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RYAN'S Mesa Airlines Indoc & Ground School > CL-65 Study Guide > Flashcards

CL-65 Study Guide Flashcards

1
Q

Maximum ramp weight

A

82,750 lbs

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2
Q

Maximum takeoff weight (MTOW)

A

82,500 lbs

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3
Q

Maximum landing weight (MLW)

A

73,500 lbs

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4
Q

Maximum zero fuel weight (MZFW)

A

70,000 lbs

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5
Q

Minimum flight weight

A

45,000 lbs

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6
Q

Maximum aft cargo bay capacity

A

4,375 lbs

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7
Q

Maximum forward cargo bay capacity

A

850 lbs

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8
Q

Maximum center cargo bay capacity

A

850 lbs

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9
Q

Maximum pressure refueling fuel capacity (total, mains, center)

A

19,594 lbs

7,492 lbs

4,610 lbs

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10
Q

Maximum gravity refueling fuel capacities (total, mains, center)

A

14,810 lbs

7,405 lbs

N/A

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11
Q

Maximum operating airspeed (VMO)

A

335 KIAS

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12
Q

Maximum operating Mach number (MMO)

A

0.85 Mach

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13
Q

RVSM maximum cruise Mach number

A

0.82 Mach

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14
Q

Maximum Flap Extension Speeds

(1°, 8°, 20°, 30°, 45°)

A
  • 1° - 230 KIAS
  • 8° - 230 KIAS
  • 20° - 220 KIAS
  • 30° - 185 KIAS
  • 45° - 170 KIAS
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15
Q

Maximum landing gear operating speed for extension (VLO)

A

220 KIAS

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16
Q

Maximum landing gear operating speed for retraction (VLO)

A

200 KIAS

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17
Q

Maximum landing gear extended speed (VLE)

A

220 KIAS

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18
Q

Maximum turbulence penetration speed

A

280 KIAS or 0.75 Mach

(whichever is lower)

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19
Q

Maximum windshield wiper operation speed

A

250 KIAS

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20
Q

Maximum operating altitude

A

41,000 feet

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21
Q

Maximum airport pressure altitude for takeoff and landing

A

8,000 feet

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22
Q

Maximum demonstrated crosswind for takeoff and landing

A

35 kts / 32 kts

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23
Q

Maximum demonstrated crosswind for takeoff and landing on a slippery runway

A

15 kts

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24
Q

Maximum tailwind for takeoff or landing

A

10 kts

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25
Q

Maximum tire speed

A

195 kts (groundspeed)

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26
Q

Maximum altitude for flight with flaps/slats extended

A

15,000 feet

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27
Q

Maximum runway slopes for takeoff and landing

A

+2% uphill

-2% downhill

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28
Q

Wingspan

A

76 ft, 3 in

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29
Q

Height of tail

A

24 ft, 1 in

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30
Q

Turning radius

(minimum pavement width)

A

80 ft, 1 in

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31
Q

Minimum obstacle clearance for a 180° turn

A

126 ft, 5 in

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32
Q

Length

A

118 ft, 11 in

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33
Q

Horizontal stabilizer width

A

28 ft, 4 in

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34
Q

Main landing gear to main landing gear, center width

A

13 ft, 6 in

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35
Q

What type of floatation equipment is provided for passengers?

A

Seat cushions

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36
Q

What type of flotation equipment is provided for the Flight Attendants?

A

Life vests located near the Flight Attendant’s jump seats

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37
Q

How many life vests are in the flight deck?

A

3

(1 under each pilot seat & to left of jump seat)

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38
Q

What is the minimum crew oxygen system pressure for dispatch?

A

Listed on a chart in CFM, Chapter 4

(Cockpit Safety Inspection)

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39
Q

What is the full charge pressure of the crew oxygen system?

A

1,850 psi

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40
Q

When will the OXY LO PRESS caution appear on EICAS?

A

< 1,410 psi

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41
Q

When will the crew oxygen system pressure relief occur?

A

2,800 psi

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42
Q

Where can the crew oxygen system pressure be read?

