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FAA Academy En Route > CKT #1 > Flashcards

CKT #1 Flashcards

1
Q

En route controllers may omit the words “super” or “heavy” in communications, except:

A
  • When in communication with a terminal facility about super or heavy jet operations
  • In communication with or about super or heavy jet aircraft at an airport where an en route facility provides approach control service
  • In communication with or about super or heavy jet aircraft when separation may become less than 5 miles by approved separation
  • When Issuing traffic advisories
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2
Q

What should you do to aid in distinguishing similar-sounding call signs?

A

Emphasize digits, letters, or similar-sounding words

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3
Q

What should you do when similar-sounding call signs are on your frequency?

A
  • Notify each pilot concerned when in communication with aircraft having similar sounding call signs
  • Notify Front Line Manager of any duplicate numbers/similar sounding call signs on aircraft operating simultaneously in the same sector
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4
Q

Radio frequencies are used for?

A

The specific purpose for which they are intended

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5
Q

Monitor interphones and assigned radio frequencies?

A

Continuously

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6
Q

If altitude, heading, or other items are read back by the pilot, the controller must?

A

Ensure the readback is complete and correct
- Readback errors by a pilot that are not corrected by a controller are controller errors

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7
Q

Transmit ONLY those messages:

A
  • Necessary for air traffic control
  • That contribute to air safety
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8
Q

Relay operational information to:

A
  • Aircraft or aircraft operators as necessary (Do not handle on a regular basis, give the source for any message relayed)
  • Military aircraft operating on, or planning to operate on, IFR Military Training Routes (IR Routes)
  • Relay official FAA messages as required
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9
Q

Initiate communications with an aircraft using the following format:

A

−Identification of aircraft
−Identification of ATC unit
−Message (if any)
−The word “OVER,” if required

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10
Q

What callsigns can NOT be abbreviated?

A

− Similar sounding call signs
− Military aircraft
− Air carriers
− Civil aircraft with an FAA authorized call sign

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11
Q

When can you omit the word “OVER”?

A

Omit the word “OVER” if the message obviously required a reply

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12
Q

What is a First-Priority communication?

A

Emergency messages
- Essential information on aircraft accidents or suspected accidents
- You may not violate separation rules to expedite an emergency

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13
Q

What is a Second-Priority communication?

A

Clearances and control instructions

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14
Q

What is a Third-Priority communication?

A

Movement and control messages in the following order of preference
- Progress reports
- Departure or arrival reports
- Flight plans

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15
Q

What is a Fourth-Priority communication?

A

Movement messages on VFR aircraft

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16
Q

To interrupt a lower priority message when you have an emergency or control message to transmit, use the words_____?

A

“Emergency,” or “Control”
- Example: “Break for control”

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17
Q

Use the following format for inter/intrafacility communications:

A
  • Caller states identification of:
    − Position being called
    − Position calling and line being used, if necessary
  • Receiver states position identification
  • Caller states type of coordination to be accomplished, when advantageous
  • Caller states message
  • Receiver states response to the caller’s message followed by receiver’s operating initials
  • Caller states operating initials
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18
Q

Flight progress strips are used to record?

A

Data on air traffic and clearances that is required for control and other air traffic services

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19
Q

Maintain what data on flight strips?

A

ONLY necessary current data
- Remove strips when no longer required for control purposes

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20
Q

Do not erase or overwrite, instead you should?

A

Use an “X” to delete:
- Climb/descend and maintain arrows
- At or above/below symbols
- Cruise symbol
- Unwanted altitude information
Write new altitude information immediately adjacent to old information and within the same space
- Draw a horizontal line through other items
- Do not draw a line through an altitude until the aircraft reports or is observed (valid Mode C) leaving the altitude

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21
Q

Preplanning may be written in ___?

A

Red
- Rewrite in black after the clearance is issued
- Do not overwrite

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22
Q

Manually prepared strips must?

A

Conform to the same format as machine-generated strips

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23
Q

Use authorized symbols or abbreviations for recording:

A

Clearances, Reports, and Instructions

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24
Q

Clearance abbreviations include:

A

D – Cleared to Depart from Fix
A – Cleared to Destination Airport
F – Cleared to Fix
H – Cleared to Hold and Instructions Issued
V – Cleared Over Fix
Z – Tower Jurisdiction
PD – Cleared to Climb/Descend at Pilot’s Discretion

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25
Q

Except during En Route Flight Data Processing (FDP) operations, forward flight plan information to appropriate:

A
  • ATC facilities
  • FSSs
  • Military Base Operations (BASOPS)
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26
Q

Forward flight progress data when?

