CL-65 Study Guide Flashcards
1
Q
Max Ramp Weight
A
(900) 82,750 lbs.
(900ep) 85,000 lbs.
2
Q
Max Takeoff Weight (MTOW)
A
(900) 82,500 lbs
(900ep) 84,500 lbs
3
Q
Max Landing Weight (MLW)
A
(900) 73,500 lbs
(900ep) 75,100 lbs
4
Q
Max Zero Fuel Weight (MZFW)
A
(900) 70,000 lbs
(900ep) 70,750 lbs
5
Q
Min Flight Weight
A
45,000 lbs
6
Q
Max Total Aft Cargo Compartment capacity
A
(900) 4375 lbs
(900ep) 3740 lbs
7
Q
Max Total Fwd Cargo Compartment capacity
A
850 lbs
8
Q
Max Total Center Cargo Compartment capacity
A
850 lbs
9
Q
Max Pressure Refueling Fuel Capacities
A
Total 19,594 lbs
Mains 7,492 lbs
Center 4,610 lbs
10
Q
Max Gravity Refueling Fuel Capacities
A
Total 14,810 lbs
Mains 7,405 lbs
11
Q
What is the Wingspan
A
(900) 76’ 3”
(900ep) 81’ 6”
12
Q
What is the Height of the Tail
A
24’ 1”
13
Q
What is the minimum taxiway or runway surface width for a 180 degree turn
A
126’ 5”
14
Q
What is the Length
A
118’ 11”
15
Q
What is the width of the Horizontal Stabilizer
A
28’ 4”
16
Q
What is the distance from Main to Main
A
13’ 6”
17
Q
What is VMO
A
335 KIAS
18
Q
What is MMO
A
0.85 mach
19
Q
What is RVSM MMO
A
0.82 mach
20
Q
What are the Flap Extension Speeds
A
1* 230 KIAS 8* 230 KIAS 20* 220 KIAS 30* 185 KIAS 45* 170 KIAS
21
Q
What is Max Landing Gear operating speed for extension (VLO)
A
220 KIAS
22
Q
What is Max Landing Gear operating speed for retraction (VLO)
A
200 KIAS
23
Q
What is Max Landing Gear Extended speed (VLE)
A
220 KIAS
24
Q
What is Max Turbulence Penetration Speed
A
280 KIAS or 0.75 mach (whichever is slower)
25
What is Max Windshield Wiper Operation Speed
250 KIAS
26
What is Max operating Altitude
41,000 ft
27
What is Max airport pressure altitude for takeoff and landing
8,000 ft
28
CRJ 900 max demonstrated crosswind for takeoff and landing
22 knots
| 15 knots on a slippery runway
29
Max tailwind approved for takeoff and landing
10 knots
30
Max Tire Speed
195 knots
31
Max Altitude for extending Flaps
15,000 ft
32
Max Runway slopes for Takeoff and Landing
+2.0% uphill
| -2.0% downhill
33
What type of floatation equipment is provided for the passengers
Seat Cushions
34
What type of floatation equipment is provided for the flight attendant
life vest located near the FA jumpseat wardrobe unit
35
How many life vests are in the flight deck
3 (one under captain's and FO's seat & one next to the jump seat)
36
What is the minimum crew oxygen system pressure for dispatch
Listed on a chart in the CFM, ch 4 (Cockpit Safety Inspection)
37
Where are the crew smoke goggles located
Either part of oxygen mask or under oxygen mask
38
How many sealed first aid kits and enhanced emergency medical kits must be on board
One of each
39
In what rows are the extra passenger oxygen masks located
All rows on right side
40
Where are the 2 flight deck flashlights located
One behind each seat
41
What is the power source for the emergency lighting system
5 battery packs
42
Can the FA select the emergency lights on, if the flight deck switch is off
Yes
43
How long will the emergency lights illuminate if the battery packs are fully charged
Approx. 10 minutes
44
Where are the smoke detectors located
1 in the fwd lavatory
1 in the aft lavatory
2 in the aft cargo compartment
3 in the fwd cargo compartment
45
What would cause Takeoff Configuration Warning
```
(passfar)
Parking Brake ON
Autopilot ON
Spoilers Extended
Stab Trim out of green range
Flaps not 8* or 20*
Aileron Trim out of green range
Rudder Trim out of green range
```
46
The 115V AC external power receptacle is located
Forward right nose area
47
Where is the main battery located
Nose compartment
48
Where is the APU battery located
Aft Equipment Bay
49
Where is the crew oxygen bottle located
Forward of the passenger door
50
What is indicated if the green oxygen blowout disc is blown
Excessive pressure has occurred
51
Will the flight deck PA override the FA PA
Yes
52
How should we contact the flight attendant in an emergency
Turn the audio panel selector knob to PA, push the EMER call switchlight to generate three high/low chimes and a flashing red light on the FA's overhead panel.
