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Mesa Study Guide 12/17 > CL-65 Study Guide > Flashcards

CL-65 Study Guide Flashcards

1
Q

Max Ramp Weight

A

(900) 82,750 lbs.

(900ep) 85,000 lbs.

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2
Q

Max Takeoff Weight (MTOW)

A

(900) 82,500 lbs

(900ep) 84,500 lbs

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3
Q

Max Landing Weight (MLW)

A

(900) 73,500 lbs

(900ep) 75,100 lbs

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4
Q

Max Zero Fuel Weight (MZFW)

A

(900) 70,000 lbs

(900ep) 70,750 lbs

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5
Q

Min Flight Weight

A

45,000 lbs

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6
Q

Max Total Aft Cargo Compartment capacity

A

(900) 4375 lbs

(900ep) 3740 lbs

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7
Q

Max Total Fwd Cargo Compartment capacity

A

850 lbs

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8
Q

Max Total Center Cargo Compartment capacity

A

850 lbs

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9
Q

Max Pressure Refueling Fuel Capacities

A

Total 19,594 lbs
Mains 7,492 lbs
Center 4,610 lbs

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10
Q

Max Gravity Refueling Fuel Capacities

A

Total 14,810 lbs

Mains 7,405 lbs

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11
Q

What is the Wingspan

A

(900) 76’ 3”

(900ep) 81’ 6”

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12
Q

What is the Height of the Tail

A

24’ 1”

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13
Q

What is the minimum taxiway or runway surface width for a 180 degree turn

A

126’ 5”

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14
Q

What is the Length

A

118’ 11”

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15
Q

What is the width of the Horizontal Stabilizer

A

28’ 4”

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16
Q

What is the distance from Main to Main

A

13’ 6”

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17
Q

What is VMO

A

335 KIAS

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18
Q

What is MMO

A

0.85 mach

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19
Q

What is RVSM MMO

A

0.82 mach

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20
Q

What are the Flap Extension Speeds

A 
1*         230 KIAS
8*        230 KIAS
20*      220 KIAS
30*      185  KIAS
45*      170  KIAS
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21
Q

What is Max Landing Gear operating speed for extension (VLO)

A

220 KIAS

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22
Q

What is Max Landing Gear operating speed for retraction (VLO)

A

200 KIAS

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23
Q

What is Max Landing Gear Extended speed (VLE)

A

220 KIAS

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24
Q

What is Max Turbulence Penetration Speed

A

280 KIAS or 0.75 mach (whichever is slower)

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25
Q

What is Max Windshield Wiper Operation Speed

A

250 KIAS

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26
Q

What is Max operating Altitude

A

41,000 ft

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27
Q

What is Max airport pressure altitude for takeoff and landing

A

8,000 ft

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28
Q

CRJ 900 max demonstrated crosswind for takeoff and landing

A

22 knots

15 knots on a slippery runway

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29
Q

Max tailwind approved for takeoff and landing

A

10 knots

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30
Q

Max Tire Speed

A

195 knots

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31
Q

Max Altitude for extending Flaps

A

15,000 ft

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32
Q

Max Runway slopes for Takeoff and Landing

A

+2.0% uphill

-2.0% downhill

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33
Q

What type of floatation equipment is provided for the passengers

A

Seat Cushions

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34
Q

What type of floatation equipment is provided for the flight attendant

A

life vest located near the FA jumpseat wardrobe unit

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35
Q

How many life vests are in the flight deck

A

3 (one under captain’s and FO’s seat & one next to the jump seat)

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36
Q

What is the minimum crew oxygen system pressure for dispatch

A

Listed on a chart in the CFM, ch 4 (Cockpit Safety Inspection)

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37
Q

Where are the crew smoke goggles located

A

Either part of oxygen mask or under oxygen mask

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38
Q

How many sealed first aid kits and enhanced emergency medical kits must be on board