A

At least 15 minutes before aircraft is estimated to enter the receiving facility’s area.

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27
Q

What flight plan information should be forwarded to the next facility?

A
  • Aircraft identification
  • Number of aircraft (if more than one), heavy indicator (if appropriate), type of aircraft, equipment suffix
  • Assigned altitude and ETA over last reporting point/fix in your sector, or assumed departure time where applicable
  • Altitude at which aircraft will enter receiving facility’s area if other than assigned
  • True airspeed
  • Point of departure
  • Remaining route of flight
  • Destination airport and clearance limit if other than destination airport
  • ETA at destination airport
    • Not required for military or scheduled air carriers!!
  • Requested altitude, if other than assigned altitude
    • Within a facility only
  • Assigned beacon code
    • When flight plan is forwarded manually and aircraft is on a computer-assigned beacon code
  • Longitudinal separation used between aircraft at the same altitude if less than 10 minutes separation exists at boundary
  • Additional non-routine information pertinent to flight safety
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28
Q

Forward position report over last reporting point in transferring facility’s area if____?

A

Progress time differs by more than 3 minutes from the estimate given

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29
Q

Circle in Red:

A
  • Information or revised information forwarded
  • Minutes and altitude when a flight plan or estimate is forwarded
    • Interfacility (between facilities)
    • Intrafacility (within a facility)
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30
Q

When should a controller coordinate with receiving facilities?

A

Before departure if departure point is less than 15 minutes flying time from the boundary
- If automated transfer of flight data occurs, coordination requirements may be reduced by
letter of agreement (LOA) to:
- Five minutes, or
- Specified mileage

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31
Q

Forward the following information to approach control facilities:

A
  • Aircraft identification
  • Type of aircraft and equipment suffix
    • Heavy indicator, if appropriate
    • Number of aircraft, if more than one
  • ETA or actual time over clearance limit and proposed or actual altitude
    • Do not forward ETA if information is forwarded during a radar handoff
    • Include altitude restrictions inside approach control airspace
  • Clearance limit (when other than destination airport) and EFC time issued:
    • Clearance limit may be omitted if covered in an LOA
      • The ZAE/JAN APCH LOA requires forwarding of destination airport if other than KJAN.
  • Time, fix, or altitude when control responsibility is transferred to approach control
    • May be omitted if covered in an LOA
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32
Q

Inbound information should be forwarded to approach control facilities ___?

A

Before the Transfer of Control jurisdiction. (TCP)

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33
Q

Radio communications and control responsibility should be transferred to approach control facilities ___?

A

Early enough to allow receiving facility to clear aircraft beyond clearance limit prior to aircraft reaching it

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34
Q

Foward the following items to non-approach control towers:

A
  • Aircraft identification
  • Type of aircraft
  • ETA
  • Type of instrument approach aircraft will execute
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35
Q

Forward arrival information to non-approach control towers:

A
  • Soon enough to permit adjustment of traffic flow
  • Before issuing a clearance that requires flight within a surface area of which the tower has
    responsibility, unless covered in an LOA
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36
Q

Forward to FSS the following information from airborne military flights:

A
  • IFR flight plans
  • Changes from VFR to IFR flight plans
  • Changes to IFR flight plans, such as:
    • Change in destination
      → Aircraft identification and type
      → Departure point
      → Original destination
      → Position and time
      → New destination
      → ETA
      → Remarks, including change in fuel exhaustion time
      → Revised ETA
    • Change in fuel exhaustion time
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37
Q

Definition of Controlled Airspace?

A

An airspace of defined dimensions within which air traffic control service is provided to IFR flights and to VFR flights in accordance with the airspace classification (Classes A, B, C, D, and E)

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38
Q

Definition of Uncontrolled Airspace?

A

That airspace not designated as Class A, B, C, D or E. Include routes through Class G airspace only when requested by the pilot.

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39
Q

IFR operations in any class of controlled airspace requires ___?

A

That a pilot must file an IFR flight plan and receive an appropriate ATC clearance

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40
Q

What is standard in controlled airspace?

