is 12”, what should be the minimum secured radius to the property line of an institutional occupancy?
A) 1000 feet B) 1200 feet C) 2400 feet D) 800 feet

Answer 47

B - Up to 10 1,000

12 1,200

Question 48

2) The Commissioner may require Department personnel and equipment to monitor the delivery, unloading, loading, and discharge of fireworks, and post-display site safety measures upon a determination that the presence of such monitoring is in the interest of public safety. All of the following are correct with the exception of which choice?
A) No fireworks display shall commence until approval has been given by the Department representatives on the scene. Department representatives may delay commencement of the display, or suspend or cancel the display, upon a determination that such action is in the interest of public safety, by reason of weather or other site conditions.
B) In no case shall a fireworks display commence or continue when wind velocity exceeds 25 miles per hour.
C) The representative of the fireworks contractor overseeing the conduct of the display shall provide a command post from which the fireworks display may be monitored by Department representatives and a representative of the fireworks contractor responsible for the conduct of the display.
D) The maximum height of fireworks discharge shall be determined by the United States Federal Aviation Administration for each display. In no case shall any shell break at a height greater than 1,200 feet above sea level.

Answer 48

B - In no case shall a display commence or continue when wind velocity exceeds 30 miles per hour.

Question 49

4) A competent BC with knowledge of Fire Prevention issues should be able to identify which incorrect comment?
A) The illegal storage and use of LPG is enforced with an immediate summons and confiscation through the vendor or FDNY.
B) The connecting and disconnecting of LPG containers with a capacity greater than 16.4 ounces shall be conducted by a person holding a Certificate of Fitness.
C) Torch operations using LPG containers with a capacity greater than 16.4 ounces LPG shall be performed by a person holding a Certificate of Fitness.
D) 20lb LPG containers shall only be used in a cellar, basement, pit or other area below grade when under the personal supervision of a person holding a Certificate of Fitness.

Answer 49

D - LPG containers shall not be used in a cellar, basement, pit or other area below grade where heavier-than-air gas might collect

Question 50

5) Two BC’s discussing a Fire Prevention matter had to confer with the BISP Hotline because of which incorrect choice?
A) LPG container storage in Group R-2 and R-3 occupancies shall not exceed four containers per dwelling unit; each container having a capacity not exceeding 16.4 ounces of LPG.
B) It is unlawful to store, handle or use LPG containers on the roof of any building with a capacity greater than 16.4 ounces, except as authorized by the Commissioner.
C) In Group E and I occupancies, portable LPG containers are allowed to be used for research purposes; such containers shall not be used in classrooms and shall not exceed 16.4 ounces of LPG.
D) Portable LPG containers may be brought into a Group A occupancy on a temporary basis for use in conducting a demonstration, or in connection with a trade show or other public exhibition.

Answer 50

B - Store, handle or use in, or bring or allow into, any non-residential building, any LPG container with a capacity greater than 16.4 ounces LPG, except as authorized by the Commissioner.
7. Store LPG containers on the roof of any building

Question 51

6) In which choice below would an outdoor storage facility for LPG containers not be in compliance with the Rules of the City of New York?
A) Not more than 54 square feet in area and protected from vehicle impact.
B) Located in a well ventilated area. There shall be a minimum clearance of ten (10) feet from any surrounding walls more than eight (8) feet high on at least three sides of the outdoor storage facility.
C) Directly accessible from the street or a fire protected passage with a minimum 2 hour rating located inside of a building or other structure.
D) No outdoor storage facility shall be located within 50 feet of any building occupied as a multiple dwelling.

Answer 51

C - Directly accessible from the street. LPG containers being delivered to or taken from an outdoor storage location shall not be brought into or through any building or other structure;

Question 52

1) According to Brannigan, which feature of high rise construction is not entirely correct? (Brannigan Ch 11)
A) Modern high-rise construction usually utilizes the interior core of the building to take up the greater part of the wind load.
B) Some tall high-rises are of tube construction where the wind load is taken principally on the exterior; this does not eliminate the use of a central core for utilities and services.
C) The “principal smoke moving mechanism” in high-rise buildings is the pressure differential between the inside and outside of the building.
D) High-Rise buildings with concrete floors and precast concrete or imitation concrete panel walls may have a serious problem of perimeter extension.