A

One of each

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39
Q

In what rows are the extra passenger oxygen masks located

A

All rows on right side

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40
Q

Where are the 2 flight deck flashlights located

A

One behind each seat

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41
Q

What is the power source for the emergency lighting system

A

5 battery packs

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42
Q

Can the FA select the emergency lights on, if the flight deck switch is off

A

Yes

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43
Q

How long will the emergency lights illuminate if the battery packs are fully charged

A

Approx. 10 minutes

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44
Q

Where are the smoke detectors located

A

1 in the fwd lavatory
1 in the aft lavatory
2 in the aft cargo compartment
3 in the fwd cargo compartment

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45
Q

What would cause Takeoff Configuration Warning

A 
(passfar)
Parking Brake ON
Autopilot ON
Spoilers Extended
Stab Trim out of green range
Flaps not 8* or 20*
Aileron Trim out of green range
Rudder Trim out of green range
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46
Q

The 115V AC external power receptacle is located

A

Forward right nose area

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47
Q

Where is the main battery located

A

Nose compartment

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48
Q

Where is the APU battery located

A

Aft Equipment Bay

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49
Q

Where is the crew oxygen bottle located

A

Forward of the passenger door

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50
Q

What is indicated if the green oxygen blowout disc is blown

A

Excessive pressure has occurred

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51
Q

Will the flight deck PA override the FA PA

A

Yes

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52
Q

How should we contact the flight attendant in an emergency

A

Turn the audio panel selector knob to PA, push the EMER call switchlight to generate three high/low chimes and a flashing red light on the FA’s overhead panel.

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53
Q

What indication do we get if the flight attendant is calling the flight deck because of an emergency in the cabin

A

We hear three high/low chimes and the EMER call switchlight will be flashing

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54
Q

How do we know if the company is trying to contact us

A

An ACARS message or “SELCAL, SELCAL” voice aural and a SELCAL advisory EICAS message

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55
Q

How many Air Data Computers (ADC) are installed

A

Two

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56
Q

How many AHRS or IRS computers are installed

A

Two

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57
Q

In MAG mode, how long does it take the AHRS system to initialize

A

30 to 70 seconds

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58
Q

In DG mode, how long does it take the AHRS system to initialize

A

10 to 11 minutes

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59
Q

From which source do the captain’s flight instruments receive AHRS information

A

AHRS 1 or IRS 1

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60
Q

From which source do the first officer’s flight instruments receive AHRS information

A

AHRS 2 or IRS 2

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61
Q

From which source do the captain’s flight instruments receive pitot/static information

A

System #1 pitot/static tube on the left side of nose

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62
Q

From which source do the first officer’s flight instruments receive pitot/static information

A

System #2 pitot/static tube on the right side of the nose

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63
Q

From which source does the integrated standby instrument receive pitot/static information

A

System #3 standby pitot under the captain’s side window and two alternate static ports, one on the left and one on the right side

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64
Q

Where is the TAT probe located

A

Under the FO’s side window

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65
Q

What is the definition of Total Air Temperature

A

The temperature of the air corrected for compressibility and friction cause by high speed

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66
Q

On the ground with the probe heat ON, which probes are heated?

A

All pitot probes are heated half way, all others are fully heated except the TAT probe which is not heated on the ground

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67
Q

In flight, which probes are heated

A

All are fully heated regardless of probe heat switch position

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68
Q

Is there a LOC and GS indication on the standby attitude indicator

A

Yes, referencing NAV 1

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69
Q

When and where will the radio altitude information appear

A

0 to 2500’ AGL indicated in green below the altitude tape

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70
Q

What does the speed trend vector indicate

A

Predicted airspeed in 10 seconds if no changes are made

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71
Q

When and where will the MACH readout appear

A

Appears when accelerating through 0.45 Mach. Disappears when decelerating through 0.4 MACH. Appears just above the airspeed tape in white

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72
Q

What does the green line on the airspeed tape indicate

A

1.27 Vs based on current configuration. Not accurate at high altitudes

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73
Q

Where is the slip and skid indicator located

A

A rectangle located just under the sky pointer

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74
Q

How many flight directors are installed

A

Two

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75
Q

How many autopilots are installed

A

One

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76
Q

What does the autopilot follow when engaged

A

The selected side flight director which defaults to the captain’s FD. The XFER button must be selected on the flight control panel to transfer to the FO’s FD

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77
Q

What happens when TOGA button is pushed on the ground

A

TO lateral mode
TO vertical mode
FMS aligns the aircraft at the end of the runway indicated on legs page, Autopilot disengages.