A

Standard IFR separation is provided to all aircraft operating under IFR in controlled airspace.

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41
Q

Provide service in accordance with _____ except when:

A
  • FAA Order JO 7110.65
  • Other procedures/minima are prescribed in:
    • Letters of Agreement (LOAs)
    • FAA or military documents
  • Deviation is necessary to assist aircraft when an emergency has been declared
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42
Q

Definition of a Safety Alert?

A

An alert issued by ATC to aircraft under their control if ATC is aware the aircraft is at an altitude which, in the controller’s judgment, places the aircraft in unsafe proximity to terrain, obstructions, or other aircraft.

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43
Q

Provide additional services to the extent possible, contingent upon:

A
  • Higher priority duties
  • Limitations of radar
  • Volume of traffic
  • Frequency congestion
  • Workload
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44
Q

Use automation procedures in preference to nonautomation procedures when permitted by:

A
  • Workload
  • Communications
  • Equipment capabilities
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45
Q

Use radar separation in preference to nonradar separation when it will be an operational advantage and when permitted by:

A
  • Workload
  • Communications
  • Equipment capabilities
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46
Q

Use nonradar separation in preference to radar separation when?

A

An operational advantage will be gained

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47
Q

Provide air traffic control service to aircraft on a ____? Exceptions:

A
  • First-come, first-served basis
  • Aircraft in distress have right of way over all other air traffic
  • Military Air Evacuation Flights, when requested
  • Scheduled air carrier/air taxi/civilian air ambulance flights using “MEDEVAC” call sign
  • Search and Rescue (SAR) aircraft while performing an SAR mission
  • Presidential or vice presidential aircraft and any escort aircraft
    • Expedite movement and related control messages when traffic and communication permit
  • Flight Check aircraft
    • When required, provide special handling to expedite
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48
Q

When should you use the word “IMMEDIATELY”?

A
  • Only when expeditious compliance is required to avoid an imminent situation
    • Include reason, if time permits
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49
Q

When should you use the word “EXPEDITE”?

A
  • Only when prompt compliance is required to avoid the development of an imminent situation
    • Include reason, if time permits
    • If an “EXPEDITE” clearance is issued, and the clearance is subsequently reissued without an
      “EXPEDITE” instruction:
      • The “EXPEDITE” instruction is canceled
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50
Q

When a pilot informs you of an inflight equipment malfunction?

A
  • Determine the nature of the malfunction
  • Consider any special handling
  • Provide needed assistance
  • Coordinate with other:
    • Controllers
    • Concerned facilities
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51
Q

When a pilot declares “MINIMUM FUEL,” the controller should:

A
  • Inform any other controller or facility that will assume control of the aircraft
  • Provide necessary assistance
  • Avoid undue delays
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52
Q

Report, as soon as possible, any information concerning components of the National Airspace System (NAS) or flight conditions that may adversely affect air safety to the appropriate:

A
  • FSS
    • FSS is responsible for Notice to Airmen (NOTAM) action, if necessary
  • Airport manager’s office
  • ARTCC
  • Approach control facility
  • Operations office
  • Military office
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53
Q

When an aircraft reports a ground-based NAVAID malfunction:

A
  • Request a report from another aircraft.
  • If second aircraft reports normal:
    • Continue use of NAVAID
    • Inform pilot making malfunction report
  • If second pilot confirms malfunction or if unable to get a second report:
    • Notify the Front Line Manager
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54
Q

When an aircraft reports a GPS anomaly, request the following information and/or take the following actions:

A
  • Record the following minimum information:
    • Aircraft make, model, and call sign.
    • Location or position, and altitude at the time where GPS anomaly was observed.
    • Date/time of occurrence.
  • Request a report from a second aircraft.
55
Q

Control formation flights as?

A
  • A single-aircraft
    • Unless… Formation leader requests that ATC separate individual aircraft and aircraft have established separation
56
Q

Ensure necessary coordination has been accomplished before…?

A

Allowing an aircraft under your control to enter another controller’s area of jurisdiction

57
Q

Before issuing control instructions to an aircraft not in your airspace that will change that aircraft’s heading, route, speed, or altitude, ensure:

A
  • Coordination has been accomplished with all controllers affected by those instructions,
    including:
    • The controller within whose area of jurisdiction the control instructions will be issued
    • The controller receiving the transfer of control
    • Any intervening controller(s) through whose airspace the aircraft will pass
58
Q

Transfer control responsibility:

A
  • At a prescribed or coordinated location, time, fix, or altitude, or
  • At the time a radar handoff and frequency change to the receiving controller have been
    completed, as specified in an LOA or facility directive
59
Q

Transfer control only…?