Answer 52

C - Smoke movement in High-Rise Buildings
- The principal smoke moving mechanism is the thermal energy of fire.
There are other mechanisms which can affect the movem

Question 53

2) In high-rise buildings, smoke movement and wind can drastically affect firefighting. Which choice below contains incorrect information? (Brannigan Ch 11)
A) When atmospheric temperature is constantly decreasing as height increases, the condition is called “lapse.”
B) If there is a layer of air warmer than the air below, the condition is called “pause” and the later is called the “inversion layer.”
C) Wind exerts a pressure on the windward side of the building and a suction on the leeward side.
D) Wind blowing against a building splits about 3/4 of the way up with the upper portion flowing over the roof and the lower portion flowing downward, forming a vortex next to the building; the wind decreases in velocity as it flows downward.

Answer 53

D - Wind blowing against a building seems to split about 2/3 of the way up the building. –The upper portion flows up and over the roof.

Question 54

3) Stack Effect can facilitate or hamper fire operations. Of the following choices, all are correct regarding Stack Effect except? (Brannigan Ch 11)
A) Stack Effect is most significant in cold climates because of the great difference between the inside and outside temperatures.
B) Stack Effect also occurs, with opposite airflow direction, when the outside temperature is greater than the inside temperature; this condition is much less significant because the temperature difference is not as great.
C) In the winter, the greatest air flow will be at the top of the building and the greatest pressure will be on the first floor.
D) In the summer, Stack Effect is reversed and the flow of air is downward; this is not as extreme as in the winter because the temperature differential is usually much less, but it can still be serious.

Answer 54

C - 5. The pressure increases floor by floor and is greatest at the top.

Question 55

4) According to Brannigan, which choice below contains correct information regarding “truss” construction? (Brannigan Ch 12)
A) The top chord of a truss is in tension and the bottom chord of a truss is in compression.
B) When a truss is cantilevered out, beyond the point of support the compression is in the top chord and the tension is in the bottom chord.
C) Some long span steel trusses are designed with a steel cable as the bottom chord; this cold drawn cable has little inherent fire resistance and can totally fail at 800 degrees F.
D) Steel trusses fail suddenly; Wood trusses are inclined to sag, this giving some warning to the fire forces.

Answer 55

B - 1. The bottom chord of a truss is under tension.

• A tension member is like a rope—one break precipitates failure.
  2. The top chord of a truss is under compression:

Question 56

5) A BC instructing her members on the hazards of buildings with truss floors and roofs has to address which incorrect statement made by a new member? (Brannigan Ch 12)
A) Truss floor buildings give no outward indication of their presence.
B) A “trussloft” has hazards similar to a cockloft.
C) During a fire, the presence of truss floors may be disclosed by smoke showing through the wall at the floor line; this is more likely in a brick veneered building.
D) The truss void represents a large volume in which explosive carbon monoxide can accumulate. Carbon monoxide has a flammability range of 12.5% to 74% and an ignition temperature of 1128 degrees Fahrenheit.

Answer 56

C - During a fire the presence of truss floors may be disclosed by smoke showing through the wall at the floor line. This is less likely in a brick veneered building.

Question 57

6) Regarding general safety for Fire Department members working in buildings of lightweight construction, which choice is incorrect? (Brannigan Ch 12)
A) Steel trusses should be cooled with hose streams from a safe location; do not worry about wetting contents or throwing water through smoke.
B) Fire rated suspended ceiling panels provide no fire resistance but do provide a void to hide fire and store carbon monoxide.
C) When operating under a steel grid of a suspended ceiling, personnel should stay close to walls or other internal barriers such as shelving.
D) If caught in a fallen steel grid of a suspended ceiling, the best procedure might be to roll onto the stomach and wriggle out.

Answer 57

D - If caught, the best procedure might be to roll onto the back and wriggle out. There is less potential for the SCBA to be caught in the grid.