CLASS #10-31719 Comm Man Chap#11,FFP–MD Pgs 1-80, AUC’s230,344,345&346,Brannigan Chap8,TB–Tools#2,3,#7 only DS#17, 18&19,BISP–FireCode Ch8,Ch34–Ref.9.3,9.4 DC Pat Sheridan

Question 1

1. It is important for Battalion Chiefs to be aware of the different construction features found in OLTs and NLTs. Which choice is incorrect concerning these buildings? (Sec. 2.1, 2.2)
   (A) In OLTs, most of the stairway enclosures are fire retarded.
   (B) In NLTs built after 1901 and before 1916, the interior stairs are fireproof and enclosed in
   partitions of fireproof construction. All interior walls and furred partitions are fire stopped at each story.
   (C) In OLTs, the stairway to the cellar is located inside the building, usually beneath the interior stairway.
   (D) In NLTs built after 1901 and before 1916, the cellar ceiling is fireproof and unpierced, and the entrance to the cellar is via exterior stairs.
   (E) In NLTs built after 1901 and before 1916, steel columns are generally used to support steel “I” beams.

Answer 1

E
• Steel I beams were introduced to carry floor joists which couldn’t span the enlarged floor areas. These steel beams generally were supported by masonry walls.

Question 2

2. A major concern of an Incident Commander at a top floor fire in a Non-fireproof (NFP) MD is the size of building and the extent of the cockloft. Which choice is correct concerning these features? (Sec. 2.3, 2.4, 5.9.9)
   (A) NLTs built between 1916 and 1929 had floors broken up into areas of 2500 square feet or less. These dividing walls only go as high as the ceiling of the top floor.
   (B) NFP MDS built after 1929 required the area enclosed by fire walls to be 2500 square feet or less.
   (C) Between 1930 and 1940, firewalls were required to be carried to the top of the roof boards. (D) In “H” type MDs, some of the cocklofts are as much as six feet deep.

Answer 2

A

To avoid being required to be built of fireproof construction, the floor areas were broken up into areas of 2,500 square feet or less. This means that between some apartments there are brick or fireproof partitions which effectively limit the horizontal spread of fire. However, these dividing walls only go as high as the ceiling of the top floor.
2.4 NFP MULTIPLE DWELLINGS BUILT ON OR AFTER 4/18/1929 (Figure 6)
The size of the area to be enclosed by fire walls is 3,000 square feet.
Between 1930 and 1940, firewalls were required to be carried to the underside of the roof boards, and after 1940, to the top of the roof boards.-
-Some cocklofts are as much as four feet deep.

Question 3

3. A Battalion Chief arriving at the scene of a fire in an OLT would correct all but which engine operation? (Sec. 3.2.11, 4.1, 4.2, 4.3, 4.5, 4.7)
   (A) At a serious cellar fire, the 1st hoseline remained on the first floor while the 2nd hoseline backed the 1st hoseline up. The 3rd hoseline was stretched into the cellar via the rear outside entrance to extinguish the fire.
   (B) At a large volume fire in a store, a 2 1⁄2” hoseline was stretched to the store, and a 2nd hoseline stretched immediately to the floor above.
   (C) At a stairway fire, the 1st hoseline was stretched up an extension ladder placed over a burned out stairway, and the 2nd hoseline followed up behind the 1st hoseline to finish up extinguishing operations and to serve as protection for members advancing the first line.
   (D) At a fire in a light shaft that was about to extend across the shaft to Exposure 2, the 1st hoseline was stretched immediately to the top floor of Exposure 2.

Answer 3

B

The second hoseline stretched should be advanced into the cellar by way of the front or rear entrance to the cellar
For example, at a fire in an Old Law Tenement it is often necessary to stretch the second or third line into Exposure 2 or 4 because fire has extended, or is about to extend, across the narrow shaft or shafts between buildings.
4.3.1 Store fires in OLTs may involve a large amount of combustible material. A 2 1⁄2” line should be stretched for large volume fires and a second line stretched to the entrance hallway. When assured that the second line is not needed on the first floor, it may be advanced to the floor above the fire.

Question 4

4. Ensuring that there are adequate resources requested to safely operate at and extinguish fires is a responsibility of the Incident Commander. Which choice is incorrect concerning these requests for additional resources? (Sec. 3.4.6, 4.8.7, 5.2.3)
   (A) For a fire in an OLT, special call an extra engine and truck for fire on two floors. Transmit a 2nd alarm if progress is not made on at least one floor in a short period of time.
   (B) Because of the severe life hazard, height, area, and combustible construction in an “H type” MD, a 2nd alarm shall be transmitted when it is anticipated that two lines will be required.
   (C) If fire is in a shaft in an OLT extending into an exposure, transmit a 2nd alarm. If fire is extending into two exposures, transmit a 3rd alarm.
   (D) At an “H type” NLT, if two floors are involved, or at extensive cockloft fires, it will generally be necessary to transmit a 2nd alarm.
   (E) When notified by the Roof FF that there are party wall balconies in the rear of an OLT, the IC should consider special calling an additional ladder company.

Answer 4

B
Additional units: Because of the severe life hazard, height, area and combustible construction of these buildings, an additional engine company and ladder company (beyond a full 1st alarm assignment) should be called for a medium fire condition. That is, when it is anticipated that two lines will be required.

Question 5

5. Steel, when used as a structural element, presents several concerns. Which one is correctly described? (Sec. 5.2.3, 5.2.6)
   (A) Steel, when heated, expands and substantial elongation can occur at a fire. This elongation can cause a wall to bulge, move, or even collapse, if the steel is set within the wall.
   (B) Steel columns are vertical structural members designed in an “I” shape; they are also known as channel rails.
   (C) When channel rails are located in the inner framework of a building, they will begin at the cellar floor and terminate at the top floor.
   (D) Steel girders are horizontal structural members designed in an “H” shape. These beams are also known as “H” beams and will transmit fire, heat or smoke horizontally into adjoining areas.

Answer 5

A
 Steel columns are vertical structural members designed in an “H” shape; they are also known as channel rails. When located in the inner framework of a building, may extend from the first floor up into the roof space or cockloft area (Figure 8).
 Steel girders are horizontal structural members designed in an “I” shape; they are also known as “I” beams. I” beams will transmit fire, heat or smoke horizontally into adjoining areas

Question 6

6. Upon arrival at a store fire on the 1st floor of a 6 story “H type” building at 0300 hours, several actions were taken. Which one was incorrect? (Sec. 5.7.1, 5.7.2)
   (A) The 1st Engine Company operated their deckpipe into the store momentarily to protect civilians on the fire escape.
   (B) When it became obvious that the 1st hoseline could control the fire in the store, the 2nd hoseline was advanced to the 2nd floor.
   (C) The 2nd Ladder Company checked the area above the store on the 2nd floor for vertical extension of fire, keeping in mind that the floor above the 1st floor is concrete and rated at a two hour fire resistance.
   (D) Remembering that fire may extend upward bypassing intermediate floors, you assigned the Rescue Company to initially check the top floor and cockloft, and later assigned a special called Ladder Company to do the same.
   (E) Due to the heavy fire and smoke in the store and numerous civilians on the fire escape, a 2nd alarm Engine Company was ordered to stretch a hoseline to protect that means of egress.

Answer 6

C

Floor above the store(s) is constructed of wood joists.

Question 7

7. You arrive at a cellar fire in an “H type” Multiple Dwelling and see heavy smoke issuing from the cellar. Which action or thought is correct? (Sec. 5.8.1, 5.8.2)
   (A) Due to fireproof construction throughout the cellar, the necessity to examine the cockloft for extension does not exist.
   (B) The 1st hoseline shall be stretched through the front door on the first floor and remain at this location, unless the fire is minor.
   (C) The probability of cellar apartments is very low due to cellar apartments not being legal in Multiple Dwellings.
   (D) If an interior attack is very arduous for the Engine Company, a rear window can be used for attacking the fire.
   (E) Water damage and large quantities of stock in the cellar are problems commonly encountered in these occupancies.