A

After eliminating any potential conflict with other aircraft for which you have separation responsibility.

60
Q

Assume control:

A
  • Only after aircraft is in your area of jurisdiction or specifically coordinated, or
  • As specified in an LOA or facility directive
61
Q

Surface Area definition?

A

The airspace contained by the lateral boundary of the Class B, C, D, or E airspace designated for an airport that begins at the surface and extends upward

62
Q

Coordinate with the appropriate nonapproach control tower…?

A

Prior to issuing a clearance that would require flight within a surface area for which a tower has responsibility, unless covered by an LOA

63
Q

Ensure Front Line Manager/Controller-in-Charge (CIC) is aware of conditions affecting sector operations, including, but not limited to, the following:

A
  • Weather
  • Equipment status
  • Potential sector overload
  • Emergency situations
  • Special flights/operations
64
Q

Scan flight progress strips for:

A
  • Proper sequence
  • Conflicts
  • Inappropriate Altitude For Direction Of Flight (IAFDOF)
  • Arrivals
  • MEA violations
  • Routing errors
  • Coordination functions
  • Type aircraft
    • Number of aircraft, if more than one
    • Category, if aircraft is heavy
  • Non-DME
  • Speed
65
Q

Prefix a clearance, information, or a request for information which will be relayed to an aircraft through a non-ATC facility by stating:

A
  • “ATC clears” (Clearance)
  • “ATC advises” (Information)
  • “ATC requests” (Request)
66
Q

Airway Definition?

A

a Class E airspace area established in the form of a corridor, the centerline of which is defined by radio navigational aids; e.g., V278

67
Q

Fix Radial Distance (FRD) Definition?

A

A geographical position determined by a fix (up to 5 characters), an azimuth from the fix (3 digits in degrees magnetic), and a distance from the fix in nautical miles (3 digits)

Examples: SQS270040
HATER045012

68
Q

Route Definition?

A

A defined path consisting of one or more courses in a horizontal plane, which aircraft traverse over the surface of the earth

69
Q

Jet Route Definition?

A

A route designed to serve aircraft operations from 18,000 feet MSL up to and including flight level 450. The routes are referred to as “J” routes with numbering to identify the designated route; e.g., J35

70
Q

Q Route Definition?

A

An Area Navigation (RNAV) route published for use in the United States

71
Q

Vector Definition?

A

a heading issued to an aircraft to provide navigational guidance by radar

72
Q

Preferential Arrival Route (PAR) Definition?

A

A specific arrival route from an appropriate en route point to an airport or terminal area. It may be included in a Standard Terminal Arrival (STAR) or a Preferred IFR Route. The abbreviation “PAR” is used primarily within the ARTCC and should not be confused with the abbreviation for Precision Approach Radar.

73
Q

Standard Terminal Arrival (STAR) Definition?

A

A pre-planned Instrument Flight Rule (IFR) air traffic control arrival procedure published for pilot use in graphic and/or textual form. STARs provide transition from the en route structure to an outer fix or an instrument approach fix/arrival waypoint in the terminal area

74
Q

Standard Instrument Departure (SID) Definition?

A

A preplanned instrument flight rule (IFR) air traffic control (ATC) departure procedure printed for pilot/controller use in graphic form to provide obstacle clearance and a transition from the terminal area to the appropriate en route structure. SIDs are primarily designed for system enhancement to expedite traffic flow and to reduce pilot/controller workload. ATC clearance must always be received prior to flying a SID

75
Q

Use these terms to issue departure clearances when necessary:

A
  • “DEPART”
  • “FLY”
  • “DEPARTURE”
76
Q

Avoid using “____” except when clearing an aircraft for _____ or canceling a _____ clearance. The word “_____” is used only in the ______ environment.