53
What indication do we get if the flight attendant is calling the flight deck because of an emergency in the cabin
We hear three high/low chimes and the EMER call switchlight will be flashing
54
How do we know if the company is trying to contact us
An ACARS message or "SELCAL, SELCAL" voice aural and a SELCAL advisory EICAS message
55
How many Air Data Computers (ADC) are installed
Two
56
How many AHRS or IRS computers are installed
Two
57
In MAG mode, how long does it take the AHRS system to initialize
30 to 70 seconds
58
In DG mode, how long does it take the AHRS system to initialize
10 to 11 minutes
59
From which source do the captain's flight instruments receive AHRS information
AHRS 1 or IRS 1
60
From which source do the first officer's flight instruments receive AHRS information
AHRS 2 or IRS 2
61
From which source do the captain's flight instruments receive pitot/static information
System #1 pitot/static tube on the left side of nose
62
From which source do the first officer's flight instruments receive pitot/static information
System #2 pitot/static tube on the right side of the nose
63
From which source does the integrated standby instrument receive pitot/static information
System #3 standby pitot under the captain's side window and two alternate static ports, one on the left and one on the right side
64
Where is the TAT probe located
Under the FO's side window
65
What is the definition of Total Air Temperature
The temperature of the air corrected for compressibility and friction cause by high speed
66
On the ground with the probe heat ON, which probes are heated?
All pitot probes are heated half way, all others are fully heated except the TAT probe which is not heated on the ground
67
In flight, which probes are heated
All are fully heated regardless of probe heat switch position
68
Is there a LOC and GS indication on the standby attitude indicator
Yes, referencing NAV 1
69
When and where will the radio altitude information appear
0 to 2500' AGL indicated in green below the altitude tape
70
What does the speed trend vector indicate
Predicted airspeed in 10 seconds if no changes are made
71
When and where will the MACH readout appear
Appears when accelerating through 0.45 Mach. Disappears when decelerating through 0.4 MACH. Appears just above the airspeed tape in white
72
What does the green line on the airspeed tape indicate
1.27 Vs based on current configuration. Not accurate at high altitudes
73
Where is the slip and skid indicator located
A rectangle located just under the sky pointer
74
How many flight directors are installed
Two
75
How many autopilots are installed
One
76
What does the autopilot follow when engaged
The selected side flight director which defaults to the captain's FD. The XFER button must be selected on the flight control panel to transfer to the FO's FD
77
What happens when TOGA button is pushed on the ground
TO lateral mode
TO vertical mode
FMS aligns the aircraft at the end of the runway indicated on legs page, Autopilot disengages.
78
What does the TO lateral mode do
On the ground, it generates a wings level command. After takeoff, it generates a heading hold command with a 5* bank limit using the heading existing at takeoff
79
What does the TO vertical mode do
Generates an optimized pitch up attitude for takeoff
80
What happens when TOGA is pushed in flight
GA lateral mode
GA vertical mode
Missed approach procedure depiction appears on the MFD if instrument approach procedure selected in FMS
Autopilot disengages
81
What does GA lateral mode do
Same as TO lateral mode and follows heading flown when TOGA was pushed
82
What does GA vertical mode do
Generates a 10* pitch up attitude
83
After takeoff or go-around, the autopilot must not be engaged below what altitude
600 ft AGL
84
During visual and non-precision approaches, the autopilot must be disengaged by
400 ft AGL
85
During precision approaches, the autopilot must be disengaged by
80 ft AGL
86
During single-engine precision approaches, the Autopilot must be disengaged by?