Answer 7

D
-Roof firefighter to roof for vent and examination. This firefighter also checks cockloft for possible extension of fire through vertical voids-The first line is stretched by way of the usually numerous, exterior approaches to the seat of fire and extinguish.- First Ladder provides forcible entry and search of cellar to locate fire and search for life. Consider likelihood of cellar apartments for superintendent or maintenance people.- Storage of personal belongings or stock from stores in cellars, with its resultant fire load, is not the problem it formerly was.-Storage of personal belongings or stock from stores in cellars, with its resultant fire load, is not the problem it formerly was.

Question 8

You responded as the first Chief to a fire on the top floor of a 6 story “H type” MD. Exposures 2 and 4 are similar attached buildings. Battalion 60 is assigned on the 10-75 and is still responding when you arrive at the fire scene.
8. Which action taken was correct? (Sec. 5.3.2, 5.9.1, 5.9.4, 5.9.7)
(A) The first two engines teamed up to stretch the first hoseline. As the first hoseline reached the fourth floor, the 3rd Engine Company began stretching a 2nd hoseline to back-up the first hoseline.
(B) The Officer of Engine 100, the 4th due Engine Company, was initially designated as the Roof Sector Supervisor.
(C) You ordered a Cockloft nozzle to the top floor, and a protective hoseline to the roof as required by Firefighting Procedures – Multiple Dwellings.
(D) Due to the difficulty in stretching hoselines to the top floor, Engine companies shall be used exclusively to stretch and operate hoselines at these types of buildings.
(E) The masonry division walls in this type of building eliminated the need to check Exposure 2 and 4 for extension of fire.

Answer 8

D
Every effort must be made to get the first line in operation before
additional lines are stretched. All available engine companies should be used to
stretch the first line.- It is imperative for the IC to assign a roof sector
supervisor early into the operation. The IC shall designate a company officer as
the roof supervisor until a chief officer can be assigned.- 5.9.7 Attached buildings of the same height, especially if built at the same time, must
be checked for possible extension of fire.

Question 9

9. While units are operating at the top floor fire, the Roof FF from the first Ladder Company informs you that fire has extended to the cockloft of the A wing, and there is smoke in the cockloft of the B wing. You order members to begin making a trench cut and the BC from Battalion 200, the 2nd alarm Chief, is ordered to proceed to the roof and assume the duties of the Roof Sector Supervisor. Battalion 200 would be aware of which incorrect tactic taken? (Sec. 5.9.9)
   (A) Members were ordered to cut the trench but not open it until there was an adequate ventilation opening over the fire and fire reached inspection holes cut on the fire side of the trench.
   (B) The trench cut was 4 feet wide and approximately 20 feet from the initial vent hole. The trench was cut at the narrowest point in the throat between a stair bulkhead and elevator bulkhead.
   (C) A charged hoseline on the roof was operated into the trench cut and initial vent hole in a brief sweeping side to side motion after all members on the top floor were notified. This was done to prevent fire from extending across the trench and due to the difficulty in opening the top floor ceilings.
   (D) All personnel on the roof were kept off the fire side of the trench, and an aerial ladder was positioned to the roof egress from each wing.

Answer 9

C- A charged line should be in position on the roof to protect personnel and
the trench opening. This line may be operated into the trench in a brief,
sweeping, side to side motion to prevent fire from extending across the
opening.

Question 10

11. Air, smoke and heat movement is a major consideration at fires in High Rise Fireproof Multiple Dwellings (HRFPMD). Choose the incorrect choice concerning this movement. (Sec. 6.2)
    (A) The most prominent variables that affect smoke movement are: pressure, stack effect, wind and the HVAC system.
    (B) Smoke and hot fire gases increase air pressure inside the fire area or fire apartment. This higher air pressure will always flow toward areas of lower air pressure, creating a flow path for fire to travel.
    (C) The stack effect is influenced by the height of the building, temperature differential between outside and inside temperatures, air leakage to other floors, and the wind.
    (D) Generally wind moving across a roof level will cause a higher pressure to be created, which can increase negative stack effect inside the stairway.
    (E) An IC should confirm that all HVAC systems are shut down prior to commencing any fire operations. They are installed most commonly in hotels and the hallways of upscale high-rise apartment buildings.

Answer 10

D
Generally, wind moving across a roof
level will cause a lower pressure to be created, which can increase positive
stack effect inside the stairwell, regardless of which side of the building the
wind is impacting or the position of the bulkhead on the roof.

Question 11

12. Ventilation must be communicated, coordinated, and controlled to ensure safe operations at a HRFPMD. Which choice is incorrect concerning ventilation at a HRFPMD? (Sec. 6.3, 6.4)
    (A) All horizontal and vertical ventilation must be strictly limited and controlled by the IC.
    (B) Where only two stairways are present, the attack stairway will be the primary means for vertical ventilation when the main body of fire has been knocked down, and is authorized by the IC.
    (C) The IC may order the use of positive pressure ventilation fans to clear the smoke from a stairway before attack operations begin.
    (D) The doors to elevator machinery rooms at the roof level should not be used for ventilation purposes until the fire is under control.
    (E) Windows found in the public hallway and stairways shall not be ventilated without prior approval of the IC.

Answer 11

A

The IC shall control all ventilation other than the fire apartment.

Question 12

Answer Questions 13 – 15 based on the following:
At 1400 Hours on a 9x6 tour on a Sunday, you hear the 1st arriving Engine Company transmit a 10-75 for a fire on the 14th floor of a 20 story HRFPMD built in 2016. While responding, you transmit a 10-77 and note in the CIDs that the building contains three separate elevator banks with Firemen Service, and two scissor stairs. Upon arrival, you see fire venting from a window on the 14th floor, and the Dispatcher informs you that they are receiving calls from numerous occupants reporting smoke on the upper floors.
13. Which action taken should be corrected? (Sec. 6.1, 6.4.6, 6.6.1, 6.6.3)
(A) You notified the Dispatcher that the “A” stair will be the attack stairway after the 1st Ladder and Engine Officers selected it. You did not announce an evacuation stairway on the Department radio.
(B) You notified all units on scene via HT that the building contains scissor stairs.
(C) You ensured that at least 2 elevators were driven in “Firemen Service Phase II” by firefighters for the duration of the operation.
(D) After all units were in position, you maintained one elevator in the lobby and one elevator at the Fire Sector on the floor below the fire.

Answer 12

D - 6.4.8 After all units are in position, and two elevators are available and serviceable,
maintain one elevator on standby in the lobby and one two floors below the fire.
This would allow the transport of members required for relief and/or transport of
injured members or civilians down to the lobby.

Question 13

Answer Questions 13 – 15 based on the following:
At 1400 Hours on a 9x6 tour on a Sunday, you hear the 1st arriving Engine Company transmit a 10-75 for a fire on the 14th floor of a 20 story HRFPMD built in 2016. While responding, you transmit a 10-77 and note in the CIDs that the building contains three separate elevator banks with Firemen Service, and two scissor stairs. Upon arrival, you see fire venting from a window on the 14th floor, and the Dispatcher informs you that they are receiving calls from numerous occupants reporting smoke on the upper floors.

14. The 1st Ladder Company informs you that there is a smoke condition in the public hallway due to the fire apartment door being left open. Which action taken by the first two Engine Companies on scene was incorrect? (Sec. 6.7.3, 6.8, 6.8.2, 6.14.2)
    (A) The 1st Engine Company charged the hoseline in the “A” stairway, and remained in the stairwell until the Ladder Company located the fire apartment.
    (B) The 2nd Engine Company ensured that the Siamese was supplied.
    (C) The 2nd Engine Company Officer obtained your Post Radio and brought it to the standpipe outlet where the 1st hoseline was being connected. The Post radio was operated on Channel 1 to facilitate communications between the IC and operating units.
    (D) The 2nd Engine Company Officer notified the IC that his company was assisting the 1st Engine Company advance into the IDLH.

