Civil Procedure MBE Flashcards
When can amendment be done without leave of court
An answer can be amended once as a matter of course within 21 days of
serving the answer or
being served with a responsive pleading or Rule 12(b) motion.
When can a JMOL be made
A motion for JMOL can be made before the case is submitted to the jury
but only after the nonmovant has had the opportunity to present its case.
Which interlocutory orders are appeallable immeditely as a matter of right?
- orders granting, modifying, refusing, or dissolving injunctions
- orders appointing or refusing to appoint receivers and
- decrees determining the rights and liabilities of the parties to admiralty cases in which appeals from final decrees are allowed
appeal must be made within 30 days of order
What is the deadline to file a notice of appeal?
Deadline to file a notice of appeal
within 30 days
OR
within 60 days for
Federal government,
agency, or officer/employee
Final judgment
entered
File notice of appeal
with district court clerk
When does the federal rule analysis apply? What is the analysis?
- In diversity cases when it is unclear whether an issue is substantive or procedural and a conflict exists between the state and federal law where federal law directly addresses the issue
- Court must apply a valid federal law so long as the law is arguably procedural AND does not abridge, modify, or enlarge a substantive right.
An appellate court may hear an appeal from a district court order that grants or denies class action certification. If the appellate court permits the appeal, the district court proceedings are stayed pending the appeal only when
ordered by the district court or the appellate court.
Special damages (e.g., loss of business and loss of earning capacity) MUST
be specifically stated in a pleading
Final process to enforce a judgment solely for the payment of money may be by:
1) Execution;
2) Writ of Garnishment; or
3) Other appropriate process/proceedings
Orders for pretrial conference must be served at least _________ before the date set for the conference.
20
How many requests for admissions and how many interrogatories may a party generally propound?
30
When must discovery be completed in an expedited trial?
within 60 days of court order adopting stipulation
Two or more claims for damages may be added together to reach the jurisdictional limit of the circuit court as long as those claims _________________.
Arise out of the same transaction
In computing any period of time prescribed or allowed by the rules of civil procedure, by order of the court, or by any applicable statute, is the day of the act, event, or default from which the designated period of time begins included?
NO
What are the three classifications of service of process?
1) Personal,
2) Substituted, and
3) Constructive
If a defendant makes a written settlement offer that is served on the plaintiff at least 45 days prior to trial, and the plaintiff rejects or fails to respond to the offer within 30 days, then the defendant will be entitled to recover reasonable costs and attorney’s fees incurred from the date of the offer if:
i) Judgment is one of no liability; or
ii) Judgment obtained by plaintiff is at least 25 percent less than such offer
Under the general venue statute, actions must be brought only in the county in which:
(1) Defendant resides (2) Cause of action accrued; or (3) Contested property is located.
If an attorney intends to use its work product at trial, must it be disclosed?
YES
What three categories of cases must the district court of appeals review by appeal?
1) Trial Court final orders NOT directly reviewable by supreme court or circuit court,
2) General law administrative actions, and
3) Certain non-final orders of circuit courts
Who is allowed to serve an answer to a complaint or cross-claim or a reply to a counterclaim within 40 days after service?
i) State of Florida;
ii) Agency of the state; and
iii) State officer/employee sued in an official capacity
When can a voluntary dismissal not be exercised by a party?
1) Property has been seized or is in court custody,
2) Fraud is committed on the court (counterclaim/cross-claim served before notice of dismissal), or
3) Motion to amend/add a counterclaim/cross-claim to the answer has been served (unless it can remain pending or defendant consents to dismissal)
May a plaintiff join a liability insurer in a civil action against a defendant insured by the company?
NO
What is the Statute of Limitations for an action based on negligence?
2 years
Personal jurisdiction 3 types:
(1) In personam jurisdiction
* Voluntary Presence
* Domicle
* Consent
(2) In rem jurisdiction
(3) Quasi-in-rem jurisdiction
What are the requirements of a complaint?
(i) A short and plain statement
* of the grounds that establish the court’s subject matter jurisdiction and
* of the claim establishing entitlement to relief; and
(ii) A demand for judgment for the relief sought by the pleader.
When must a party be joined as a compulsory joinder under Rule 19?
a person who is subject to service of process and whose joinder will not deprive the court of subject matter jurisdiction or destroy venue must be joined as a party if not doing so would:
(i) prevent complete relief to existing parties
(ii) Disposition in the absence of that person may impair the person’s ability to protect his interest; or
(iii) existing parties would be left subject to a substantial risk of multiple or inconsistent obligations
A temporary restraining order may issue without notice to the adverse party if:
(i) The moving party can establish, in an affidavit or a verified complaint, that immediate and irreparable injury will result prior to hearing the adverse party’s opposition; and
(ii) The movant’s attorney certifies in writing any efforts made to give notice and the reason why notice should not be required.
Under the Erie Doctrine, what law governs in a federal question claim?
ederal substantive and procedural law will control, as well as federal common law
What are the three types of class actions?
(1) Risk of Prejudice: The class is maintainable if the prosecution of separate actions would
* create the risk that the class opponent would become subject to incompatible standards of conduct resulting from inconsistent adjudications, or
* if prosecution of the claims through separate actions would impair the interests of the class members.
(2) Final Equitable Relief: A class seeking final injunctive or declaratory relief may be certified if the class **shares a general claim **against the opposing party.
(3) Common Legal or Factual Questions: A class can be certified if** questions of law or fact that are common to the class members predominate over any questions affecting only individual members, AND a class action is the superior method **for bringing about a fair and efficient adjudication of the controversy.
What is a judgment as a matter of law, and what is the standard used in deciding these motions?
- Party fully heard
- court may grant a motion for judgment as a matter of law resolving the issue against a party if the court finds that there is insufficient evidence for a jury reasonably to find for that party
The court must do the following in favor of the opposing party
1. view the evidence in the light most favorable to the opposing party and
2. draw all reasonable inferences from the evidence in favor of the opposing party.
Under Rule 20 permissive joinder, does the defendant to be joined have to meet the requirements of federal subject matter jurisdiction?
If brought under diversity jursidction YES
- there must be complete diversity between the plaintiffs and the defendants, and
- each claim must exceed the jurisdiction amount in controversy of $75,000.
What are the mandatory disclosures?
Rule 26(a) requires the parties to make:
(i) Initial disclosures;
(ii) Disclosures of expert testimony 90 days before trial; and
(iii) Pretrial disclosures 30 days before trial.
When is a default vs. a default judgment entered against a party?
DEFAULT
* occurs when a party has failed to plead or otherwise defend an action, and that failure is shown by affidavit or otherwise; the court clerk must then enter the party’s default.
DEFAULT JUDGMENT
* Once a default is entered against a party, the plaintiff may seek a default judgment from the court clerk * * (if relief sought is a sum certain or an amount that can be made certain by computation and the defaulting party is not a minor or incompetent)
* or otherwise apply to the court itself
What interlocutory orders are immediately appealable?
(i) An order granting, modifying, refusing, or dissolving an injunction;
(ii) An order appointing or refusing to appoint a receiver; and
(iii) A decereedetermining the rights and liabilities of the parties to admiralty cases in which appeals from final decrees are allowed