80 ft AGL (700), 110 ft AGL (900)
87
When will the autopilot automatically disconnect
```
AP/SP DISC button pushed
AP ENG button on FCP pushed
AP DISC switch bar pushed down
Stick shaker activated
TOGA buttons pressed
STAB TRIM manually operated
windshear warning (after 2 seconds)
excessive attitude
one or both FCCs fail
both yaw dampers disc or fail
```
88
Max permissible load on the APU Generator
40 KVA
89
Max altitude for APU starting
37,000 ft
90
Max altitude for APU operation
41,000 ft
91
Max altitude for APU bleed air extraction
25,000 ft
92
Max speed with APU door open
220 KIAS if APU not operating
| ~~ if APU is operating
93
What battery voltage is required before starting the APU
22 volts on both batteries
94
What does the main battery power during an APU start
APU ECU
95
What does the APU battery power during an APU start
Cranking of the 28 VDC start motor
96
When will the APU AVAIL switchlight illuminate
99% RPM plus 2 seconds
97
What is the CRJ-900 Powerplant Model Number
CF34-8C5
98
What is the thrust rating without APR/with APR
13,560 lbs / 14,750 lbs
99
What is the Max ambient air temperature for takeoff and landing
ISA + 35*C
100
What is the Min ambient air temperature for takeoff and landing
-40*C
101
What is the Max Altitude for a windmill start
21,000 ft MSL
102
Max engine to engine N2 split at ground idle power
2%
103
How much of the thrust is produced by core air
Approximately 20%
104
How much of the thrust is produced by by-pass air
Approximately 80%
105
How many stages of compression do we have
The engine is equipped with a 10 stage axial flow compressor
106
What accessories are driven off the N2 accessory gear box
```
(fish oil +)
engine driven Fuel pump
IDG
air turbine Starter
engine driven Hyd pump
OIL pump
FADEC alternator
```
107
What is the engine bleed air used for
Engine start
Air Conditioning
Pressurization
Wing and Cowl Anti-Ice
108
What stages of bleed air are used
Normally 6th stage
| 10th stage used when demand exceeds capability of the 6th stage.
109
What allows 10th stage bleed air availability
Air Conditioning System Controller (ACSC) automatically opens the High Pressure Valve (HPV)
110
How many igniters are installed on each engine
Two... IGN-A and IGN-B
111
What are the required parameters before fuel is introduced during a ground engine start
20% or greater N2
| ITT < 120*C
112
What is the air pressure requirement provided by the operating engine to initiate a cross-bleed start
42psi to a maximum of 80% N2
113
When will APR arm on takeoff
Engine speed within 8% of scheduled takeoff power, normal or flex
114
When will APR system activate
Thrust Levers in TOGA
| normal or flex thrust scheduled and N1's differ by 15% or greater or when thrust levers set in the MAX POWER detent
115
What occurs when the APR system activates
FADEC commands an N1 speed increase dependent on thrust lever position
116
What indication will we have of APR activation
Green APR icon on operable engine N1 gauge
117
If an engine fails during a go-around, will the APR system activate
Yes
118
What is used to deploy and stow the thrust reversers
Hydraulics
L reverser uses hydraulic system #1
R reverser uses hydraulic system #2
119
How are the thrust reversers deployed
Thrust levers must be at idle. The reverse thrust levers are raised by engaging the thrust reverse release triggers. A solenoid lock stops reverse thrust lever movement while the reversers deploy. Once deployed, the lock releases and N1 may be increased by raising the reverse thrust levers.
120
What is occurring during thrust reverser deployment
The translating cowls move aft. the bypass air is redirected through cascade vanes which redirect the air forward.