A

Takeoff x4, Terminal

77
Q

Include the following items in IFR departure clearances:

A
  • Airport of departure when issuing a departure clearance for relay to an aircraft by a noncontrol facility (Flight Data Unit, dispatcher, etc.)
  • Clearance limit
    • Specify destination airport even though outside controlled airspace
    • Issue short-range clearance limit as provided for in any established procedures
    • When the clearance limit is a NAVAID, the type of NAVAID must follow the NAVAID name.
78
Q

At airports with airport traffic control service, specify as necessary: (departures)

A
  • Direction of takeoff/turn, or
  • Initial heading/azimuth
79
Q

At airports without airport traffic control service within Class E surface area, specify as necessary:

A
  • Direction of takeoff/turn or initial heading/azimuth to be flown
    • Solicit pilot’s concurrence before issuing these in a clearance
  • After issuing direction of takeoff and/or heading to pilot:
    • Compatibility with a procedure issued may be verified by the pilot for compliance with local traffic pattern, terrain, or obstruction avoidance
80
Q

Assign a SID and include a transition, if necessary…

A
  • SIDs may be assigned if not included in the original flight plan with the pilot’s concurrence
  • If the pilot does not concur, he/she must notify ATC
81
Q

For Departure clearance routes, specify one or more of the following:

A
  • Airway
  • Route
  • Course
  • Heading
  • Azimuth
  • Arc
  • Vector
82
Q

Assign altitudes in the order of preference listed:

A
  • Altitude requested by the pilot
  • Nearest possible to the requested altitude and:
    • Inform the pilot when the requested altitude will be available, unless specified in a SID
    • If requested altitude is not available, inform the pilot:
      → What the final altitude is expected to be
      → When/where to expect the final altitude
82
Q

When a short-range clearance limit is utilized:

A

Advise the pilot of the routing to expect beyond the short-range clearance limit that differs from filed route

82
Q

Issue an abbreviated departure clearance if its use reduces verbiage and the following conditions are met:

A
  • Filed route of flight is unchanged prior to departure:
    • By pilot
    • By company
    • By operations officer
    • By input operator
    • In the stored flight plan program
  • All ATC facilities concerned have sufficient route of flight information to exercise control responsibilities
83
Q

When not able to issue a clearance at time of request, issue?

A

An Expect Departure Clearance (EDC) at the time the clearance can be expected from ATC

84
Q

Expect Departure Clearance Time (EDCT) Definition?

A

The runway release time assigned to an aircraft in a traffic management program and shown on the flight progress strip as an EDCT

  • When EDCTs are assigned through traffic management programs multiple facilities are required to meet timing criteria.
  • Do not release an aircraft on their assigned EDCT if a ground stop for that aircraft is in effect, unless approval from the ground stop originator is received.
85
Q

Ground Stop (GS) Definition?

A

The GS is a process that requires aircraft that meet a specific criteria to remain on the ground. The criteria may be airport specific, airspace specific, or equipment specific; for example, all departures to San Francisco, or all departures entering Yorktown sector, or all Category I and II aircraft going to Charlotte. GSs normally occur with little or no warning

-If a Ground Stop (GS) applicable to an aircraft is in effect, do not release the aircraft without approval of the originator of the GS

86
Q

If aircraft elect to take delay on the ground:

A

Issue departure clearances in the order of the original requests, if practicable

87
Q

Process airfile aircraft as follows:

A
  • Ensure aircraft is within your area of jurisdiction, unless coordinated
  • Obtain information necessary to provide IFR service
  • Issue clearance to:
    • Destination airport
    • Short-range clearance limit
  • Instruct pilot to contact Aero Center FDU to file IFR flight plan
88
Q

Issue the current altimeter setting to:

A
  • All en route aircraft operating below FL180 at least one time while operating within your area of
    jurisdiction
  • Aircraft cleared to descend below the lowest usable flight level
    • Issue an altimeter setting obtained from the weather reporting station nearest the point the
      aircraft will descend through the lowest usable flight level
  • Arriving aircraft approximately 50 miles from the destination if that airport is not served by an
    approach control facility
    • Issue destination altimeter setting
89
Q

Altimeter settings for the lowest usable flight level to clear aircraft at or above 18,000 feet MSL?

