Civil Procedure Flashcards

1
Q

What 2 types of jurisdictions do federal courts need to hear a case?

A

subject matter jurisdiction and personal jurisdiction

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2
Q

What are the two required sub-categories of subject matter jurisdiction?

A

Diversity jurisdiction and federal question jurisdiction

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3
Q

What are the two requirements of diversity jurisdiction

A

1) complete diversity between parties (plaintiff doesn’t share state with defendant)
2) Amount in controversy must be over $75k

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4
Q

What is the requirement for federal question jurisdiction?

A

A well-pleaded complaint (complaint must assert a federal question at the beginning of the case)

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5
Q

What are the 4 requirements for a class action lawsuit?

A

1) The class must be so numerous that joinder of all members is impracticable (numerosity)
2) There must be questions of law or fact that are common to the class (commonality)
3) The claims or defenses of the representatives must be typical of the class (typicality)
4) The representatives must fairly and adequately protect the interests of the class (adequacy)

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6
Q

What are the elements of claim preclusion (res judicata)?

A

1) parties are the same as the parties in the past action
2) the court had jurisdiciton to render its verdict
3) the past verdict was final and binding
4) the past claim and current claim arise out of the same transaction or occurrence

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7
Q

What are the elements of issue preclusion (collateral estoppel)?

A

1) Past court issued a valid and final judgment
2) the past and current issue are the same
3) the issue was necessary to the prior case and the court entered a verdict on it
4) the party had ample opportunity to raise the issue in the past case

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8
Q

When is complete diversity not required?

A

In certain class action suits where there’s more than 100 plaintiffs and the amount in controversy is over $5 million

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9
Q

What is removal?

A

When a case is moved from state court into federal court (moving from federal court to another federal court is called transfer)

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10
Q

When is removal proper?

A

When the case could’ve been brought in federal court in the first place

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11
Q

What is aggregation?

A

When a plaintiff combines multiple cases they have into one case

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12
Q

When is aggregation appropriate for diversity jurisdiction?

A

A plaintiff can aggregate claims to meet the $75k threshold if they’re all against the same defendant, even if the claims are unrelated.

Multiple plaintiffs cannot aggregate their claims against a single defendant unless it’s a class action.

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13
Q

Who can remove a case to federal court?

A

Only defendants

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14
Q

What can a plaintiff do if they don’t like the case being removed to federal court?

A

They can file for a remand, in which case, the federal court would then decide if they have personal and subject matter jurisdiction to hear the case.

Removal is automatic upon the defendant’s filing for it. It’s up to the plaintiff to argue a remand if they want the case back in state court.

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15
Q

What is supplemental jurisdiction?

A

When a federal court agrees to hear state law cases relate to some federal law cases, so long as those state law cases arise from the nucleus of operative facts as the federal cases.

The state cases are basically tethered onto the federal law cases, and all are raised up to the federal court.

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16
Q

What are the types of personal jurisdiction?

A

in personam (over a person), in rem (over a property), quasi in rem (over a property but used to have jurisdiction over a person)

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17
Q

When is in personam jurisdiction met?

A

When there are sufficient minimum contacts between the non-resident defendant and the forum state

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18
Q

Normally, when is venue proper?

A

1) When the judicial district is where one or all of the defendant(s) reside, so long as the defendants all reside in the same state; or
2) when the judicial district is where a “substantial part of the events or omissions” on which the claim is based occurred, or where a “substantial part of the property” is located

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19
Q

What is the Erie Doctrine?

A

In a diversity case, if there’s no federal law on the issue, the federal court should use substantive state law

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20
Q

How does supplemental jurisdiction relate to diversity jurisdiction?

A

Diversity jurisdiction cannot be violated by supplemental jurisdiction. There still must be complete diversity between the parties.

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21
Q

What’s the difference between a compulsory and a permissive counterclaim?

A

A compulsory counterclaim is one that arises out of the same transaction or occurrence as the opposing party’s claim.

A permissive counterclaim doesn’t arise out of the same transaction or occurrence

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22
Q

What is a counterclaim?

A

When a defendant sues the plaintiff in retaliation for the plaintiff’s complaint

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23
Q

What’s a cross-claim?

A

When parties on the same side of a case sue one another (defendant sues co-defendant, plaintiff sues co-plaintiff)

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24
Q

What’s the difference between a compulsory counterclaim by a defendant and one by a plaintiff?