121
What indications will be seen with normal thrust reverser deployment
Green REV icon on N1 gauges
122
When do the thrust reversers need to be either stowed or at idle
```
60 kts (900)
75 kts (700)
```
123
What happens when a thrust reverser inadvertently deploys
FADEC commands thrust to be set to idle on affected engine.
124
What are the indications of an inadvertent thrust reverser deployment
Amber REV icon on N1 gauge
| REV UNLOCKED caution message
125
What is the normal air source for engine starts
APU or cross-bleed if doing a single engine taxi
126
What source is used if the APU is INOP
Ground air cart or bottle attached to the high pressure air ground connection to start one engine.
A cross bleed start is then used to start the other engine after clearing it with ground control.
127
Where is the high pressure air ground connection located
Under left engine nacelle
128
When will the starter cut-out during an engine start
50% N2
129
What are the engine starter cranking limits
1st and 2nd attempt
90 sec ON - 10 sec OFF
3rd thru 5th attempt
90 sec ON - 5 min OFF
130
What are the Dry Motoring limits
1st attempt
90 sec ON - 5 min OFF
2nd thru 5th attempt
30 sec ON - 5 min OFF
131
What are the APU Starter limits
No more than 3 start attempts in one hour. 2 minute delay required between start attempts
132
Min Oil Temp for start
-40*C
133
Max Continuous Oil Temp
155*C
134
Max permissible Oil Temp
163*C (15 minutes max)
135
Max Oil Consumption
0.05 gallons/hr
136
Where do we check the oil quantity
On the EICAS menu page
137
When should the Oil Capacity be checked
3 minutes to 2 hours after shutdown
138
When should the Engine Oil level be replenished
15 minutes to 2 hours after shutdown
139
Max refill without dry motoring
2 quarts
140
How is the oil cooled
Fuel/Oil heat exchanger
141
What is the total quantity of the engine oil tanks
7.2 quarts
142
What are the fuel quantities for pressure refueling
Total: 19,594 lbs
Mains: 7,492 lbs
Center: 4,610 lbs
143
What are the fuel quantities for gravity refueling
Total: 14,810 lbs
Mains: 7,405 lbs
144
How is the fuel moved from the center tank to the main tanks
transfer ejectors
145
How is the fuel moved from the main tanks to the collector tanks
scavenge ejectors
| gravity line used as a backup
146
How is the fuel moved from the collector tanks to the engine driven high pressure fuel pump
main ejectors
| backed up by boost pumps
147
What is the function of the electric boost pumps
To provide initial fuel for engine start and to back-up the main ejectors
148
What is the flight deck indication of a high pressure fuel pump failure
Engine flameout
149
What is the maximum fuel imbalance
300 lbs for takeoff
| 800 lbs for all other phases
150
When will the fuel system automatically begin transferring fuel
200 lbs fuel imbalance
151
When are the boost pumps automatically energized
Low pressure from the main ejectors (if the pumps are armed)
152
Where is the high pressure fuel pump located
N2 accessory gearbox
153
Where is bulk fuel temperature taken
Right main tank
154
What is the minimum bulk fuel temp for takeoff (Jet-A)
-30*C
155
What is the minimum bulk fuel temp during flight (Jet-A)
Above -40*C
156
How is engine fuel heated
Fuel/oil heat exchanger
157
What is the minimum engine fuel temperature for takeoff
+5*C
158
What is the takeoff limitation if the center tank has >500 lbs of fuel
Each main tank must have > 4400 lbs
159
Which bus powers the refuel/defuel panel and refuel/defuel SOVs
APU battery direct bus
160
Where is the refuel/defuel panel located
The fuselage forward of right wing
161
Where is the single point adapter located
Right wing root
162
Normal pressure differential is
8.5 psi
163
Max pressure differential is
8.7 psi
164
Max pressure differential during taxi, takeoff and landing
0.1 psi
165
Max negative pressure differential
- 0.5 psi
166
During single pack operation, what is the max altitude
CRJ 900 - FL250
167
What does DISPLAY COOL or ARINC COOL Caution messages mean