A

EICAS Status Page

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43
Q

Where is the crew oxygen bottle located?

A

In a compartment just forward of the main entrance

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44
Q

What is indicated if the green oxygen blowout disc is missing?

A

Possible overpressure has occurred in the crew oxygen system

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45
Q

Where are the crew smoke goggles located?

A

Either part of oxygen mask or stored under oxygen mask

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46
Q

What supplies oxygen to the passenger oxygen masks?

A

Chemical oxygen generators

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47
Q

How many passenger oxygen masks are there in each row?

A

2 masks per row on the left side;

3 masks per row on the right side

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48
Q

How many emergency flashlights are there in the flight deck?

A

2

(1 each behind CAPT & FO seat)

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49
Q

What is the power source for the emergency lighting system?

A

5 battery packs

(NOTE: all emergency light batteries are 6 VDC and located throughout the cabin)

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50
Q

How long will the emergency lights illuminate if the battery packs are fully charged?

A

~ 10 minutes

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51
Q

Can the Flight Attendant turn on the emergency lights if the flight deck switch is off?

A

Yes

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52
Q

How many passenger emergency exits are there & where?

A
  • 6 total
  1. Main Passenger Door (Type I Exit)
  2. Galley Service Door (Type I Exit)
  3. 4 Overwing Emergency Exits (Type III Exit)
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53
Q

Where are the VHF communication antennae located?

A
  • VHF 1 antenna: topside of fuselage
  • VHF 2 antenna: underside of fuselage
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54
Q

Will the flight deck PA override the Flight Attendant PA?

A

Yes

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55
Q

How are the Flight Attendants contacted in an emergency?

A
  • Turn the ACP selector knob to PA
  • Press the EMER call switchlight
  • This will generate a high/low chime in the cabin
  • Flash an amber EMER switchlight on the Flight Attendant’s handset cradle
  • Flash a red light on the mid-cabin, overhead exit sign
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56
Q

What indication does the flight deck get if a Flight Attendant is calling?

A
  • A high/low chime sounds in the flight deck, and either the CALL or EMER light will illuminate on the center pedestal depending on the selection made on the Flight Attendant’s handset cradle
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57
Q

How many Air Data Computers (ADCs) are installed?

A

2

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58
Q

How many AHRS or IRS computers are installed?

A

2

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59
Q

In MAG mode, how long does it take the AHRS system to initialize?

A

30 - 70 seconds

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60
Q

In DG mode, how long does it take the AHRS System to initialize?

A

10 - 11 minutes

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61
Q

What sends information to the Captain’s flight instruments?

A

Air Data Computer 1 (ADC 1)

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62
Q

What sends information to the First Officer’s Flight Instrument?

A

Air Data Computer 2 (ADC 2)

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63
Q

What sends pitot-static information to Air Data Computer 1?

A

Pitot-static probe 1 (P1-S1) on left side of nose

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64
Q

What sends pitot-static information to Air Data Computer 2?

A

Pitot-static probe 2 (P2 - S2) on right side of nose

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65
Q

From which source does the integrated standby instrument receive pitot-static information?

A
  • Pitot probe 3 (P3) under the left, side window
  • Two static ports (S3) on either side of the lower, forward fuselage
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66
Q

Where is the total air temperature (TAT) probe located?

A

Under the right, side window

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67
Q

What is the definition of Total Air Temperature (TAT)?

A

Air temperature corrected for compressibility and friction

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68
Q

On the ground with the probe heat switch selected ON, which air data probes are heated?

A
  • All 3 pitot probes are heated at 50% power while their bases remain unheated
  • The angle of attack vanes, and system 3 static ports are heated at full heat
  • NOTE: the TAT probe and pitot bases will always remain unheated on the ground
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69
Q

Which air data probes are heated in flight with the probe heat switch selected OFF?

A

All air data probes and pitot bases are fully heated in flight, regardless of probe heat switch position

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70
Q

Is there a LOC and GS indication on the integrated standby instrument (ISI)?

A

Yes

(NOTE: the ISI receives navigation data from NAV 1 only)

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71
Q

When will the radio altitude digital readout be displayed?