Answer 13

C
Obtain Post Radio from 1st arriving BC and bring it to the standpipe outlet where
first hoseline is being connected and establish a communications link on the
COMMAND Channel between the fire sector and the IC if necessary.

Question 14

Answer Questions 13 – 15 based on the following:
At 1400 Hours on a 9x6 tour on a Sunday, you hear the 1st arriving Engine Company transmit a 10-75 for a fire on the 14th floor of a 20 story HRFPMD built in 2016. While responding, you transmit a 10-77 and note in the CIDs that the building contains three separate elevator banks with Firemen Service, and two scissor stairs. Upon arrival, you see fire venting from a window on the 14th floor, and the Dispatcher informs you that they are receiving calls from numerous occupants reporting smoke on the upper floors.

15. After informing you of the smoke condition in the public hallway due to the fire apartment door being left open, the 1st Ladder Company took several actions. Which one was incorrect? (Sec. 6.14.2)
    (A) Prior to entering the public hallway, the Ladder Officer received a report on exterior conditions from members operating outside the building and the Roof FF operating on the floor above.
    (B) Unable to determine if it was a wind impacted fire, the Ladder Officer and one member of the forcible entry team entered the public hallway to locate fire apartment and control the fire apartment door.
    (C) The attack stairway door remained closed with one member of the interior team on the hallway side of the door, and the Engine Officer on the stairwell side of the door.
    (D) When the Ladder Officer gained control of the fire apartment door, she notified the IC and had the Engine company advance the hoseline to the fire apartment door. The other member of the interior team joined them.
    (E) The Engine Company entered the fire apartment first, after the Engine Officer received the description of the fire apartment, location of the main body of fire, and most direct route from the Roof FF operating above.

Answer 14

E
If wind is not impacting the fire and conditions allow, enter the fire
apartment to search. Search team must be prepared to exit quickly and
control the fire apartment door under all circumstances. Do not chock the
door open until a charged hoseline is moving into the fire apartment.

Question 15

16. While conducting an informal critique following a 10-77 in a HRFPMD, you make several statements. Which one was correct? (Sec. 6.14.4, 6.15, 6.16, 6.20.1)
    (A) If a person is trapped at a window, the IC should contact the Roof FF and question the feasibility of a successful life saving rope rescue. If the windows below are of the awning or casement types, all efforts to extinguish the fire and attempt a rescue from the interior shall take priority.
    (B) The 2nd Ladder Company shall confirm the evacuation door(s) have been closed on the fire floor. A member of this unit shall maintain the door closed from the hallway side.
    (C) The 3rd Ladder Company will initiate a search of the attack stairway for 5 floors above the fire. If a Wind Control Device (WCD) deployment is initiated, the 3rd Ladder Company Officer must coordinate this evolution.
    (D) The 4th Ladder Roof FF and Rescue and Squad Roof Teams shall proceed to the apartment directly above the fire apartment with a KO Curtain or WCD.

Answer 15

A
If a WCD deployment is initiated, the 2nd ladder company officer must
coordinate this evolution. - The 3rd ladder company officer shall confirm the evacuation stairway door(s)
have been closed on the fire floor and are maintained in a closed position. - 3rd Ladder The Roof Firefighter shall proceed to the apartment directly above the fire with a
KO Curtain, - 2ND LADDER COMPANY TO ARRIVE Search of the attack stairwell for five floors above the fire floor.

Question 16

17. Although HRFPMDs generally have limited or no building communication systems in the lobby for Chief Officers to use, they may be found. Choose the incorrect point concerning building communication systems in HRFPMDs. (Sec. 6.21)
    (A) If a communications system exists, the first arriving Chief may utilize this system to direct and control evacuation of the fire floor and floors above.
    (B) The nature of fireproof construction does not require the use of the communications system to communicate with the floor below the fire.
    (C) The 2008 NYC Building Code requires one-way voice communication from the fire command center to all stairways and dwellings for all new R-2 buildings greater than 125 feet in height.
    (D) HRFPMDs with communications systems should be entered into the CIDS program.

Answer 16

B
If a communication system does exist, the first arriving Chief may utilize this
system to direct and control evacuation of the fire floor, and floors above.
Extreme conditions may require evacuation of the floor below.

Question 17

18. Which choice is incorrect concerning the duties and responsibilities of the 1st to arrive BC at a fire in a HRFPMD? (Sec. 6.21, 6.22, 6.24)
    (A) The Incident Command Post (ICP) shall always be established in the lobby. This is especially important when wind conditions are encountered.
    (B) Ensure the Post Radio is given to the 2nd to arrive Engine Officer, so that they can establish a communications link on the Command Channel between the fire sector and IC if necessary.
    (C) If the 2nd BC has not arrived, the IC may have to use the 40 watt UHF vehicle radio to communicate with the 2nd Engine Officer on the Command Channel.
    (D) Utilize the 3rd or 4th ECC to assist in receiving and/or recording the information of calls from occupants on floors above, or as otherwise deemed necessary.

Answer 17

A
6.21.3 A position outside of the building may offer a view of the fire conditions. This is
especially important when wind is a factor. The IC may be able to determine if
the exposed face of the building is being subjected to the wind. This would afford
greater control of operations when coordinating the deployment of WCDs and the
operation of exterior streams, including the HRN.

Question 18

19. Which action taken by the 2nd to arrive BC at a fire in a HRFPMD was incorrect? (Sec. 6.23)
    (A) After being assigned as the Fire Sector Supervisor, he immediately deployed to the Fire Sector with his Post radio.
    (B) Took a position on the first floor below the fire, where conditions permit.
    (C) Confirmed that the fire floor evacuation stair door(s) were maintained in the closed position.
    (D) Prevented overcrowding of the Fire Sector, and maintained order and reduced congestion in the attack stairway.
    (E) Ensured that the 1st and 2nd Engines positioned and operated the 1st hoseline, and the 3rd and 4th Engines positioned the 2nd hoseline as required.

Answer 18

A

On arrival, deliver your Post Radio to the IC.

Question 19

20. The 3rd BC to arrive at a fire on the 25th floor of a 40 story HRFPMD, assigned as the Search and Evacuation Group (SAE) Supervisor, operated correctly in which choice? (Sec. 6.24)
    (A) The SAE Post was established on the 26th floor.
    (B) He ensured the Post Radio was utilized on the Secondary Tactical Channel.
    (C) He remained mobile to observe progress and conditions within the SAE Group.
    (D) He ordered the operation of Positive Pressure fans for smoke removal.

Answer 19

C - Establish the SAE Group post at a location on a floor above the Fire sector - Ensure Post Radio is utilized on the command channel. - Request the use of PPV fans for smoke removal as needed.

Question 20

21. When the Siamese is being supplied and an Engine Officer or the IC communicates there is not enough water pressure, the ECC shall communicate the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ to the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_? (Sec. 6.27.2)
(A) Pressure reading, IC.
(B) Flow meter reading, Engine Officer.
(C) Flow meter reading, IC.
(D) Pressure reading, Engine Officer.

Answer 20

C
Anytime the siamese is being supplied and an engine officer or the Incident
Commander communicates there is not enough water pressure. The ECC
supplying the siamese shall communicate to the IC the flow meter reading.

Question 21

1. When a member depresses the Emergency Alert Button (EAB) on their HT for approximately ½ second, all of the following will occur with the exception of which choice? (Sec. 2.7.2)
   (A) An “Emergency Alert Tone” is sounded on all HT Channels in use within range including the HT with the EAB activation.
   (B) Within range, the company, position, and name of the member who pressed the EAB immediately displays in the Electronic Fireground Accountability System (EFAS).
   (C) HT transmission power on the tactical channel is increased from 2 watts to 5 watts.
   (D) The MDTs of EFAS enable units within range will automatically switch to EFAS mode and print a hard copy showing the company, position, and time when it receives an EAB activation.