A

A defendant’s compulsory counterclaim doesn’t need to meet the amount in controversy requirement of diversity, and can therefore be tacked onto the original complaint via supplemental jurisdiction.

A plaintiff’s compulsory counterclaim must still meet the diversity requirements

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25
Q

Can a cross claim qualify for supplemental jurisdiction?

A

Yes, if it arose out of the same transaction of occurrence as the original complaint.

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26
Q

How does supplemental jurisdiction relate to federal question jurisdiction?

A

Cases can be supplemented across the board, so long as the additional claims are related to the original federal question case

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27
Q

What are the two central questions when considering whether a court has personal jurisdiction over someone?

A

1) Has the basis for exercising PJ over an out-of-state defendant been authorized by statute or rule? (is there a long-arm statute giving the court a basis for PJ)

2) Is the particular basis for exercising PJ here permitted by the Constitution’s Due Process Clause?

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28
Q

Can jurisdiction be waived by a party?

A

Subject matter jurisdiction cannot be waived. Personal jurisdiction can.

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29
Q

If a defendant doesn’t believe the court has personal jurisdiction over them, how should they respond?

A

Lack of personal jurisdiction must be raised at the first opportunity, otherwise it’s implicitly waived.

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30
Q

What is the difference between general and specific in personam jurisdiction?

A

general in personam jurisdiction is when the defendant has continuous and systematic contacts with the forum state that are so substantial that the defendant is essentially “at home” (i.e., where a defendant is domiciled)

Specific in personam is when the plaintiff’s claim arises from the defendant’s minimum contacts with the forum state and the exercise of jurisdiction would comply with notions of fair play and substantial justice.

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31
Q

What are the bases for a court to have general in personam jurisdiction over a defendant?

A

1) Consent: defendant consents to case being heard in that state

2) Physical Presence: defendant was served while physically present in forum state (can’t be gotten with fraud/force)

3) Domicile: defendant is domiciled in forum state

4) Corporations: for corporations, if the corporation does their principal business in the state and is headquartered there

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32
Q

What is a long arm statute?

A

A statute that gives a state court in personam jurisdiction over out-of-state defendants but ONLY for the
particular transactions involving that state.

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33
Q

Do federal courts typically use state or federal long arm statutes?

A

State. They use the long arm statute of the state in which they sit, unless one of the exceptions applies.

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34
Q

What are the exceptions to the use of state long arm statutes practice?

A

1) Federal Interpleader Act
2) Unusual Provision
3) Bulge Provision

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35
Q

What is the Federal Interpleader Act?

A

Federal law that authorized nationwide service of process to establish PJ

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36
Q

What is the bulge provision?

A

provision in the federal rules that allows for service of process within 100 miles of the courthouse, even if it’s out of state, to establish PJ.

Only happens in two situations: for impleading third party defendants under Rule 14 and for joining necessary third parties under Rule 19

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37
Q

What is the unusual provision in relation to specific in personam personal jurisdiction?

A

Rule 4(k)(2). If the plaintiff is suing under federal law, and no state has PJ over the defendant, then the federal courts will have PJ so long as the defendant has sufficient connections to the US as a whole.

38
Q

What is quasi in rem jurisdiction?

A

A hybrid where the court, lacking in personam over a defendant, instead goes after the defendant’s assets that they do have PJ to.

Must follow the same minimum contacts Due Process rule as in personam jurisdiction.

39
Q

What are the ways you can validly do service of process on someone?

A

Physical delivery: serving the defendant in person

Dwelling: Leaving the service at the defendant’s dwelling, with a person of suitable age

Agent: Delivering the summons to an authorized agent of the defendant

Foreign Countries: For foreigner defendants, serve by 1) using mail with a signed receipt or 2) serving in-line with the foreign country’s own service of process rules

40
Q

How do you service of process on a corporation?

A

By serving an officer, executive, or some other agent of the corporation that’s authorized to be served on the behalf of the corporation

41
Q

Is notice by publication ever allowed for service of process?

A

Yes, if you’ve already made diligent efforts to locate the defendant but cannot. Then you can serve them via publishing.

42
Q

Can a defendant waive the service requirement owed to them?