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78
Q

What does the TO lateral mode do

A

On the ground, it generates a wings level command. After takeoff, it generates a heading hold command with a 5* bank limit using the heading existing at takeoff

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79
Q

What does the TO vertical mode do

A

Generates an optimized pitch up attitude for takeoff

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80
Q

What happens when TOGA is pushed in flight

A

GA lateral mode
GA vertical mode
Missed approach procedure depiction appears on the MFD if instrument approach procedure selected in FMS
Autopilot disengages

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81
Q

What does GA lateral mode do

A

Same as TO lateral mode and follows heading flown when TOGA was pushed

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82
Q

What does GA vertical mode do

A

Generates a 10* pitch up attitude

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83
Q

After takeoff or go-around, the autopilot must not be engaged below what altitude

A

600 ft AGL

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84
Q

During visual and non-precision approaches, the autopilot must be disengaged by

A

400 ft AGL

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85
Q

During precision approaches, the autopilot must be disengaged by

A

80 ft AGL

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86
Q

During single-engine precision approaches, the Autopilot must be disengaged by?

A

80 ft AGL (700), 110 ft AGL (900)

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87
Q

When will the autopilot automatically disconnect

A 
AP/SP DISC button pushed
AP ENG button on FCP pushed
AP DISC switch bar pushed down
Stick shaker activated
TOGA buttons pressed
STAB TRIM manually operated
windshear warning (after 2 seconds)
excessive attitude
one or both FCCs fail
both yaw dampers disc or fail
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88
Q

Max permissible load on the APU Generator

A

40 KVA

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89
Q

Max altitude for APU starting

A

37,000 ft

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90
Q

Max altitude for APU operation

A

41,000 ft

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91
Q

Max altitude for APU bleed air extraction

A

25,000 ft

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92
Q

Max speed with APU door open

A

220 KIAS if APU not operating

~~ if APU is operating

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93
Q

What battery voltage is required before starting the APU

A

22 volts on both batteries

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94
Q

What does the main battery power during an APU start

A

APU ECU

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95
Q

What does the APU battery power during an APU start

A

Cranking of the 28 VDC start motor

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96
Q

When will the APU AVAIL switchlight illuminate

A

99% RPM plus 2 seconds

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97
Q

What is the CRJ-900 Powerplant Model Number

A

CF34-8C5

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98
Q

What is the thrust rating without APR/with APR

A

13,560 lbs / 14,750 lbs

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99
Q

What is the Max ambient air temperature for takeoff and landing

A

ISA + 35*C

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100
Q

What is the Min ambient air temperature for takeoff and landing

A

-40*C

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101
Q

What is the Max Altitude for a windmill start

A

21,000 ft MSL

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102
Q

Max engine to engine N2 split at ground idle power

A

2%

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103
Q

How much of the thrust is produced by core air

A

Approximately 20%

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104
Q

How much of the thrust is produced by by-pass air

A

Approximately 80%

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105
Q

How many stages of compression do we have

A

The engine is equipped with a 10 stage axial flow compressor

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106
Q

What accessories are driven off the N2 accessory gear box

A 
(fish oil +)
engine driven Fuel pump
IDG
air turbine Starter
engine driven Hyd pump
OIL pump
FADEC alternator
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107
Q

What is the engine bleed air used for

A

Engine start
Air Conditioning
Pressurization
Wing and Cowl Anti-Ice

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108
Q

What stages of bleed air are used

A

Normally 6th stage

10th stage used when demand exceeds capability of the 6th stage.