Answer 21

A

A “Beacon Tone” is sounded on the HT with EAB activation.

Question 22

2. All units in all Boroughs shall operate on HT Channel 1, the Primary Tactical channel, until ordered to do otherwise by the Chief-in-Command of an operation. Which choice concerning the Secondary Tactical is correct? (Sec. 7.2.2)
   (A) The Secondary Tactical Channel, Channel 3, can be used when the Primary Tactical Channel is heavily used at a nearby incident or at the discretion of the Chief-in-Command.
   (B) The first incident in a borough at which a 10-75 signal was transmitted will have priority use of Channel 1.
   (C) When the IC arrives at an incident and decides to use the Secondary Tactical Channel, the IC shall contact all units assigned to the incident by HT only.
   (D) Notification to units on scene of the use of the Secondary Tactical Channel shall be accomplished using HT Channel 3.

Answer 22

A
The first incident in a borough that escalates to 7-5 status will have priority
use of Channel 1 (Primary Tactical) -When the Incident Commander arrives at an incident and decides to use the
Secondary Tactical channel, all units must be informed. The Incident
Commander will notify the dispatcher via Department radio that the
Secondary Tactical channel will be placed in use. The dispatcher will then
broadcast this information to responding units and again to any units
responding on additional alarms.
The firefighter assigned to the Incident Commander shall contact each unit
that arrived prior to the Chief and inform them of the necessary channel
change. This may be accomplished by brief messages using Channel 1 or by
personal contact.

Question 23

3. A Command Channel must be established at all of the following with the exception of which one? (Sec. 7.3.2)
   (A) 2nd Alarm or greater.
   (B) Signals 10-60 and 10-66,
   (C) Signals 10-76 and 10-77.
   (D) When needed during complex operations as determined by the IC to assure a manageable span of control.

Answer 23

C

When signal 10-77 is transmitted and more than one sector is established.

Question 24

4. Which guideline concerning the establishment of a Command Channel is incorrect? (Sec. 7.3.4)
   (A) The IC shall notify the Dispatcher when a Command Channel has been established.
   (B) The IC shall announce to all on-scene units on HT Channel 1 that a Command Channel has been established. If time and conditions permit, this message shall be broadcast twice.
   (C) While en route, the Resources Unit Leader (RESL) will ascertain from the MDT or Dispatcher the identity of the units assigned to the incident. Upon arrival, the RESL shall report to the IC at the ICP.
   (D) The IC shall have the RESL conduct a roll call on HT Channel 1 to ensure compliance.
   (E) If the RESL has not yet arrived, the IC may conduct the roll call, or delegate another member (i.e. Division or Battalion FF).

Answer 24

D
The IC shall have the RESL conduct a roll call on HT Channel 2 to ensure
compliance. If the RESL has not yet arrived, the IC may conduct the roll
call, or delegate it to another member (i.e. Division or Battalion
Firefighter).

Question 25

5. In addition to the guidelines for establishing the Command Channel, there are also guidelines for using the Command Channel. Which is not one of them? (Sec. 7.3.5)
   (A) All BCs assigned as Sector/Group Supervisors must ensure their assigned Battalion FFs accompany them to their designated sector or operating location.
   (B) BCs assigned as Sector/Group Supervisors operating in tactical positions shall operate on HT Channel 1. Battalion FFs operating in these sectors/groups shall monitor and maintain communications on HT Channel 2.
   (C) Sector/Group Supervisors shall communicate with Command strictly on Channel 2.
   (D) The Deputy IC or Operations Section Chief shall monitor communications on HT Channel 1. Their Battalion FF shall monitor communications on HT Channel 2.
   (E) A critical role of the first to arrive BC is to monitor communications on the HT Channel 1 (tactical) for the transmission of mayday/urgent messages, and ensure the timely response to such.

Answer 25

D
The Deputy Chief (IC) shall operate on HT Channel 2 (command).
His/her Division firefighter shall monitor communications on HT Channel
1 (tactical).

Question 26

6. While operating at a 2nd alarm as the Fire Sector Supervisor on the top floor at a fire that has extended to the cockloft, you hear the following transmission: “Ladder 100 to Command, we could use the cockloft nozzle in Apartment 5D”. Which choice indicates a correct action to take? (Sec. 7.3.5)
   (A) Do not acknowledge the transmission due to it being directed to “Command”.
   (B) Acknowledge the transmission and inform the Officer of Ladder 100 a Fire Sector has been established.
   (C) After hearing the RESL acknowledge the message and inform the Officer of Ladder 100 that a Fire Sector has been established, acknowledge the message and issue the same reminder.
   (D) Relay the message to “Command”, and make no further transmissions concerning this communication.

Answer 26

B
If a non-urgent message is transmitted to “Command” or
“Operations,” the Sector/Group Supervisor, or the RESL, must acknowledge
the message and inform the member that a sector/group has been established.
He/she must then inform the member that all future non-urgent transmissions
are to go through their assigned sector/group

Question 27

7. At large scale events, such as: large malls, airport terminals, large area brush, stadiums and subway operations, the IC shall consider having Chief Officers utilize their assigned Post Radio to improve communications. Post Radios are also used at other types of buildings or operations. Which point is incorrect concerning this use? (Sec. 7.3.5, 7.4, FFP MDS Sec. 6.21.4, 6.22)
   (A) Post Radios are not required if the location is equipped with their own repeater system.
   (B) Repeaters not included in our infrastructure could hamper FDNY communications.
   (C) At operations requiring the resources of 10-75 or greater at HRFPMDs, all Chiefs, including the Safety and Rescue Operating Battalions, shall report in with their Post Radios and their aides in full PPE.
   (D) At a HRFPMD, the Post radio can provide 45 watt communication on the tactical channel.

Answer 27

A
Note: Even if these locations are equipped with their own repeater
system, Incident Commanders shall make use of the Post Radios as a
redundancy in case of failure of the repeater system.

Question 28

8. Which choice is incorrect concerning the use of Secondary Command Channels and Tertiary Tactical Channels? (Sec. 7.3.4, 7.4)
   (A) If the complexity of the incident warrants, the IC may establish a Secondary Command Channel and determine who shall operate on such.
   (B) A copy of the chart containing the recommended Secondary Command Channel and Tertiary Tactical Channels shall be maintained in all Battalion and Division vehicles for use by responding Chief Officers.
   (C) All Chief Officers must be familiar with the designated Tactical and Command Channels for their response area.
   (D) Channel 4 is the recommended Secondary Command Channel in all boroughs.

Answer 28

D
Borough Recommended Secondary
Command Channel
Recommended Tertiary
Tactical Channel
Queens 4 5
Brooklyn 5 8
Manhattan 6 8
Bronx 7 6
Staten Island 8 4

Question 29

9. When a Mayday is transmitted and the Emergency Alert Button is activated, the electronic ID code of a spare HT prompts the IC and FAST Unit to consult the Spare Radio Assignment list. Choose the incorrect point concerning this topic. (Add. 3 Sec. 2.1, 2.2, 3.1, 3.2)
   (A) The extra HT (door position) assigned to 4 FF engines can only be used as a spare when awaiting delivery of a spare HT from the depot or the supply at a HT depot is depleted.
   (B) Battalion Chiefs shall print a Division Spare Radio Assignment List each tour, unless there are no spare radios currently in use in their Division.
   (C) A current copy of the combined Division/Citywide Spare Radio Assignment List must be kept with the FAST radio.
   (D) The Field Communications Unit will provide a Citywide Spare Radio Assignment List to the IC on arrival at an incident.
   (E) If the Field Communications Unit is not on scene, the IC can contact FDOC by phone to ascertain the identity of a spare radio.