A

0 - 2,500 ft AGL

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72
Q

When will the green radio altitude tape be displayed?

A

0 - 1,000 feet AGL

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73
Q

When will the yellow hashed rising runway indication be displayed on the radio altitude tape?

A

0 - 200 feet AGL

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74
Q

What does the speed trend vector indicate?

A

Predicted airspeeds in 10 seconds

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75
Q

When will the MACH readout appear above the airspeed tape?

A

Appears when accelerating through 0.45 M

Disappears when decelerating through 0.40 M

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76
Q

What does the green line on the airspeed tape indicate?

A

1.27 VS

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77
Q

Where is the slip and skid indicator located?

A

A solid rectangle located just under the sky pointer (“the brick”)

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78
Q

How many flight directors are installed?

A

2

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79
Q

How many autopilots are installed?

A

1

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80
Q

What provides guidance to the autopilot?

A

Flight directors

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81
Q

What controls the flight directors?

A
  • Flight Control Computer 1 (FCC 1) controls Flight Director 1 (FD 1)
  • Flight Control Computer 2 (FCC 2) controls Flight Director 2 (FD 2)
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82
Q

Which flight director is the default?

A

Flight Director 1

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83
Q

What does pressing the XFER button on the flight control panel (FCP) do?

A

Transfers the autopilot and flight directors to Flight Director 2

84
Q

What happens when a TOGA button is pushed on the ground?

A
  • Autopilot is disengaged
  • Lateral and vertical takeoff modes are activated (TO/TO)
85
Q

What does the lateral TO mode do?

A
  • Updates FMS with current location
  • Generates a heading hold command at weight off wheels
  • Limits flight director steering commands to 5° bank
86
Q

What does the vertical TO mode do?

A

Generates an optimized flight director pitch up command

87
Q

What happens when a TOGA button is pushed in flight?

A
  • Autopilot is disengaged
  • Lateral and vertical go-around modes are activated (GA/GA)
88
Q

What does the lateral GA mode do?

A
  • Generates a heading hold command
  • Limits flight director steering commands to 5° bank
89
Q

What does the vertical GA mode do?

A

Commands the flight director to a 10° pitch up attitude

90
Q

Where are the selected lateral and vertical flight director modes displayed?

A

On the Flight Mode Annunciator (FMA) at the top left of the PFD

91
Q

Autopilot minimum use heights

A
  • 600 ft AGL for takeoff or go-around
  • 400 ft AGL for non-precision approaches
  • 80 ft AGL for precision approaches
92
Q

Autopilot minimum use height for a single engine precision approach?

A

110 ft AGL

93
Q

How can the autopilot be manually disconnected?

A
  • AP/SP DISC button on either control wheel is pressed
  • AP ENG button on the FCP is pressed when A/P is already engaged
  • AP DISC switch bar on the FCP is pressed down
  • TOGA button on either thrust lever is pressed
  • STAB TRIM manually operated on either control wheel
  • YD DISC button is pressed
94
Q

When will the autopilot automatically disconnect?

A
  • Both yaw dampers fail
  • During windshear avoidance procedures
  • During a stall warning
95
Q

What type of APU is used on the CRJ900?

A

Allied-Signal RE220

96
Q

What are the priorities of the APU?

A

Primary: Electrical

Secondary: Pneumatics

97
Q

Max APU Generator load

A

40 KVA to 41,000 feet

98
Q

Max altitude for APU operation for electrical loading

A

41,000 feet

99
Q

Max altitude for starting the APU

A

37,000 feet

100
Q

Max altitude for APU bleed air extraction

A

25,000 feet

101
Q

Max speed with APU door open

A
  • 220 KIAS if APU not operating
  • VMO/MMO if APU is operating
102
Q

What is the minimum battery voltage required before starting the APU?

A

22 V on both the Main and APU batteries

103
Q

What does the main battery power during an APU start?

104
Q

What does the APU battery power during an APU start?

A

28 VDC APU start motor

105
Q

When will the START portion of the START/STOP switchlight extinguish?