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109
Q

What allows 10th stage bleed air availability

A

Air Conditioning System Controller (ACSC) automatically opens the High Pressure Valve (HPV)

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110
Q

How many igniters are installed on each engine

A

Two… IGN-A and IGN-B

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111
Q

What are the required parameters before fuel is introduced during a ground engine start

A

20% or greater N2

ITT < 120*C

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112
Q

What is the air pressure requirement provided by the operating engine to initiate a cross-bleed start

A

42psi to a maximum of 80% N2

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113
Q

When will APR arm on takeoff

A

Engine speed within 8% of scheduled takeoff power, normal or flex

114
Q

When will APR system activate

A

Thrust Levers in TOGA

normal or flex thrust scheduled and N1’s differ by 15% or greater or when thrust levers set in the MAX POWER detent

115
Q

What occurs when the APR system activates

A

FADEC commands an N1 speed increase dependent on thrust lever position

116
Q

What indication will we have of APR activation

A

Green APR icon on operable engine N1 gauge

117
Q

If an engine fails during a go-around, will the APR system activate

A

Yes

118
Q

What is used to deploy and stow the thrust reversers

A

Hydraulics
L reverser uses hydraulic system #1
R reverser uses hydraulic system #2

119
Q

How are the thrust reversers deployed

A

Thrust levers must be at idle. The reverse thrust levers are raised by engaging the thrust reverse release triggers. A solenoid lock stops reverse thrust lever movement while the reversers deploy. Once deployed, the lock releases and N1 may be increased by raising the reverse thrust levers.

120
Q

What is occurring during thrust reverser deployment

A

The translating cowls move aft. the bypass air is redirected through cascade vanes which redirect the air forward.

121
Q

What indications will be seen with normal thrust reverser deployment

A

Green REV icon on N1 gauges

122
Q

When do the thrust reversers need to be either stowed or at idle

A 
60 kts (900)
75 kts (700)
123
Q

What happens when a thrust reverser inadvertently deploys

A

FADEC commands thrust to be set to idle on affected engine.

124
Q

What are the indications of an inadvertent thrust reverser deployment

A

Amber REV icon on N1 gauge

REV UNLOCKED caution message

125
Q

What is the normal air source for engine starts

A

APU or cross-bleed if doing a single engine taxi

126
Q

What source is used if the APU is INOP

A

Ground air cart or bottle attached to the high pressure air ground connection to start one engine.
A cross bleed start is then used to start the other engine after clearing it with ground control.

127
Q

Where is the high pressure air ground connection located

A

Under left engine nacelle

128
Q

When will the starter cut-out during an engine start

A

50% N2

129
Q

What are the engine starter cranking limits

A

1st and 2nd attempt
90 sec ON - 10 sec OFF
3rd thru 5th attempt
90 sec ON - 5 min OFF

130
Q

What are the Dry Motoring limits

A

1st attempt
90 sec ON - 5 min OFF
2nd thru 5th attempt
30 sec ON - 5 min OFF

131
Q

What are the APU Starter limits

A

No more than 3 start attempts in one hour. 2 minute delay required between start attempts

132
Q

Min Oil Temp for start

A

-40*C

133
Q

Max Continuous Oil Temp

A

155*C

134
Q

Max permissible Oil Temp

A

163*C (15 minutes max)

135
Q

Max Oil Consumption

A

0.05 gallons/hr

136
Q

Where do we check the oil quantity

A

On the EICAS menu page

137
Q

When should the Oil Capacity be checked

A

3 minutes to 2 hours after shutdown

138
Q

When should the Engine Oil level be replenished

A

15 minutes to 2 hours after shutdown

139
Q

Max refill without dry motoring

A

2 quarts

140
Q

How is the oil cooled

A

Fuel/Oil heat exchanger

141
Q

What is the total quantity of the engine oil tanks

A

7.2 quarts

142
Q

What are the fuel quantities for pressure refueling

A

Total: 19,594 lbs
Mains: 7,492 lbs
Center: 4,610 lbs

143
Q

What are the fuel quantities for gravity refueling

A

Total: 14,810 lbs
Mains: 7,405 lbs

144
Q

How is the fuel moved from the center tank to the main tanks

A

transfer ejectors

145
Q

How is the fuel moved from the main tanks to the collector tanks

A

scavenge ejectors

gravity line used as a backup

146
Q

How is the fuel moved from the collector tanks to the engine driven high pressure fuel pump