Answer 29

B
Deputy Chiefs and Battalion Chiefs shall print a Spare Radio Assignment List at the start of
each tour.

Question 30

AUC 344
1. While working in Battalion 21 on a 9x6 tour on a Wednesday, you respond to a four vehicle collision, resulting in a fuel truck fire midspan on the Verrazano Bridge. As you arrive, you are confronted with a large fireball that has spread to several vehicles and is exposing the steel cables on the bridge. Which action taken was incorrect? (Sec. 1.1, 1.3, 1.4, 1.5)
(A) After receiving a report from Marine 9 that the bridge was beginning to sag, you transmitted this information via the Department radio and called the Staten Island Borough Commander via the Battalion cell phone.
(B) You used the MTA First Responders Bridge Manual, a Green Book, to transmit an incident assessment to the Dispatcher.
(C) You transmitted signal 10-75 and 10-86, and ordered the 1st Ladder Company to get as close to the incident as possible and use their Hurst Tool to extricate two occupants of a vehicle that has been severely damaged in the collision.
(D) MTA Bridge and Tunnel engineers were notified immediately through FDOC of the life hazard and the magnitude and location of damage to the bridge.

Answer 30

C

Question 31

AUC 344
2. Which point about the First Responder’s Bridge or Tunnel Manual Risk Management/Executive Guide is correct? (Sec. 1.5, Figure 4)
(A) It is orange.
(B) Command Chiefs will either respond to the scene with the Guide, or will have it transported to the scene via FDOC.
(C) The highest ranking MTA, Port Authority or NYPD Police official at all NYCDOT Bridges, MTA Bridges, and the NYSDOT Kosciuszko Bridge will maintain a copy of the guide in a secure location.
(D) This Guide is available for both the Eastbound and Westbound Bridges of the Kosciuszko Bridge Project.
(E) The Field Communications Units maintains a Risk Management Guide in a secure location under the direct supervision of the Office on Duty.

Answer 31

D

Note: this manual only covers the eastbound Bridge (phase 1) of the Kosciuszko Bridge Project

Question 32

AUC 345
3. You are working a 9x6 tour in Battalion 80 as an SA Chief, when while checking the emails you notice one from Engine 123 titled “PG- 100 Smith Plaza”. You consider several thoughts about Pre-Incident Guidelines (PG). Which one is correct? (Sec. 2.1, 2.2, 2.3, 3.1)
(A) You should contact the Officer of Engine 123 to arrange a joint visit to 100 Smith Plaza today prior to approving the Pre-Incident Guideline.
(B) The on-site visit by Battalion 80 and Engine 123 can be made during BISP, daily drill, or MUD.
(C) When the Pre-Incident Guideline is finalized and approved, Battalion 80 shall email it to the Borough for examination and approval.
(D) Engine 123 must submit a CIDS entry for 100 Smith Plaza, with the FD designation PG at the beginning of the transmitted data section. The Officer of Engine 123, in consultation with the administrative BC, must decide what portion of the vital information from the PG will be included in the CIDS entry.

Answer 32

C
Once finalized and approved, the Battalion shall email the Pre-Incident Guideline to the
administrative Division for examination and approval.

Question 33

AUC 345
4. When Pre-Incident Guidelines have been approved, there are several actions that must take place. Which is not one of these actions? (Sec. 4.1, 5.1)
(A) Each Division, Battalion, and Company shall establish two Pre-Incident Guideline binders for their respective administrative as well as necessary response districts.
(B) Both Pre-Incident Guideline binders shall be carried in an accessible location on the apparatus.
(C) Chief Officer, receiving response tickets containing the FD designation PG in the CIDS message shall refer to the binders as necessary while responding and managing incident at these locations.
(D) At a minimum, all sites with a Pre-Incident Guideline shall be the scene of a familiarization drill once a year.

Answer 33

B
One binder
shall be carried in an accessible location on the apparatus and the other shall be kept in
the company office for necessary reference.

Question 34

AUC 346
5. Battalion Chiefs prepare, print, and submit an Electronic BF-4 (EBF-4) each tour. A BC would know which EBF-4 was prepared correctly? (Sec. 2.2, 2.4, 2.5, 2.6)
(A) Engine 20, which is currently awaiting a detail for the 9x6 tour, does not have a FF in the line for the Control position due to a FF awaiting relief.
(B) FF Smith of Ladder 60, who is en route to her detail to Engine 20, is listed on Ladder 60’s EBF-4 until she arrives at Engine 20.
(C) A single copy of the EBF-4 is required to be printed each tour.
(D) Engine 30, currently awaiting a detail from Ladder 70, has submitted a Preliminary EBF-4, even though there is a member awaiting relief.

Answer 34

D
Only members actually riding on the apparatus of that unit shall be included on the unit
EBF-4. Do not include members detailed to another unit for the tour.
Members working in another unit (e.g., mutual, detail, RSOT, MMOT) shall only be
placed on the EBF-4 of the unit they are working in that tour. - Print copies for both the officer and apparatus.

Question 35

AUC 346
6. The Borough has sent an email stating that Probationary FFs shall not be given certain positions. When you review the EBF-4 for units in your Battalion on 3/18/19, you notice that FF James L-345 has been given one of the prohibited positions. What would be a correct action to take? (Sec. 2.7)
(A) After noting that FF James L-345 was appointed on 9/1/17, you instruct his Lieutenant working that tour to remove the (PR) designation from FF James name.
(B) After noting that FF James was granted tenure on the Department Order published on 3/15/19, you order the Lt working in L-345 to remove the (PR) designation from FF James’ name.
(C) After noting that FF James was granted tenure on the Department Order published on 3/15/19, you email the Captain of L-345 instructing him to remove the (PR) designation on his next tour of duty.
(D) You remove the (PR) designation from FF James’ name on the EBF-4, following the instructions given in the EBF-4 manual.

Answer 35

C
When the probationary firefighter is granted tenure on the Department Order, the
Company Commander shall remove the (PR) designation from the probationary
firefighter’s name. The (PR) designation shall not be removed in advance of the
Department Order.
Note: In the event a probationary firefighter is not identified by a (PR), the company
commander can add the designation following the instructions provided above.

Question 36

AUC 346
7. Which choice is incorrect concerning the EBF-4? (Sec. 3.1, 3.2)
(A) Any time a Battalion is displayed on a report in red, that unit can be clicked on to obtain more details.
(B) A Battalion can produce customized Battalion reports to include other units in their response area (SOC units, adjoining Battalion). The customized report shall be named.
(C) The Field Communications Unit shall be prepared to provide a copy of the incident based riding list report to the Command Post upon arrival at an incident.
(D) An Incident Report, Citywide Report, Division Report or Battalion Report can be generated based on riding lists submitted by individual units.

Answer 36

A
Note: Any time a unit or Battalion is displayed on a report in blue, that unit can be
clicked on to obtain more details.

Question 37

1. All of the following choices concerning the High Rise Nozzle (HRN) are correct with the exception of which one? (DS 17 Sec. 5.1, 5.3, 5.5, 5.6 , FFP MDs Sec. 6.27.1, 6.27.2)
   (A) Positioning the HRN may be difficult at a Duplex or Triplex apartment since the window below the fire may only be accessible from the fire floor public hallway.
   (B) If the fire window faces onto a balcony in a HRFPMD, and the apartment below the fire has a balcony, it will not be possible to operate the HRN.
   (C) When the HRN will be placed into operation, the IC shall announce this over operating radio frequencies. The HRN will only be placed into operation at the direction of the IC.
   (D) A spotter, equipped with binoculars and a HT, will provide direction and progress reports to the IC and members operating.
   (E) Putting the HRN into operation will require the services of two Engine Companies.