A

46% - 60% APU RPM

106
Q

When will the AVAIL portion of the START/STOP switchlight illuminate?

A

99% RPM + 2 seconds

107
Q

What are the APU starter limits?

A
  • No more than 3 start attempts in one hour
  • 2 minute delay required between start attempts
108
Q

What is the CRJ900 Powerplant Model Number

A

General Electric CF-34-8C5

109
Q

Normal takeoff thrust

A

13,360 lbs

110
Q

APR thrust rating

A

14,510 lbs

111
Q

Max continuous thrust (MCT)

A

13,680 lbs

112
Q

Max temperature for takeoff and landing

A

ISA +40°C, limited to a maximum OAT of 51°C

113
Q

Min ambient air temperature for takeoff

114
Q

Max altitude for a windmill start

A

21,000 ft MSL

115
Q

Max engine to engine N2 split at ground idle power

116
Q

How much of the thrust is produced by core air?

117
Q

How much of the thrust is produced by bypass air?

118
Q

How many stages of compression are there?

119
Q

What accessories are driven off the N2 accessory gearbox?

A
  • Engine driven fuel pump
  • IDG
  • Air turbine starter
  • Engine driven hydraulic pump
  • Oil pump
  • FADEC alternator
120
Q

What stages of bleed air supply the common bleed air manifold?

A

Normally 6th stage; 10th stage is available when demand exceeds capacities of the 6th stage

121
Q

What allows 10th stage bleed air availability?

A

Air Conditioning System Controller (ACSC) automatically opens the High Pressure Valve (HPV)

122
Q

What is the engine bleed air used for?

A
  • Engine start
  • Air conditioning / pressurization
  • Wing and cowl anti-ice
123
Q

What is the minimum bleed air pressure required for a cross bleed start?

A

42 PSI at a maximum of 80% N2 for the operating engine

124
Q

What is the normal air source used for engine starting?

A

APU bleed air

125
Q

What source is used for engine starting if the APU is INOP or shut down?

A
  • A ground air cart or high-pressure bottle may be attached to the external high pressure, ground air supply connection.
  • Cross bleed starts from an operating engine may be used to start the other engine
126
Q

Where is the high pressure, ground air supply connection located?

A

On the fuselage, aft of the aft cargo bay door

127
Q

When will the starter cut out during an engine start?

A

50% N2 RPM

128
Q

What are the engine starter cranking limits?

A
  • Attempt 1-2: 90 seconds ON / 10 seconds OFF
  • Attempt 3-5: 90 seconds ON / 5 minutes OFF
129
Q

What are the dry motoring limits?

A
  • Attempt 1: 90 seconds ON / 5 minutes OFF
  • Attempt 2-5: 30 seconds ON / 5 minutes OFF
130
Q

What would cause FADEC to automatically abort a start?

A

Hot start or hung start

131
Q

How many ignitors are installed on each engine?

132
Q

What supplies power to the ignitors?

A
  • IGN-A: AC ESS Bus
  • IGN-B: Static inverter on the battery bus
133
Q

When must continuous ignition be used?

A
  • Takeoffs and landing on contaminated runways
  • Flight through moderate or heavier intensity rain
  • Flight through moderate or heavier intensity turbulence
  • Flight in the vicinity of thunderstorms
134
Q

When is continuous ignition automatically activated?

A

When approaching a high angle of attack

135
Q

What conditions are required before advancing the thrust levers to IDLE during an engine start?

A

N2 20% or greater and ITT below 120°C

136
Q

What conditions would cause Takeoff Configuration Warning?

A
  • Parking brake SET
  • Autopilot ON
  • Spoilers extended (flight or ground)
  • Stab trim out of green range
  • Flaps not 8° or 20°
  • Aileron trim out of green range
  • Rudder trim out of green range
137
Q

What is APR?

A

Automatic Performance Reserve thrust

138
Q

When is APR armed for takeoff?

A

When N1 RPM of both engines is within 8% of scheduled takeoff power

139
Q

When is APR armed for landing?

A
  • Flaps greater than 20°, and
  • Landing gear is down
140
Q

When will the APR system be activated?