A

main ejectors

backed up by boost pumps

147
Q

What is the function of the electric boost pumps

A

To provide initial fuel for engine start and to back-up the main ejectors

148
Q

What is the flight deck indication of a high pressure fuel pump failure

A

Engine flameout

149
Q

What is the maximum fuel imbalance

A

300 lbs for takeoff

800 lbs for all other phases

150
Q

When will the fuel system automatically begin transferring fuel

A

200 lbs fuel imbalance

151
Q

When are the boost pumps automatically energized

A

Low pressure from the main ejectors (if the pumps are armed)

152
Q

Where is the high pressure fuel pump located

A

N2 accessory gearbox

153
Q

Where is bulk fuel temperature taken

A

Right main tank

154
Q

What is the minimum bulk fuel temp for takeoff (Jet-A)

A

-30*C

155
Q

What is the minimum bulk fuel temp during flight (Jet-A)

A

Above -40*C

156
Q

How is engine fuel heated

A

Fuel/oil heat exchanger

157
Q

What is the minimum engine fuel temperature for takeoff

A

+5*C

158
Q

What is the takeoff limitation if the center tank has >500 lbs of fuel

A

Each main tank must have > 4400 lbs

159
Q

Which bus powers the refuel/defuel panel and refuel/defuel SOVs

A

APU battery direct bus

160
Q

Where is the refuel/defuel panel located

A

The fuselage forward of right wing

161
Q

Where is the single point adapter located

A

Right wing root

162
Q

Normal pressure differential is

A

8.5 psi

163
Q

Max pressure differential is

A

8.7 psi

164
Q

Max pressure differential during taxi, takeoff and landing

A

0.1 psi

165
Q

Max negative pressure differential

A
  • 0.5 psi
166
Q

During single pack operation, what is the max altitude

A

CRJ 900 - FL250

167
Q

What does DISPLAY COOL or ARINC COOL Caution messages mean

A

Low airflow behind screens or within the avionics rack

168
Q

When do pressurization controllers swap

A

WOW plus 3 minutes or if one PC fails, the redundant controller takes over

169
Q

How many pressurization controllers are installed on the CRJ900

A

2, PC1 and PC2

170
Q

When operating in the auto mode, what is the cabin rate of climb and descent

A

500 fpm climb

300 fpm descent

171
Q

When operating in the manual mode, what range is controlled by the MAN RATE knob

A

50 fpm to 3000 fpm

+- 1000 fpm

172
Q

When will the primary page indicate a CABIN ALT Caution message

A

Cabin altitude between 8,500 and 10,000 ft

173
Q

When will the primary page indicate a CABIN ALT Warning message

A

Cabin altitude > 10,000 ft

174
Q

When will CPAM automatically deploy the passenger oxygen masks

A

Cabin altitude > 14,000 ft

175
Q

When will CPAM turn on the NO SMOKING/FASTEN SEATBELT signs

A

Cabin altitude > 10,000 ft

with switches in the AUTO position

176
Q

Can we carry live animals in the cargo compartment of the CRJ900

A

Yes, Aft cargo compartment only

177
Q

What causes the FAULT portion of a PACK switchlight to illuminate

A

Over pressure

Over temp condition

178
Q

What causes the FAULT portion of the PRESS CONT switchlight to illuminate

A

Both pressurization controllers have failed

179
Q

What is the source of heating for wing and cowl anti-ice

A

6th or 10th stage bleed air

180
Q

When is cowl anti-ice required to be ON during ground operations

A

OAT <= 10C in visible moisture. (fog with visibility 1sm or less, rain, snow, sleet, ice crystals)
OAT <= 10C on contaminated ramps, taxiways, or runways