Answer 37

E

Question 38

2. As the initial IC at a fire in a row of 5 connected frame buildings that has extended to the common cockloft, you would be correct in which thought concerning the Cockloft Nozzle? (DS 18 Sec. 1.2, 2.1, 3.2, 3.4, 3.7)
   (A) After considering that each building’s dimensions are 20’x 60’, you decide to deploy the Cockloft Nozzle to the middle building. This position should enable the Cockloft Nozzle stream to reach the cockloft of each building.
   (B) The Cockloft Nozzle cannot be operated until a ventilation hole has been cut over the main body of fire.
   (C) The Cockloft Nozzle can be the primary attack line if a Tower Ladder is being put into operation.
   (D) The use of the Cockloft Nozzle will eliminate the need of pulling ceilings for final extinguishment and washdown, as long as it was operated into a sufficient hole in the ceiling (at least 2’ x 2’).

Answer 38

A
The two ½” OSTs are NOT to be removed; these tips increase the reach of the stream in
excess of 60 feet. - Prior to using a cockloft nozzle in a NFP Multiple Dwelling, consideration shall be given
to cutting a vent hole over the main body of fire; this may relieve explosive gases, and
reduce the possibility of the expansion of water to steam causing ceiling collapse - The cockloft nozzle should NEVER be the primary attack line and is
ONLY to be used when supported and protected by an additional conventional handline.

Question 39

3. At the scene of a fire in a Taxpayer that has extended to the cockloft, you would be able to locate a Cockloft Nozzle or a Cockloft Nozzle Tip in conjunction with a Combination Nozzle Tip in all of the following choices with the exception of which one? (DS 18 Sec. 2.2, DS 19 Sec. 1.4, 3.1)
(A) Selected Battalion vehicles
(B) Division vehicles
(C) Squad apparatus
(D) Selected Engine apparatus

Answer 39

A
2.2 The cockloft nozzle is carried by all Squad Companies and Division vehicles. -
The Combination Nozzle System Kit is mounted above the portable ladder rack on
selected Engines.

Question 40

1. There are several general rules that must be followed during Water Rescue operations. Which is not one of them? (WR 1 Sec. 2.2.4, 2.3 WR 2 Sec. 1.3, 9)
   (A) Members should not be allowed past the line of sight from the shore during night operations.
   (B) All members operating at or near a water emergency must wear a Personal Flotation Device (PFD).
   (C) Bunker gear shall never be worn when operating in the immediate vicinity of water/ice operations.
   (D) All Battalions are Water Safety Units and have been issued a Water Safety Kit to use when a Water Rescue Trained Company is not on scene.
   (E) In rare instances when the Officer is the only capable swimmer in a Water Rescue Unit, the Officer may operate as the Rescue Coordinator or Victim Spotter.

Answer 40

C
2.3 All members operating at or near a water emergency must wear a PFD. Bunker gear
shall only be worn when operating in the immediate vicinity of water/ice operations when
absolutely necessary.

Question 41

2. While responding to a Water Rescue operation in the East River using Water Rescue Units, the IC shall consider several points. Which one is not stated correctly? (WR 2 Sec. 7.1, WR 5 Sec. 4.1)
   (A) Request from the Marine Unit the direction of the tide (e.g. North vs. South)
   (B) Verify ETA of Marine Unit
   (C) Use of 800 MHz radio.
   (D) Monitoring EMS Citywide 1 Channel.

Answer 41

D
While responding to the incident the IC shall consider the following points:
 Request from the Marine unit the direction of the tide (e.g.: North vs. South as
opposed to incoming vs. outgoing).
 Verify ETA of Marine unit.
 Use of the 800 MHz radio.
 Monitoring NYPD SOD channel.

Question 42

3. The IC at the scene of a Water Rescue must consider several operational and safety factors. Which choice contains correct information concerning this operation? (WR 2 Sec. 7.4)
4. Assure the Borough Dispatcher is initially notified when there is a confirmed victim.
5. An additional Water Rescue Unit(s) shall be requested for multiple victims.
6. All members entering the water are to wear Cold Water Suits or a PFD and shall be tethered.
7. Anytime FDNY members enter the water all members on-scene shall be made aware of this as well as ensuring the Borough Dispatcher is notified. This is not required when members of the NYPD enter the water.
8. An on-scene engine company shall be designated to perform CFR-D duties prior to EMS arrival.
9. Ensure that a Tower Ladder is raised as a vantage point to assist the victim spotter. An aerial ladder shall not be used due to the danger of members climbing an unsupported aerial ladder.
10. Consider the need for a Decon Engine whenever members enter the water.
    (A) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 only
    (B) 1, 2, 3, 5, 7 only
    (C) 3, 4, 5, 6, 7 only
    (D) 1,2,3, 4, 5, 7 only

Answer 42

B
7.7 Anytime FDNY members or members of other agencies enter the water all members onscene
shall be made aware of this as well as ensuring the Borough Dispatcher is notified.
The Borough Dispatcher will announce this message to all responding units.
7.13 The Incident Commander shall ensure a tower ladder or aerial ladder is raised as a
vantage point to assist the victim spotter. Portable lights and lights on the apparatus
should be used whenever they would assist in the operation.

Question 43

4. Due to the inherent danger present at any Ice Rescue, there are several procedures that shall be followed. Which one is described incorrectly? (WR 3 Sec. 4.3.5, 5.2, 5.3)
   (A) Units shall have a stokes basket positioned at the point of exit from the ice.
   (B) Ensure the path from the shoreline to the ambulance is unobstructed. Consider assigning a unit to this task.
   (C) It must be verified that any member operating on the ice shelf or in the water is properly tethered to the shore. The Dispatcher shall be notified when members are operating on the ice shelf or enter the water.
   (D) Ensure the Primary and Back up Rescuers in a Water Rescue Unit are wearing either a Cold Water Suit or a Personal Flotation Device, not both.
   (E) When it is determined that the victim has sunken below the ice shelf, the IC will have to rely on the technical capabilities of Rescue Divers.

Answer 43

D

Primary and Back up rescuers will be wearing Cold Water Suits and a PFD.

Question 44

5. After Marine 9 notified the responding BC that the tide was outgoing at a Surf Rescue incident, the BC had several thoughts. Which one was incorrect? (WR 4 Sec. 2.3.4, 2.4.2, 3.1, 4.13)
   (A) If a rip current is present, the rescuer can enter the rip current to reach the victim quickly.
   (B) If a Long-shore current is present, rescuers should enter the water upstream of a Long shore current (Sweep Tide) and swim with the current to reach the victim.
   (C) When it is determined that a water rescue is not safe for a Surface Rescue Unit, the IC will have to rely on the NYPD to provide divers and aviation resources to rescue the victim.
   (D) Conditions must be right to use a surfboard in a rescue situation. When encountering very rough water and large breaking waves the surfboard will be difficult to control.

Answer 44

C
4.13 When it is determined that a water entry rescue is not safe for a Surface Rescue Unit, the
Incident Commander will have to rely on the technical capabilities of the Marine units
and/or Rescue divers.

Question 45

6. In a Dive Assist operation, the IC has several considerations that are not present in other Water and Ice Rescue operations. Which one is correct? (WR 5 Sec. 2.2, 2.3, 3.2, 3.5, 4.4)
   (A) If the victim is submerged, immediately search for a reliable witness. Once located, the witness shall be brought to the Command Post to relay the victim location to the IC.
   (B) The IC shall determine the best access point for entry of the Rescue divers when the last location on the victim is confirmed. This access point shall not be changed.
   (C) The assistance of at least one company will have to be dedicated to transporting any needed equipment to the Rescue site.
   (D) An engine company on scene shall hook up to a hydrant and have a hoseline stretched and charged. This hoseline shall be used only for decontamination.
   (E) When divers are going to enter the water, an additional Rescue or Squad unit will be assigned.