A
  • Thrust levers in TOGA and N1s differ by 15% or greater after APR has been armed
  • When thrust levers are set in the MAX POWER detent
  • When the HIGH PWR SCHEDULE switchlight is selected ON
141
Q

What occurs when the APR system activates?

A

FADEC commands a thrust increase dependent on thrust lever position

142
Q

What indication is displayed when APR is activated?

A

Green APR icon on the N1 gauge

143
Q

If an engine fails during go-around, will the APR system activate?

144
Q

What is used to deploy and stow the thrust reversers?

A
  • L reverser - hydraulic system #1
  • R reverser - hydraulic system #2
145
Q

What indications will be displayed during thrust reverser deployment?

A
  • Amber REV icon on the N1 gauges during cowl transition
  • Green REV icon on the N1 gauges when reversers are fully deployed
146
Q

What is occurring during thrust reverser deployment?

A
  • Translating cowls move aft, block rearward flow of bypass air
  • The fan discharge airflow is redirected forward through the cascade vanes
147
Q

When do the thrust reversers need to be either stowed or at idle?

148
Q

What are the indications of an inadvertent thrust reverser deployment?

A
  • Amber REV icon on affected N1 gauge
  • REV UNLOCKED caution message
  • FADEC commands idle thrust on affected engine
  • Thrust levers will not move when FADEC commands idle thrust
149
Q

Min oil temperature for start

150
Q

Max continuous oil temperature

151
Q

Max permissible oil temperature

A

163°C (15 minutes max)

152
Q

Max oil consumption

A

0.05 gallons/hour

153
Q

Where can the oil quantity be checked?

A

EICAS Menu page

154
Q

When should the engine oil level be replenished?

A

15 minutes to 2 hours after shutdown

155
Q

When should the oil capacity be checked?

A

3 minutes to 2 hours after shutdown

156
Q

Max oil refill before dry motoring is required

157
Q

How is the oil cooled?

A

Fuel / oil heat exchanger

158
Q

What is the total quantity of the engine oil tanks?

A

7.2 quarts

159
Q

How is the fuel moved from the center tank to the wing tanks?

A

Transfer ejectors

160
Q

How is the fuel moved from the wing tanks to the collector tanks?

A

Scavenge ejectors and gravity

161
Q

How is the fuel moved from the collector tanks to the engine driven high pressure fuel pumps?

A

Main ejectors (backed up by DC electric boost pumps)

162
Q

What is the function of the electric boost pumps?

A

To supply fuel to the engines when main ejector pressure is low

163
Q

Will an engine continue to run with a failed engine driven fuel pump?

164
Q

Max fuel imbalance

A

300 lbs for takeoff

800 lbs for all other phases

165
Q

How many ways are available to crossflow fuel?

A

3

Auto

Manual

Gravity

166
Q

When will the auto crossflow system begin transferring fuel?

A

200 lb fuel imbalance

167
Q

When will the auto crossflow system stop transferring fuel?

A

When the fuel quantity of the low tank exceeds the other tank by 50 lbs

168
Q

When are the boost pumps automatically energized?

A

Low pressure detected at the main ejectors (if the boost pumps are armed)

169
Q

Where is bulk fuel temperature measured?

A

Right main tank

170
Q

What is the minimum bulk fuel temp for takeoff (Jet A)?

171
Q

What is the minimum bulk fuel temp during flight (Jet A)?

A

Above -40°C

172
Q

How is engine fuel heated?

A

Fuel/oil heat exchanger

173
Q

What is the minimum engine fuel temperature for takeoff?

174
Q

What is the takeoff limitation if the center tank has over 500 lbs of fuel?

A

Each wing tank must be above 4,400 lbs

175
Q

Which Bus powers the refuel/defuel panel and refuel/defuel SOVs?

A

APU Battery Direct Bus

176
Q

Where is the refuel/defuel panel located?

A

On the fuselage, forward of right wing

177
Q

Where is the single point adapter located?

A

Right wing root

178
Q

What message will be displayed on EICAS whenever the refuel/defuel panel is switched on?