Low airflow behind screens or within the avionics rack
168
When do pressurization controllers swap
WOW plus 3 minutes or if one PC fails, the redundant controller takes over
169
How many pressurization controllers are installed on the CRJ900
2, PC1 and PC2
170
When operating in the auto mode, what is the cabin rate of climb and descent
500 fpm climb
| 300 fpm descent
171
When operating in the manual mode, what range is controlled by the MAN RATE knob
50 fpm to 3000 fpm
| +- 1000 fpm
172
When will the primary page indicate a CABIN ALT Caution message
Cabin altitude between 8,500 and 10,000 ft
173
When will the primary page indicate a CABIN ALT Warning message
Cabin altitude > 10,000 ft
174
When will CPAM automatically deploy the passenger oxygen masks
Cabin altitude > 14,000 ft
175
When will CPAM turn on the NO SMOKING/FASTEN SEATBELT signs
Cabin altitude > 10,000 ft
| with switches in the AUTO position
176
Can we carry live animals in the cargo compartment of the CRJ900
Yes, Aft cargo compartment only
177
What causes the FAULT portion of a PACK switchlight to illuminate
Over pressure
| Over temp condition
178
What causes the FAULT portion of the PRESS CONT switchlight to illuminate
Both pressurization controllers have failed
179
What is the source of heating for wing and cowl anti-ice
6th or 10th stage bleed air
180
When is cowl anti-ice required to be ON during ground operations
OAT <= 10*C in visible moisture. (fog with visibility 1sm or less, rain, snow, sleet, ice crystals)
OAT <= 10*C on contaminated ramps, taxiways, or runways
181
When is cowl anti-ice required to be ON during flight
TAT <= 10*C in visible moisture (such as clouds, rain, snow, sleet, or ice crystals)
(Except when SAT is <= -40*C) or when ICE is annunciated
182
When is wing anti-ice required to be ON during ground operations
OAT <= 5*C in visible moisture (fog with visibility 1 sm or less, rain, snow sleet, ice crystals). OAT <=5*C on contaminated runways. If Type II, Type III or Type IV deicing fluid has been applied, select wing anti-ice ON just prior to thrust increase for takeoff.
183
When is wing anti-ice required to be ON during flight operations
TAT <= 10*C in visible moisture (such as clouds, rain, snow, sleet, or ice crystals) with airspeed <230 KIAS except when SAT is <= -40*C, or when ICE is annunciated
184
What is a good ICE detector test indication
ICE caution message, the ICE switchlight illuminated, ADS HEAT TEST OK advisory message.
185
What is the purpose of the Wing A/I cross-bleed switch
To allow the bleed air from one engine to anti-ice the opposite wing
186
What occurs with the Windshield Heat on LOW?
All 4 panels are heated to 24*C
187
What occurs with the Windshield Heat on High?
Side windows are heated to 24*C and both windshields are heated to 41*C
188
How many fire detection loops are installed on each engine?
Two, dual loops mounted in parallel
189
What type of Halon is in the engine fires bottles?
halon 1301 pressurized with dry nitrogen
190
How is an engine fire detected by the crew?
Appropriate ENG FIRE PUSH switchlight illuminates, fire bell sounds, and an EICAS warning message.
191
What occurs when the ENG FIRE PUSH switchlight is pushed?
Fuel SOV closes,
HYD SOV closes,
Bleed air SOVs close,
generator is de-energized and the appropriate squibs are armed.
192
Can we blow both bottles into one engine, if necessary?
Yes
193
How many fire detection loops are inside the APU containment case?
Two, dual loops mounted in parallel
194
How is an in-flight APU fire detected by the crew?
APU FIRE PUSH switchlight illuminates, fire bell sounds, and an APU FIRE warning message on EICAS.
195
How many firex bottles are available for an APU fire
One
196
What type of extinguishing agent is used in the APU firex bottle?
Halon 1301 pressurized with dry nitrogen.
197
What occurs during an unattended APU fire on the ground?
APU ECU shuts down the APU. 5 seconds later, the APU bottle will discharge automatically.
198
How many smoke detectors are there in the aft cargo compartment?