Answer 45

C
Do not allow the witness to be removed
from this reference point. Keep the witness at this location throughout the operation. -
Once the last location of victim is confirmed, units on the scene shall determine the best
access point for the entry of the Rescue divers. This shall be relayed to the responding’ - 3.5 An Engine company on the scene shall hook up to a hydrant and have a hoseline
stretched and charged. This hoseline can be used to:
 Cool back-up divers especially on very hot days.
 Decontaminate Divers.
 Decontaminate victims prior to transport when requested by EMS. -
Rescue company officer. - An
additional Rescue unit will be assigned when divers are going to enter the water.

Question 46

7. At Water Rescue Incidents the IC will have to coordinate and establish communications with other agencies on scene. When members of the FDNY and the NYPD entered the water for search and/or rescue (or operated on the ice shelf), which action taken was incorrect? (WR 2 Sec. 7.8, WR 3 Sec. 6.8, WR 4 Sec. 4.8, WR 5 Sec. 4.7)
   (A) The ranking FDNY member will consult with the ranking on-scene police official in order to activate the TAC-U channel 42D.
   (B) The IC will designate specific member(s) required for the operation to switch to the TAC-U channel.
   (C) The members operating on the TAC-U channel shall operate on the TAC-U channel along with police department units.
   (D) Member(s) who have not been instructed to switch to the TAC-U channel shall continue to operate on the primary tactical channel.

Answer 46

A
4.7.1 At water rescue incidents, where members of both the FDNY and the NYPD enter
the water for search and/or rescue, the ranking FDNY member will consult with
the ranking on-scene Police official in order to activate the TAC-U channel HT-13.

Question 47

1. Often steel is used in combination with concrete to create reinforced concrete. Which choice concerning this type of construction is incorrect? (p. 35-36)
   (A) Steel provides compressive strength that concrete lacks and may also provide tensile strength.
   (B) Reinforced concrete is a composite and both elements are equally important.
   (C) Both concrete and steel must remain in contact.
   (D) Exposed steel lacks fire resistance.
   (E) Aluminum, used in electrical conduits, reacts with concrete and can cause decomposition.

Answer 47

A

- Steel provides tensile strength concrete lacks & may also provide compressive strength.

Question 48

2. Columns combining steel and concrete may be found during fire operations. Which hazard of this construction element is incorrectly described? (p. 35-36)
   (A) Lally columns are steel pipes filled with concrete to increase their load carrying capacity. If exposed to heat, they may explode.
   (B) In a serious fire exposing a steel lally column, column failure and subsequent collapse should be anticipated.
   (C) When steel reinforcing rods are used in a column, the steel reinforcing rods may buckle under load at a fire.
   (D) When steel reinforcing rods are seen protruding from column at a fire, a hoseline shall be called for and the rods shall be cooled while continuing interior operations.

Answer 48

D
At fires, the steel reinforcing rods in a column may buckle under load. This buckling will cause the rods to protrude from the column. Protruding rods are a serious sign of possible collapse and should bring about an immediate evacuation.

Question 49

3. While discussing the forces placed on a concrete beam, BC James made several statements. Which one should be corrected? (p. 36, p. 39)
   (A) When a beam is loaded, it deflects, bringing compression in the top of the beam and tension in the bottom of the beam.
   (B) Reinforcing bars are placed in the bottom of a concrete beam to provide tensile strength.
   (C) In a cantilever beam, the tension is at the top of the beam and thus the reinforcing (tension) rods are placed in the top of the beam.
   (D) In a continuous beam supported at more than two points, there is tension in the bottom of the beam in the area over the tops of the columns, and tension in the top of the beam between columns.
   (E) A concrete beam is balanced when the strength of the concrete is equal to the strength of the beam. If more steel is put into the beam than is required for balance design, the steel fails first.

Answer 49

D
In a continuous beam supported at more than 2 points — there is tension in the top of the beam in the area over the tops of the columns, and tension in the bottom of the beam between columns.

Question 50

4. There are two methods of prestressing or tensioning concrete: Pre-tensioning and Post-tensioning. Which choice is incorrect concerning these methods? (p. 37)
   (A) In Pre-tensioning, the tensioning is done at the plant before the concrete is poured.
   (B) In Post-tensioning, the tensioning is done at the site after the concrete is poured.
   (C) In Pre-tensioning, when the concrete reaches a specified strength, the tensioned strands are released from the ends of the form, attempt to draw back, thus compressing the concrete.
   (D) In Post-tensioning, the stand wires or bars are encased in plastic or tubing, or wrapped, to prevent any adhesion with the concrete. When the concrete reaches a specified strength, the steel tendons are stretched and anchored at the ends of the unit.
   (E) A major advantage of Pre-tensioning is that floors can be thinner.

Answer 50

E

A major advantage of post-tensioning is that floors can be thinner.

Question 51

5. At the scene of a wall formwork collapse, BC Green made several statements. Which one was incorrect? (p. 38)
   (A) It usually goes out at the top.
   (B) Workers may be trapped, particularly between falsework and sides of the excavation.
   (C) There will probably be no reinforcing steel to interfere with the rescue.
   (D) If it is necessary to retard the setting of the concrete, as much sugar as can be obtained should be worked into it.

Answer 51

A

It usually goes out at the bottom.

Question 52

6. An incorrect point about floor formwork collapses can be found in which choice? (p. 38)
   (A) Most of the victims will be on top of the falsework, although some may be under the falsework.
   (B) Bolt cutters shall be used to cut reinforcing rods to manageable lengths. Thicker rods may require torch cutting.
   (C) Post-tensioned cables or rods under tension may only be cut to save lives.
   (D) When concrete is being poured, carpenters and helpers are often underneath bracing and wedging shores that appear to be in distress.

Answer 52

C

DO NOT CUT POST-TENSIONED CABLES OR RODS WHICH ARE UNDER TENSION AND WILL WHIP DANGEROUSLY IF CUT.

Question 53

7. In prestressed (Tensioned) concrete, special high strength, cold drawn steel cable or alloy bars are used. These cables are also known as tendons or strands. Choose an incorrect point about these cables. (p. 37, 39, 40)
   (A) There is a complete loss of prestress at 800 degrees.
   (B) In a fire, it is vital that any exposed steel, connected to the stressed tendons be cooled, unless the tendons are rolled up, which will provide protection from the heat.
   (C) When a concrete structure is in trouble, it is often repaired with steel. If steel cables are used, failure will occur below 800 degrees.
   (D) Signs of Post-tensioned concrete construction are protruding cables, coils of tendons, and characteristic anchors.

Answer 53

B
In a fire, the rolled up tendons would act as a heat collector, transmitting heat to the previously tensioned portion of the tendons.

Question 54

8. You consider several thoughts while assigned as a Sector Supervisor at the scene of a fire in a building under construction with Post-tensioned concrete floors. Which one was correct? (p. 40-41)
   (A) Tendons can be cut with bolt cutters.
   (B) The core cutter or concrete blade can be used to open a hole in a known or suspected Post-tensioned floor, if supervision of the operation is increased.
   (C) All cutting into post-tensioned concrete floors in a fire is unsafe.
   (D) The use of cutting torches or power saws is the safest method to use when opening a Post-tensioned concrete floor.

Answer 54

C
- Tendons cannot be cut with bolt cutters as ordinary rods can. - The core cutter or concrete blade must never be used to open a hole in a known or suspected post-tensioned floor. - Officers should be wary of requests for cutting torches or power saws to cut reinforcing rods

Question 55

9. A BC should be aware of the hazards of flammable gases found at a fire, including Carbon Monoxide (CO). Which choice is incorrect concerning these hazards? (p. 45)
   (A) CO trapped in a void or pocket ignites when sufficient oxygen is available. This is sometimes seen as flames appearing in clouds of black smoke pouring from windows, and is a sign that flashover is imminent.
   (B) The maximum penetration into a room where flashover is imminent is 5 feet.
   (C) Ventilating a building will prevent CO explosions.
   (D) At a fire in a high rise building, CO can stratify well above the fire, on floors where there is little or no smoke, heat, or air movement.

