CL350 Aircraft Flashcards

1
Q

What are the engines on the CL350

A

Honeywell HTF7350 or AS907-2-1A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the wing span?

A

69’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the length of 1 wing?

A

30’8”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How high is the tail

A

20’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the length of the airplane nose to tail?

A

68’8”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How much pavement is needed for a 180 degree turn?

A

58’ which allows for a 5’ safety margin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the minimum clearance for the wings to perform a 180 degree turn on the ground?

A

101’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the towing turn limit?

A

120 degrees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What would be the CAS message be for a towing limit event? What action is needed?

A

NWS LMT EXCEEDED. Grounded, inspection required.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

At what degree will the indicator pins shear off during towing? What action?

A

123 degrees. Grounded, inspection required.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is action is prohibited during towing?

A

Do not cycle power or hydraulics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the tiler and rudder turn limitations?

A

65 degrees, 7 degrees on the ground

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the ITT engine limitations on start?

A

ITT of 650 degrees C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the takeoff limitations on thrust settings?

A

5 mins maximum, 10 mins for single engine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the distance the radar dome will transmit harmful radiation from the nose?

A

5 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the 5 doors monitored by the EICAS?

A
  • Aft equipment bay door
  • Battery bay door
  • Cargo door
  • Emergency exit
  • Main Cabin door
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

How are the doors monitored to determine open or close?

A

Proximity detectors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the CAS limitations on takeoff and landing?

A

To avoid a CAS during critical phase of flight, at 80kts to 400 feet or 60 seconds after takeoff the CAS system is disabled. On landing at 400 feet to a speed of 40kts or less, or 60 seconds after 400 feet.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the DCU and what purpose does it serve, where is it located?

A

Data Concentrator Unit. Sends all serial BUS information to the CAS system, it has 2 channels, 2 switches, and is located behind the head of the co-pilot.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How many bings for a MASTER WARNING and MASTER CAUTION

A

3 bings for a MASTER WARNING, 1 for a Caution

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the IFIS?

A

Integrated flight information systems. JEPP moving maps in the Co-pilot MFD.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the Integrated Avionics Processor System?

A

Is a physical collection of functional modules combined into an efficient mechanical package to minimize size, weight, and aircraft wiring, and to improve system reliability and maintainability. If this fails it must be replaced by MX.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What are the 7 items that would cause a configuration warning on takeoff?

A
  1. Aileron trim
  2. Auto pilot
  3. Flaps
  4. Rudder trim
  5. Spoilers
  6. Horizontal stab trim
  7. Park or Emergency Brake
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Describe the 2 main batteries/generators on the airplane.

A

2- 24Volt - 44 Amp batteries

3- DC Generators (2 from the engine and 1 from the APU, all are interchangeable.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are the 6 main buses of the electrical system?

A

L - AUX - L Main - L Ess —– R Ess - R Main - R Aux

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

How does the standby battery remain charged and how many hours in standby mode?

A

A trickle charge from the Right - Ess Bus. 3.5 hours.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What temperature will the battery cancel a dispatch?

A

-20C

28
Q

With an engine failure what BUS shreds off?

A

Both AUX buses

29
Q

How is the APU cooled?

A

Air cooled

30
Q

What are the volts and amp limitations using a GPU?

A

24.4v to 31.5v and 1500 amps

31
Q

The battery has how many heat detectors?

A

2

32
Q

At what temperature will you get a BATT FAIL and BATT OVERHEAT?

A

+65C Battery will FAIL, (BATT OFF)

+70C Battery overheat.

33
Q

How does the battery compartment warm?

A

Uses heat from the cabin.

34
Q

What is the procedures from the Go-Around?

A
  • TOGA (Wings level, pitch up, ADD power to REQ)
  • Flaps 10
  • Positive rate GEAR UP
  • HDG, FLC, V2
  • NAV 3 times, [NAV]
  • AUTOPILOT
  • 1500’ Pitch to Vt
35
Q

What will warn of a pending CFIT?

A

Enhanced Ground Proximity Warning System (Honeywell version of TAWS)

36
Q

What tank does the APU draw fuel from and at approximately what rate?