A
  • 29.92 or higher — FL180
  • 29.91 to 28.92 — FL190
  • 28.91 to 27.92 — FL200
90
Q

Directions of flight for specific altitudes:

A

At and Below FL410:
- On course degrees magnetic 0 through 179, assign Odd Altitudes
- On course degrees magnetic 180 through 359, assign Even Altitudes
Above FL410:
On course degrees magnetic 0 through 179, assign Odd Altitudes starting at FL410 (intervals of 4,000ft)
On course degrees magnetic 180 through 359, assign Even Altitudes starting at FL430 (intervals of 4,000ft)

91
Q

With prior approval from the affected sector or facility concerned, you may assign an altitude regardless of direction of flight as follows:

A
  • Traffic conditions prevent the assignment of an appropriate altitude
    • Specific procedures are covered in facility directives and/or inter-facility LOAs
  • The aircraft is experiencing meteorological conditions (e.g., icing, turbulence, weather activity)
  • A military aircraft is operating on a random route
  • The pilot informs you the available appropriate altitude exceeds the aircraft’s operational
    limitations
92
Q

Issue instructions to climb or descend, including restrictions if required, as follows:

A
  • Specify time restriction reference the UTC clock and issue a time check
  • If you are in direct, two-way, VHF/UHF voice communication with the pilot and the aircraft is in radar contact, you may specify an elapsed time interval restriction, in full minute increments only, without any reference to the UTC clock.
93
Q

When canceling pilot’s discretion portion of a climb/descent clearance:

A

Assign a new altitude and inform the pilot that the new altitude is an amended altitude

94
Q

When a route or altitude in a previously issued clearance is amended

A

Restate all applicable restrictions.

95
Q

Assign more than one altitude as follows:

A

“MAINTAIN BLOCK (altitude) THROUGH (altitude)”

96
Q

Ask for altitude assignment verification in the following situations:

A
  • In level flight situations
  • In climbing or descending situations if aircraft has been assigned an altitude below the lowest usable flight level
  • If aircraft has been assigned a flight level at or above the lowest usable flight level
97
Q

Phraseology for asking altitude assignment verification:

A
  • “VERIFY AT (altitude/flight level)”
  • “VERIFY ASSIGNED ALTITUDE (altitude)”
  • “VERIFY ASSIGNED FLIGHT LEVEL (flight level)”
98
Q

Hold Procedure Definition?

A

A predetermined maneuver, which keeps aircraft within a specified airspace while awaiting further clearance from air traffic control

99
Q

Hold Fix Definition?

A

A specified fix identifiable to a pilot by NAVAIDs or visual reference to the ground used as a reference point in establishing and maintaining the position of an aircraft while holding.

100
Q

Expect Further Clearance (EFC) (time) Definition?

A

The time a pilot can expect to receive clearance beyond a clearance limit

101
Q

Hold pattern standard procedures:

A
  • Right Turns, At or below 14,000 feet MSL… leg lengths 1 minute
  • Right Turns, Above 14,000 feet MSL… leg lengths 1 1/2 minute
102
Q

When would you specify direction of turns in a holding pattern?

A
  • Left turns are to be made
  • Pilot requests
  • Controller deems it necessary
103
Q

EFC issuance conditions:

A
  • Do not issue if no delay is expected
  • If delay is longer than anticipated, issue new EFC prior to expiration of current EFC
104
Q

Who should you advise when aircraft are delayed or delays are expected?

A

Advise Front Line Manager or TMU coordinator

105
Q

When arrival delays reach or are expected to reach 30 minutes:

A
  • Issue total delay information as soon as possible after the aircraft enters the center’s area
    • Issued by first controller to communicate with aircraft
    • May omit when available via ATIS, unless pilot requests
106
Q

If delays are indefinite the controller should?

A
  • Advise pilot “delay indefinite” and reason, if known
  • Issue EFC time
    • After determining the reason for the delay, advise the pilot as soon as possible
  • Make every effort to provide pilot with best possible estimate of delay and reason
107
Q

When should communications be transferred to approach control facilities?

A

Early enough to allow receiving facility to clear aircraft beyond the clearance limit before the aircraft reaches it

108
Q

Approach Clearance Definition?

A

Authorization by ATC for a pilot to conduct an instrument approach. The type of instrument approach for which a clearance and other pertinent information is provided in the approach clearance when required

109
Q

Instrument Approach Procedure (IAP) Definition?

A

A series of predetermined maneuvers for the orderly transfer of an aircraft under instrument flight conditions from the beginning of the initial approach to a landing or to a point from which a landing may be made visually. It is prescribed and approved for a specific airport by competent authority

110
Q

Instrument Approach Procedures (IAP) Charts Definition?