Answer 55

C
Ventilating a building does not prevent CO explosions because gas-air mixtures can pocket in a fully or partially enclosed location

Question 56

10. The FDNY implements Positive Pressure Ventilation at various types of buildings. Which choice is incorrect concerning this operation? (p. 46)
    (A) It is most advantageous to pressurize the structure on the windward side and exhaust contaminants on the leeward side of the building.
    (B) If the prevailing wind direction cannot be used to advantage, positive pressure ventilation has proven effective against winds up to 25 mph.
    (C) In a fully enclosed air conditioned building under positive pressure, opening a single window on the leeward side of the building in the fire area will permit the excess pressure to vent, taking much of the smoke with it.
    (D) In a fully enclosed air conditioned building under positive pressure, opening several windows on the windward side of the building will result in an increased rate of smoke removal.

Answer 56

D

• Opening a single window on the leeward side of the building in the fire area will permit the excess pressure to vent — taking much of the smoke with it.
• Opening several windows can dilute this effect.

Question 57

PART 7 - BISP – FIRE CODE GUIDE CH. 8 & CH. 34, CHAPTER 5 REF. 9.3, 9.4
1. While performing Holiday Inspection, one of your units requests you to respond. Upon arrival they ask you about the Fire Code rules concerning Natural Trees and Cut Natural Trees. Which statement made was correct?
(A) Cut natural trees may be displayed in houses of worship and common areas in Group R-2 apartment house occupancies.
(B) It shall be unlawful to store cut natural trees in any building, with the exception of cut natural trees that are displayed in houses of worship and dwelling units in Group R-2 apartment house occupancies.
(C) Natural trees, including conifers, may be stored and displayed in a building, provided they are maintained in a healthy condition and are not allowed to become dry.
(D) Natural trees and cut natural trees shall be checked at least weekly for dryness.

Answer 57

B

Question 58

2. At the conclusion of a fire in a commercial occupancy, the 1st Ladder Officer notifies you that they have found several flammable and combustible liquids on the first floor. Which one would not require a permit?
(A) 10 gallons of acetone.
(B) 2 ¼ gallons of gasoline.
(C) 11 gallons of kerosene.
(D) 25 gallons of paint.

Answer 58

B

Question 59

3. While conducting a supervisory inspection of a 2 story mixed occupancy building, you are notified that members have discovered 5 gallons of diesel fuel in a safety can in the cellar. The building contains an office for a construction company on the 1st floor, which also rents and uses the cellar for storage. Two apartments are on the second floor. The building was built in 1990, and is not sprinklered. Which statement is correct concerning the storage of the diesel fuel in the cellar?
   (A) Diesel fuel may not be stored in the cellar, regardless of sprinkler protection.
   (B) Diesel fuel may be stored in the cellar, only if the entire building is protected by a sprinkler system.
   (C) The diesel fuel may remain in the cellar, there is no violation.
   (D) If either apartment on the second floor is altered on or after July 1, 2008, the cellar must be sprinklered to legally store the diesel fuel.

Answer 59

B

Question 60

4. While investigating a smoke detector activation at a one story Mercantile Occupancy with a cellar, the Engine Officer informs you that they have discovered 15 gallons of WD-40 in the cellar. The building is not sprinklered, and was built and occupied in 1999. The owner presents a valid FD permit allowing the storage of 20 gallons of Class II Combustible Liquids. Which choice is incorrect regarding the storage of the WD-40 in the cellar in this building?
   (A) All of the WD-40 must be removed from the building until the cellar is sprinklered.
   (B) An A-244 shall be forwarded.
   (C) The WD-40 shall be removed from the cellar, but may remain on the first floor.
   (D) If the WD-40 was stored in a room which was segregated, vertically and horizontally, from surrounding spaces by a fire separation of not less than two hours, a sprinkler system would be required only in that room.

Answer 60

C

Question 61

5. At a bulk plant in Staten Island where flammable liquids are offloaded from ships, which fire protection system is properly color coded?
   (A) The standpipe system piping is colored red with contrasting green bands.
   (B) Non-automatic sprinkler system piping is colored red with contrasting aluminum bands.
   (C) Carbon dioxide extinguishing system piping is colored red with contrasting black bands.
   (D) Fire Department foam connections are colored red, with a durable sign that reads “WATER FOR FOAM SYSTEM” conspicuously posted immediately adjacent to the connections.

Answer 61

B

Question 62

Answer Questions 6 - 8 based on the following:
There is a street fair in your administrative district on a Saturday in July. The DC on duty calls and requests that you accompany the administrative company for an inspection prior to the start of the fair. You quickly review the BISP manual and meet the company at the fair to conduct an inspection.
6. Which of the following would not be in compliance with the rules concerning these fairs?
(A) If CNG is found stored, handled, or used, an immediate Summons shall be issued and the CNG shall be confiscated.
(B) Flammable liquids may not be stored, handled or used. If flammable liquids are found, an immediate Summons shall be issued and the liquid shall be confiscated.
(C) Fueling of generators or other approved devices using flammable liquids may only be conducted at times other than when the event is open to the public.
(D) The Department shall issue a single combined permit for each type of material and operation associated with the event to the sponsor or promoter.

Answer 62

B

Question 63

7. Continuing with the inspection, you discover that LPG and Kerosene are being used for cooking. Which choice is incorrect concerning the use of LPG and Kerosene at a Street Fair?
   (A) LPG storage and use shall be limited to two 20 LPG containers per LPG device or equipment, each with a capacity not greater than 20 pounds.
   (B) One person shall not operate more than one LPG device or equipment, and LPG containers should have a separation distance of 5 feet.
   (C) A Street Fair that has three different concessionaires, each using two 20 pound LGP containers, would not require a permit.
   (D) The amount of kerosene and other combustible liquids that may be stored by each concessionaire incidental to handling and use shall not exceed ten gallons, and such incidental storage shall be in approved safety cans.

Answer 63

C

Question 64

8. While checking fire safety precautions to be taken at the site, which one item was in violation of the rules for such Street Fairs?
   (A) One portable fire extinguisher, with a minimum 10-B: C rating was found for every two concessionaire booths using a hazardous material.
   (B) Each concessionaire’s booth was equipped with one covered container for the storage of combustible waste.
   (C) An unobstructed fire lane of 18 feet was provided.
   (D) A solid yellow circle 12 inches in diameter was provided in the center of the emergency access lane to indicate the location of each fire hydrant within the boundaries of the Street Fair.

Answer 64

A

Question 65

9. The Fire Department has identified 6 types of lightweight and alternative building materials which are of particular concern to field units. Structural Integrity inspections for these materials are automatically scheduled by RBIS as per permits issued by DOB. Choose the incorrect point concerning these inspections.
   (A) Units should ensure that Structural Integrity inspections scheduled in RBIS are completed within 14 days.
   (B) When construction has been completed prior to the Structural Integrity Inspection, and the Officer is unable to verify the existence of the lightweight material, the material shall be added to CIDS based on the information provided in the “Structural Integrity Details” on the RBIS Pre-inspection screen.
   (C) When EIFS is entered into CIDS, the appropriate lightweight (LW) designation shall be used.
   (D) When Prefabricated Laminated Wood I Joist/I-Beams are used, the space between the ceiling and floor or roof above shall be divided into approximately equal areas not greater than 500 square feet.
   (E) If a BC has been requested to respond to the scene for a lightweight or alternative building material that has been compromised, if appropriate the BC should either call DOB to the scene, initiate vacate procedures, or send a DOB High Priority Referral Report.

Answer 65

C