Two
199
How many smoke detectors are there in the fwd cargo compartment
Three
200
What are the flight deck indications of cargo smoke?
```
Triple chime
Master Warning flashers,
"SMOKE" aural,
SMOKE AFT/FWD CARGO warning message,
Either FWD or AFT CARGO SMOKE PUSH switch lights illuminate.
```
201
How many firex bottles are there for cargo smoke
Two, one is a slow metered standard bottle that should last approximately 60 minutes, and the other is a quick discharge bottle.
202
How many smoke detectors are located in the lavatories?
One in the fwd and one in the aft.
203
What indication do we have for smoke in a lavatory?
Triple chime, master warning flashers, SMOKE FWD LAV or SMOKE AFT LAV warning messages.
204
What protection do we have for a lavatory waste compartment fire?
A firex bottle with heat sensitive capsules that will melt to discharge Halon 1301 directly into the waste compartment.
205
What indication will we get with a waste compartment fire?
None, unless it generates enough smoke to set off a smoke detector.
206
Location of Main Battery?
Nose compartment
207
Location of the APU Battery?
Aft equipment bay
208
Max Engine Generator load?
40 KVA
209
Max APU Generator load?
40 KVA
210
Max Transformer rectifier unit (TRU) load?
120 amps
211
Max permissible time for ground operations with battery power only?
5 minutes
212
What is the reason for the previous limitation? (5 minute battery limit)
To prevent ED1 and ED2 from overheating (fans are AC powered)
213
How many TRUs are installed in the CRJ 900?
4
214
Where are the TRUs located?
nose compartment
215
The Main Battery is rated to?
17 ampere hour/24 volts
216
The APU Battery is rated to?
43 ampere hour/24 volts
217
How many generators are installed?
4, 2 engine generators, 1 APU generator, 1 ADG
218
What is the function of the 4 TRUs?
To convert 115 Vac to 28 Vdc
219
How are the TRUs cooled?
Individual fans
220
Which buses are powered when the Battery Master switch is selected on?
Main Battery Direct bus,
APU Battery Direct bus,
DC Battery bus
221
If the main buses are powered, are the essential buses automatically powered?
Yes
222
Is there an on/off switch for the TRUs?
No, they are automatically powered when the AC busses are powered
223
What controls the DC tie contactors?
The DC Power Centers (DCPC) automatically control DC tie operation
224
When will the Air Driven Generator (ADG) automatically deploy?
With complete loss of A/C power
225
With the ADG deployed, what are the basic items that are powered?
AC ESS Bus, HYD Pump 3B, flaps/slats, STAB trim CH2
226
What is the ADG max load?
15 KVA
227
How many separate hydraulic systems are there on the CRJ900?
3
228
Hydraulic systems 1, 2 and 3 normal pressure is?
3000 psi.
229
Hyd Low pressure (Caution) occurs at what pressure?
< 1800 psi.
230
Hyd High pressure occurs at what pressure?
3200 psi.
231
What is the normal hyd system quantity?
45% to 85%
232
Hyd High temperature condition occurs at what temp?
>= 96*C
233
The HYD HI TEMP caution indicates that hydraulic fluid is hot in what part of system?
The reservoir
234
How many hydraulics pumps are there?
6, 3 full-time ("A" pumps),
| 3 part-time ("B" pumps)
235
When will the "B" pumps operate?
Switch ON or with switches in AUTO at least one generator online and flaps > 0
236
When will hydraulic pump 3B operate?
Switch ON or with the switch in AUTO, at least one generator online and flaps > 0 or ADG deployed
237
What type of hydraulic fluid is used?
Skydrol
238
What color is the hydraulic fluid?
Purple
239
When will hyd pressure relief occur?
>= 3750 psi.
240
Which yoke is connected to the right aileron?
First Officer's
241
Which yoke is connected to the left aileron?
Captain's
242
How are the ailerons, elevators and rudder actuated?
Yoke and pedals operate a system of cables and pulleys that connect to pull and push rods at the flight control which operate a hydraulic PCU (power control unit) which hydraulically actuates the control surface.