A

Charts that portray the aeronautical data which is required to execute an instrument approach to an airport

111
Q

Missed Approach Definition?

A

A maneuver conducted by a pilot when an instrument approach cannot be completed to a landing. The route of flight and altitude are shown on instrument approach procedure charts

112
Q

Each approach chart depicts:

A
  • Initial approach fix
  • Navigational data
  • Communications information
  • Airport sketch
  • Missed approach procedure
113
Q

To require a particular approach:

A
  • Specify name of approach as published on approach chart
    • “CLEARED (type) APPROACH”
  • If only one approach of a particular type is published, the approach need not be identified by runway reference
  • Circling approach instructions may only be given for aircraft landing at airports with operational control towers
    • CIRCLE TO RUNWAY (number)”
114
Q

Separate IFR aircraft by assigning different altitudes using the following minima:

A
  • Up to and including FL410 - 1,000 feet
    • Exception: 2000 feet at or above FL290 between non-RVSM aircraft and all other aircraft at or
      above FL290
  • Above FL410 - 2,000 feet
115
Q

Separate nonparticipating aircraft from active Special Use or ATC assigned airspace by the following minima:

A
  • FL290 and below - at least 500 feet above/below altitude limits of airspace
  • Above FL290 - at least 1,000 feet above/below altitude limits of airspace
116
Q

Same Courses Definition?

A

Courses whose protected airspaces are coincident, overlap, or intersect and whose angular difference is less than 45 degrees

117
Q

Crossing Courses Definition?

A

Intersecting courses whose angular difference is 45 through 135 degrees inclusive

118
Q

Opposite/Reciprocal Courses Definition?

A

Courses whose protected airspaces are coincident, overlap, or intersect and whose angular difference is greater than 135 degrees through 180 degrees inclusive

119
Q

Longitudinal Separation Definition?

A

The longitudinal spacing of aircraft at the same altitude by a minimum distance expressed in units of time or miles.

120
Q

Along-Track Distance (ATD) Definition?

A

The distance measured from a point in space by systems using area navigation reference capabilities that are not subject to slant range errors

121
Q

Standard Minima separation for Non-Radar?

A
  • 20 miles
  • 10 minutes
122
Q

Minima when lead aircraft is at least 44 knots faster between:

A
  • Non-DME aircraft - 3 minutes
  • DME and/or RNAV using ATD aircraft - 5 miles
  • DME and ATD aircraft - 5 miles
123
Q

When should the 44-knot or 22-knot rule be used?

A
  • A departing aircraft follows an aircraft which has taken off from the same or an adjacent airport
  • An enroute aircraft follows an enroute aircraft
  • A departing aircraft follows an enroute aircraft
  • A departing aircraft follows an en route aircraft which has reported over a fix serving the departure airport
  • An en route aircraft follows an en route aircraft which has reported over the same fix
124
Q

Minima when lead aircraft is at least 22 knots faster between:

A
  • Non-DME aircraft - 5 minutes
  • DME and/or RNAV using ATD aircraft - 10 miles
  • DME and ATD aircraft - 10 miles
125
Q

How wide is the protected airspace of an aircraft?

A

4 miles on each side of the route to a point 51 miles from the NAVAID (

126
Q

At airports with airport traffic control service, specify as necessary:

A
  • Direction of takeoff/turn
  • Initial heading/azimuth to be flown
127
Q

At airports within Class E surface areas, but without airport traffic control service, specify the following, if necessary, after soliciting/obtaining the pilot’s concurrence:

A
  • Direction of takeoff/turn
  • Initial heading/azimuth to be flown
128
Q

Where only textually described instrument departure procedures are published and pilot compliance is necessary to ensure separation, the controller should_____?

A

Include the procedure in the ATC clearance

129
Q

1 Minute initial separation

A

Courses must diverge by 45 degrees or more immediately after takeoff from adjacent or same airport

130
Q

2 Minute initial separation

A

Courses must diverge by 45 degrees or more within 5 minutes after takeoff from adjacent or same airport

131
Q

Can Nonapproach control towers provide visual separation?

A

Yes

  • Nonapproach control towers may be authorized to provide visual separation between aircraft within surface areas or designated areas provided other separation is assured before and after the application of visual separation

FAA Academy En Route (7 decks)

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