A

AUTO XFLOW INHIB status message

179
Q

Max single PACKS altitude

180
Q

What does the OVBD COOL caution message mean?

A
  • The ground valve has failed in the open position
  • NOTE: Do not takeoff with an OVBD COOL caution message; the aircraft will not be able to pressurize properly
181
Q

How many pressurization controllers are installed?

A

2 (PC1 and PC2)

182
Q

When do the pressurization controllers swap automatically?

A

Weight on wheel plus 3 minutes, or

If one PC fails, the redundant controller takes over

183
Q

When operating in auto mode, what is the normal cabin rate of climb and descent?

A

500 FPM climb

300 FPM descent

184
Q

When operating in the manual mode, what cabin rate of climb or descent range can be selected using the MAN RATE knob?

A

50 FPM to 3000 FPM +/- 1000 FPM

185
Q

Normal pressure differential

186
Q

Max pressure differential

187
Q

Max pressure differential during taxi, takeoff, and landing

188
Q

Max negative pressure differential

189
Q

When will the CABIN ALT caution message appear?

A

Cabin altitude above 8,500 ft but below 10,000 ft

190
Q

When will the CABIN ALT warning message appear?

A

Cabin altitude above 10,000 ft

191
Q

When will CPAM automatically deploy the passenger oxygen masks?

A

Cabin altitude above 14,000 ft

192
Q

When will CPAM turn on the NO SMOKING/FASTEN SEATBELT sign?

A

Cabin altitude above 10,000 ft when the switches are in the AUTO position

193
Q

Max altitude for using RAM AIR during unpressurized flight

194
Q

Can live animals be transported in the cargo bay?

A

Yes, aft cargo bay only

195
Q

What causes the FAULT portion of a PACK switchlight to illuminate?

A

Over pressure or over temperature condition

196
Q

When will the FAULT portion of the PRESS CONT switchlight illuminate?

A

When both pressurization controllers have failed

197
Q

What is used for wing and cowl anti-ice?

A

6th and 10th stage bleed air

198
Q

When is cowl anti-ice required to be ON during ground operations?

A
  • When OAT is 10°C or below, and visible moisture in any form is present
  • When OAT is 10°C or below while operating on ramps, taxiways or runways where surface snow, ice, standing water, or slush is present
199
Q

When is cowl anti-ice required to be ON during flight?

A
  • When icing conditions exist or are anticipated, or
  • When ICE is annunciated by the ice detection system
  • NOTE: icing conditions exist in flight when TAT is 10°C or below and visible moisture in any form is encountered, except when the SAT is -40°C or below
200
Q

When is wing anti-ice required to be ON during ground operations?

A
  • When OAT is 5°C or below, and visible moisture in any form is present
  • When OAT is 5°C or below, and the runway is wet or contaminated
  • NOTE: If Type II, Type III, or Type IV deicing fluid has been applied, delay turning wing anti-ice on until just prior to takeoff to preserve the integrity of the fluid
201
Q

When is wing anti-ice required to be ON during flight operations?

A
  • When icing conditions exist and airspeed is less than 230 KIAS, or
  • When ICE is annunciated by the ice detection system
  • NOTE: Icing conditions exist in flight when TAT is 10°C or below and visible moisture in any form is encountered, except when the SAT is -40°C or below
202
Q

What will indicate a satisfactory test when the ICE DET TEST switchlight is pressed?

A
  • ICE switchlight illuminates
  • ICE caution message is displayed on EICAS
  • ADS HEAT TEST OK advisory message is displayed on EICAS
203
Q

What is the purpose of the Wing A/I cross-bleed switch?

A

To allow the bleed air from one engine to anti-ice the opposite wing

204
Q

What occurs with the Windshield Heat on LOW?

A

All 4 panels are heated to 24°C

205
Q

What occurs with the Windshield Heat on HIGH?

A

Side windows are heated to 24°C and both windshields are heated to 41°C

206
Q

When should the Windshield Heat by switched of OFF?

A

When OAT is 30°C or above

RYAN'S Mesa Airlines Indoc & Ground School (3 decks)

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