243
Which yoke controls the right elevator?
First officer's
244
Which yoke controls the left elevator?
Captain's
245
What is the purpose of the Multifunction Spoilers (MFS)?
To assist with roll control and serve as a spoiler in flight and on landing.
246
Are the Multifunction spoilers operational at any speed?
Yes
247
How are the MFSs controlled when used for roll assistance?
The FO's yoke position sends an electrical signal to the left MFS panels which are hydraulically operated by PCUs. the CAs yoke position sends an electrical signal to the right MFS panels which are hydraulically operated by PCUs.
248
What is the flight deck indication of a jammed aileron cable?
Both yokes will be jammed
249
What happens after the ROLL DISC handle is pulled?
The aileron cable and pulley systems are disconnected through torque tubes. 20 seconds later, if the operable side has not been selected, the amber ROL SEL switchlight illuminates.
250
How is the operable side selected?
By pushing the ROL SEL/PLT ROL switchlight on the unjammed side.
251
What does pushing the ROL SEL/PLT ROL switchlight accomplish?
Allows the pilot with the operable aileron to control the on-side MFS panels.
252
What is the flight deck indication of an aileron PCU runaway?
Aircraft begins an uncommanded roll and the PLT SEL switchlight on the side without the PCU runaway illuminates automatically because of the bungee break-out signal.
253
What is occurring when the pilots trim the ailerons or rudder?
The control surface is being repositioned. There are no trim tabs.
254
What panels are part of the GND LIFT dumping system?
Inboard and outboard ground spoilers, all 4 MFS panels.
255
How are the flight controls gust locked?
Hydraulic fluid is trapped during shutdown.
256
How is the Yaw Damper engaged?
YD1 and YD2 engage switchlights on the center pedestal
257
How is the Yaw Damper disengaged?
DISC button on the center pedestal.
258
What controls the yaw damper?
The flight control computer
259
Is it necessary to disconnect the Yaw Damper on landing?
No
260
How are the flaps operated?
Electrically
261
How many flap segments does the CRJ have?
4 total, 2 on each wing
262
Is there any asymmetrical protection within the flaps?
Yes, if the flap segments differ by > 5 degrees, the brakes are applied and the flaps will remain at the current position.
263
How is STAB TRIM operated?
Electrically. A split switch on the control yoke operates two motors and a jack screw changing the horizontal stabilizer angle of incidence. (+2 - -13)
264
What systems can operate the STAB TRIM?
CAs trim switches
FOs trim switches
autopilot and MACH trim
265
What is the priority for STAB TRIM control?
CA
FO
Autopilot
MACH trim
266
How is the main landing gear held in the up and down position?
Mechanical up and down locks
267
How is the nose gear held in the up and down position?
Over center mechanism
268
Do the forward nose gear doors remain open after a normal extension?
Yes
269
How are the nose gear doors actuated?
Mechanically
270
What is the purpose of the brushes on the main wheel wells?
Aerodynamic seal
271
Where do you look to determine the position of the landing gear?
EICAS primary page
272
Which component monitors the position of up locks, down locks, and gear door position and WOW sensors?
PSEU (proximity sensing electronic unit)
273
Which component ensures that the gear handle cannot be moved to the UP position on the ground?
Down-lock solenoid
274
Which hydraulic system operates the inboard brakes?
system #3
275
Which hydraulic system operates the outboard brakes?
system #2
276
When does the Anti-skid operate?
wheel spin up >=35 kts or
| WOW + 5 seconds
277
What is the nose wheel steering degree of travel limits with nose wheel steering ON?
8* either side of center for rudder pedals. 80* either side of center for tiller
278
At what speed does anti-skid control stop operating?
Wheel speed <= 10 kts
279
What occurs during an APU fire in flight?
The APU ECU shuts down the APU. The bottle does not discharge automatically, the crew must discharge the bottle.
280
What is the full charge pressure of the crew oxygen system?
1,850 psi
281
When will the OXY LO PRESS caution appear on EICAS?
Below 1410 psi