A

The right collector tank at 150-160lbs per hour

37
Q

Off what BUS does the APU start from?

A

Right MAIN BUS, the ECU is off the Left ESS BUS

38
Q

How does the APU shut off?

A

Closing of the fuel intake valve from the RIGHT fuel collector tank.

39
Q

What is the procedure for an APU fire, over-speed, over-temp on the ground?

A

All protections on the APU on the ground are automatic

40
Q

What is the procedure for an APU FIRE in the air?

A

Action is needed, only automatic on the ground, push APU FIRE, and #2 FIRE EXT (only #2 will reach the APU)

41
Q

What is the total fuel available?

A

14,150 lbs

42
Q

What is the total fuel available if you use the over wing fuel tank?

A

13,000 lbs (Gravity)

43
Q

How much fuel is located in each of the 2 fuel collectors?

A

360 lbs in each RIGHT and LEFT collector

44
Q

Which tank has the fuel temperature gauge?

A

RIGHT fuel tank

45
Q

How many fuel probes in each wing?

A

9

46
Q

How does the fuel flow into the collector tanks?

A

Each wing has a motor flow injector and a scavenge pump.

47
Q

What is the transfer rate using the fuel pumps to transfer fuel?

A

2500 lbs per hour

48
Q

When should you check the engine oil?

A

Oil can ONLY be checked 5 minutes after shutdown, not to exceed 30 mins.

49
Q

At what fuel level will you get a FUEL QUANTITY LOW?

A

300 lbs or less when the aircraft is in unaccelerated, level flight.

50
Q

What is the purpose of the Automatic Performance Reserve?

A

Allows for MAX takeoff thrust to a higher field elevation. High DA will get MAX takeoff thrust available. Wind-shear, Terrain.

51
Q

What is the IASC?

A

Integrated Air System Controller which controls the bleed air, Anti-ICE, Bleed leak monitoring, Pressurization, Avionics cooling.

52
Q

What are the two types of pressurized air coming off the bleed?

A
Intermediate Pressure (IP) A/C
High Pressure (HP) Hot air, Anti-Ice
53
Q

If you need to lock the Thrust Reverser where is that access panel?

A

In the nose wheel well compartment

54
Q

Under what circumstances will the FADEC shutdown the engine on startup?

A
  • No oil pressure
  • Hot start
  • Hung start
55
Q

What is the max ITT limit on the ground?

A

650C

56
Q

What is the PACK AIR?

A

Air cycle machine which provides A/C

57
Q

What is the purpose of the TRIM AIR?

A

Heat to the cabin

58
Q

What is the purpose of the 2 AFT bulk head pressurization safety valves?

A

Over/under pressure relief protection (9.25psi to -0.5psi) and the Altitude will max out at 14,500’ +/-500’

59
Q

What are the components of the L Hydraulic Systems?

A
L-Left thrust reverser 
U-Upper (Rudder-PCU)
I-Inboard (Spoilers, {Ground/Multi-Function}, elevator,            EMER Brakes)
N-Nose steering
G-Gear
A-Alt-Flaps
60
Q

What are the components of the R Hydraulic Systems?

A

R-Right thrust reverser
O-Outboard (Spoilers, {Ground/Multi-Function}, elevator, Brakes
L-Lower (Rudder PCU)
F-Flaps (normal flaps)

  • main landing gear assist
  • *PTU
61
Q

What’s the purpose of the AUX Hydraulic System

A

To provide hydraulic pressure to the lower rudder PCU as a result of the right hydraulic system failure

62
Q

What is the purpose of the PTU?

A

Assist in raising and lowering the landing gear if the left EDP system or left engine is not operational. It’s driven from the right hydraulic system.

63
Q

What will happen if the PTU switch is the AUTO position?

A
  • PTU will start when left engine/EDP is INOP or failed
  • right EDP is producing pressure
  • gear is not in its commanded position
  • the aircraft is in the air
64
Q

What is the purpose of the APU?

A

Extra DC power source

65
Q

How is the FADEC controlled during engine start.

A

Below 45 N2 it is controlled by the DC after by the PMA.

66
Q

What is the normal PSI of the hydraulic system.

A

3000 PSI