181
Q

When is cowl anti-ice required to be ON during flight

A

TAT <= 10C in visible moisture (such as clouds, rain, snow, sleet, or ice crystals)
(Except when SAT is <= -40C) or when ICE is annunciated

182
Q

When is wing anti-ice required to be ON during ground operations

A

OAT <= 5C in visible moisture (fog with visibility 1 sm or less, rain, snow sleet, ice crystals). OAT <=5C on contaminated runways. If Type II, Type III or Type IV deicing fluid has been applied, select wing anti-ice ON just prior to thrust increase for takeoff.

183
Q

When is wing anti-ice required to be ON during flight operations

A

TAT <= 10C in visible moisture (such as clouds, rain, snow, sleet, or ice crystals) with airspeed <230 KIAS except when SAT is <= -40C, or when ICE is annunciated

184
Q

What is a good ICE detector test indication

A

ICE caution message, the ICE switchlight illuminated, ADS HEAT TEST OK advisory message.

185
Q

What is the purpose of the Wing A/I cross-bleed switch

A

To allow the bleed air from one engine to anti-ice the opposite wing

186
Q

What occurs with the Windshield Heat on LOW?

A

All 4 panels are heated to 24*C

187
Q

What occurs with the Windshield Heat on High?

A

Side windows are heated to 24C and both windshields are heated to 41C

188
Q

How many fire detection loops are installed on each engine?

A

Two, dual loops mounted in parallel

189
Q

What type of Halon is in the engine fires bottles?

A

halon 1301 pressurized with dry nitrogen

190
Q

How is an engine fire detected by the crew?

A

Appropriate ENG FIRE PUSH switchlight illuminates, fire bell sounds, and an EICAS warning message.

191
Q

What occurs when the ENG FIRE PUSH switchlight is pushed?

A

Fuel SOV closes,
HYD SOV closes,
Bleed air SOVs close,
generator is de-energized and the appropriate squibs are armed.

192
Q

Can we blow both bottles into one engine, if necessary?

A

Yes

193
Q

How many fire detection loops are inside the APU containment case?

A

Two, dual loops mounted in parallel

194
Q

How is an in-flight APU fire detected by the crew?

A

APU FIRE PUSH switchlight illuminates, fire bell sounds, and an APU FIRE warning message on EICAS.

195
Q

How many firex bottles are available for an APU fire

A

One

196
Q

What type of extinguishing agent is used in the APU firex bottle?

A

Halon 1301 pressurized with dry nitrogen.

197
Q

What occurs during an unattended APU fire on the ground?

A

APU ECU shuts down the APU. 5 seconds later, the APU bottle will discharge automatically.

198
Q

How many smoke detectors are there in the aft cargo compartment?

A

Two

199
Q

How many smoke detectors are there in the fwd cargo compartment

A

Three

200
Q

What are the flight deck indications of cargo smoke?

A 
Triple chime
Master Warning flashers,
"SMOKE" aural,
SMOKE AFT/FWD CARGO warning message,
Either FWD or AFT CARGO SMOKE PUSH switch lights illuminate.
201
Q

How many firex bottles are there for cargo smoke

A

Two, one is a slow metered standard bottle that should last approximately 60 minutes, and the other is a quick discharge bottle.

202
Q

How many smoke detectors are located in the lavatories?

A

One in the fwd and one in the aft.

203
Q

What indication do we have for smoke in a lavatory?

A

Triple chime, master warning flashers, SMOKE FWD LAV or SMOKE AFT LAV warning messages.

204
Q

What protection do we have for a lavatory waste compartment fire?

A

A firex bottle with heat sensitive capsules that will melt to discharge Halon 1301 directly into the waste compartment.

205
Q

What indication will we get with a waste compartment fire?

A

None, unless it generates enough smoke to set off a smoke detector.

206
Q

Location of Main Battery?

A

Nose compartment

207
Q

Location of the APU Battery?

A

Aft equipment bay

208
Q

Max Engine Generator load?

A

40 KVA

209
Q

Max APU Generator load?

A

40 KVA

210
Q

Max Transformer rectifier unit (TRU) load?

A

120 amps

211
Q

Max permissible time for ground operations with battery power only?

A

5 minutes

212
Q

What is the reason for the previous limitation? (5 minute battery limit)

A

To prevent ED1 and ED2 from overheating (fans are AC powered)

213
Q

How many TRUs are installed in the CRJ 900?

A

4

214
Q

Where are the TRUs located?

A

nose compartment

215
Q

The Main Battery is rated to?

A

17 ampere hour/24 volts

216
Q

The APU Battery is rated to?

A

43 ampere hour/24 volts

217
Q

How many generators are installed?

A

4, 2 engine generators, 1 APU generator, 1 ADG

218
Q

What is the function of the 4 TRUs?

A

To convert 115 Vac to 28 Vdc

219
Q

How are the TRUs cooled?

A

Individual fans

220
Q

Which buses are powered when the Battery Master switch is selected on?

A

Main Battery Direct bus,
APU Battery Direct bus,
DC Battery bus

221
Q

If the main buses are powered, are the essential buses automatically powered?

A

Yes

222
Q

Is there an on/off switch for the TRUs?

A

No, they are automatically powered when the AC busses are powered

223
Q

What controls the DC tie contactors?

A

The DC Power Centers (DCPC) automatically control DC tie operation

224
Q

When will the Air Driven Generator (ADG) automatically deploy?

A

With complete loss of A/C power

225
Q

With the ADG deployed, what are the basic items that are powered?

A

AC ESS Bus, HYD Pump 3B, flaps/slats, STAB trim CH2

226
Q

What is the ADG max load?

A

15 KVA

227
Q

How many separate hydraulic systems are there on the CRJ900?

A

3

228
Q

Hydraulic systems 1, 2 and 3 normal pressure is?

A

3000 psi.

229
Q

Hyd Low pressure (Caution) occurs at what pressure?

A

< 1800 psi.

230
Q

Hyd High pressure occurs at what pressure?

A

3200 psi.

231
Q

What is the normal hyd system quantity?

A

45% to 85%

232
Q

Hyd High temperature condition occurs at what temp?

A

> = 96*C

233
Q

The HYD HI TEMP caution indicates that hydraulic fluid is hot in what part of system?

A

The reservoir

234
Q

How many hydraulics pumps are there?

A

6, 3 full-time (“A” pumps),

3 part-time (“B” pumps)

235
Q

When will the “B” pumps operate?

A

Switch ON or with switches in AUTO at least one generator online and flaps > 0

236
Q

When will hydraulic pump 3B operate?

A

Switch ON or with the switch in AUTO, at least one generator online and flaps > 0 or ADG deployed

237
Q

What type of hydraulic fluid is used?

A

Skydrol

238
Q

What color is the hydraulic fluid?

A

Purple

239
Q

When will hyd pressure relief occur?

A

> = 3750 psi.

240
Q

Which yoke is connected to the right aileron?

A

First Officer’s

241
Q

Which yoke is connected to the left aileron?

A

Captain’s

242
Q

How are the ailerons, elevators and rudder actuated?

A

Yoke and pedals operate a system of cables and pulleys that connect to pull and push rods at the flight control which operate a hydraulic PCU (power control unit) which hydraulically actuates the control surface.

243
Q

Which yoke controls the right elevator?

A

First officer’s

244
Q

Which yoke controls the left elevator?

A

Captain’s

245
Q

What is the purpose of the Multifunction Spoilers (MFS)?

A

To assist with roll control and serve as a spoiler in flight and on landing.

246
Q

Are the Multifunction spoilers operational at any speed?

A

Yes

247
Q

How are the MFSs controlled when used for roll assistance?

A

The FO’s yoke position sends an electrical signal to the left MFS panels which are hydraulically operated by PCUs. the CAs yoke position sends an electrical signal to the right MFS panels which are hydraulically operated by PCUs.

248
Q

What is the flight deck indication of a jammed aileron cable?

A

Both yokes will be jammed

249
Q

What happens after the ROLL DISC handle is pulled?

A

The aileron cable and pulley systems are disconnected through torque tubes. 20 seconds later, if the operable side has not been selected, the amber ROL SEL switchlight illuminates.

250
Q

How is the operable side selected?

A

By pushing the ROL SEL/PLT ROL switchlight on the unjammed side.

251
Q

What does pushing the ROL SEL/PLT ROL switchlight accomplish?

A

Allows the pilot with the operable aileron to control the on-side MFS panels.

252
Q

What is the flight deck indication of an aileron PCU runaway?

A

Aircraft begins an uncommanded roll and the PLT SEL switchlight on the side without the PCU runaway illuminates automatically because of the bungee break-out signal.

253
Q

What is occurring when the pilots trim the ailerons or rudder?

A

The control surface is being repositioned. There are no trim tabs.

254
Q

What panels are part of the GND LIFT dumping system?

A

Inboard and outboard ground spoilers, all 4 MFS panels.

255
Q

How are the flight controls gust locked?

A

Hydraulic fluid is trapped during shutdown.

256
Q

How is the Yaw Damper engaged?

A

YD1 and YD2 engage switchlights on the center pedestal

257
Q

How is the Yaw Damper disengaged?

A

DISC button on the center pedestal.

258
Q

What controls the yaw damper?

A

The flight control computer

259
Q

Is it necessary to disconnect the Yaw Damper on landing?

A

No

260
Q

How are the flaps operated?

A

Electrically

261
Q

How many flap segments does the CRJ have?

A

4 total, 2 on each wing

262
Q

Is there any asymmetrical protection within the flaps?

A

Yes, if the flap segments differ by > 5 degrees, the brakes are applied and the flaps will remain at the current position.

263
Q

How is STAB TRIM operated?

A

Electrically. A split switch on the control yoke operates two motors and a jack screw changing the horizontal stabilizer angle of incidence. (+2 - -13)

264
Q

What systems can operate the STAB TRIM?

A

CAs trim switches
FOs trim switches
autopilot and MACH trim

265
Q

What is the priority for STAB TRIM control?

A

CA
FO
Autopilot
MACH trim

266
Q

How is the main landing gear held in the up and down position?

A

Mechanical up and down locks

267
Q

How is the nose gear held in the up and down position?

A

Over center mechanism

268
Q

Do the forward nose gear doors remain open after a normal extension?

A

Yes

269
Q

How are the nose gear doors actuated?

A

Mechanically

270
Q

What is the purpose of the brushes on the main wheel wells?

A

Aerodynamic seal

271
Q

Where do you look to determine the position of the landing gear?

A

EICAS primary page

272
Q

Which component monitors the position of up locks, down locks, and gear door position and WOW sensors?

A

PSEU (proximity sensing electronic unit)

273
Q

Which component ensures that the gear handle cannot be moved to the UP position on the ground?

A

Down-lock solenoid

274
Q

Which hydraulic system operates the inboard brakes?

A

system #3

275
Q

Which hydraulic system operates the outboard brakes?

A

system #2

276
Q

When does the Anti-skid operate?

A

wheel spin up >=35 kts or

WOW + 5 seconds

277
Q

What is the nose wheel steering degree of travel limits with nose wheel steering ON?

A

8* either side of center for rudder pedals. 80* either side of center for tiller

278
Q

At what speed does anti-skid control stop operating?

A

Wheel speed <= 10 kts

279
Q

What occurs during an APU fire in flight?

A

The APU ECU shuts down the APU. The bottle does not discharge automatically, the crew must discharge the bottle.

280
Q

What is the full charge pressure of the crew oxygen system?

A

1,850 psi

281
Q

When will the OXY LO PRESS caution appear on EICAS?

A

Below 1410 psi

Mesa Study Guide 12/17 (2 decks)

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