A

Yes. Doing so extends the deadline for filing an answer from 21 days to 60 days

43
Q

What is the timeline for a defendant answering the initial complaint?

A

The defendant must answer the complaint within 30 days, 60 if they’re outside US. Failure to answer will result in default judgment in plaintiff’s favor.

44
Q

What is an injunction?

A

A form of relief in a court case that either requires the defendant to do something (mandatory injunction) or prohibits them from doing something (permissive injunction)

45
Q

What is a TRO?

A

a temporary restraining order that cannot last longer than 14 days, unless good cause is shown to extend it.

Can only be granted after a notice and hearing is had.

46
Q

What must be included in an answer?

A

Admissions or denials for each allegation, motions that haven’t been waived yet, affirmative defenses, and compulsory counterclaims

47
Q

What is a deposition?

A

A discovery method where a party conducts a written or oral examination of a party or nonparty under oath and outside of court.

48
Q

What is an interrogatory?

A

A discovery method where a party submits up to 25 written questions to another party, and that other party has 30 days to give written responses

49
Q

What is a motion for judgment as a matter of law?

A

a request that the court enter a judgment in favor of the movant because the evidence is legally insufficient for a reasonable jury to find in the nonmovant’s favor.

50
Q

What should a court consider when deciding whether to grant a judgment as a matter of law?

A

the court must (1) view the evidence and draw all reasonable inferences in favor of the nonmovant, (2) disregard any evidence favorable to the movant that the jury need not believe, and (3) not consider the credibility of witnesses or the weight of evidence.

51
Q

What standard must an appellate court use when evaluating a lower court’s discretionary ruling (ex. whether to admit evidence)?

A

Abuse of discretion standard, which will reverse the lower court’s ruling if it’s clearly arbitrary and unreasonable.

52
Q

What is the standard used when an appellate court is evaluating a lower court’s final verdict?

A

Clearly erroneous standard. A judge or jury’s final verdict won’t be overturned unless it was clearly erroneous

53
Q

Who can use collateral estoppel (issue preclusion)?

A

Both defendants and plaintiffs. Plaintiffs in later suits can use it offensively to establish an issue against parties from the first action.

Defendants in later suits can use it defensively to stop future plaintiffs from bringing up that same issue over and over again.

54
Q

What must the complaint contain?

A

1) a short, plain statement establishing the court’s subject matter jurisdiction
2) A short and plain statement of the claim establishing entitlement to relief; and
3) A demand for judgment for the relief sought by the pleader.

55
Q

What is permissive joinder under Rule 20?

A

A joining of multiple plaintiffs together. Plaintiffs can join together if 1) they assert claims arising out of the same transaction or occurrence and 2) there is a common question of fact or law

56
Q

When can permissive and compulsory counterclaims be made?

A

Permissive counterclaims can be raised any time.

Compulsory counterclaims must be raised pre-answer

56
Q

What are the grounds for granting a motion for new trial?

A

1) legal errors
2) newly discovered evidence that existed at the time of trial
3) Prejudicial misconduct of judge, party, lawyer, or juror
4) verdict is against the great weight of the evidence
5) verdict is based on false evidence
6) verdict is excessive or inadequate

56
Q

How long does a defendant have to respond to the initial complaint?

A

They have 21 days to file either an answer or a pre-answer motion

56
Q

What defenses are waived unless they’re brought up in the answer or pre-answer motion?

A

Improper venue, lack of PJ, insufficient process, and insufficient service of process.

These defenses must all be raised in the answer or pre-answer motion

57
Q

What is the home court advantage rule?

A

A rule that prohibits removal from state to federal court when 1) the fed court’s subject matter jurisdiction arises from diversity jurisdiction, and 2) the defendant is a citizen of the state where the case was filed.

This gives the defendant a home court advantage by keeping the case in their home state.

58
Q

Can a pleading be amended?

A

Yes, a party has a right to amend within 21 days of the pleading or 21 days of the defendant’s response.

Otherwise, amending the complaint can be done via court order or consent from the other side.

59
Q

When can a party make an appeal after the final judgment is rendered?

A

They must file their appeal within 30 days of the final judgment

60
Q

When can a court issue a summary judgment?

A

1) when there’s no dispute as to any material facts; and
2) the movant is entitled to judgment as a matter of law

61
Q

When must a motion to remove a case be filed?

A

within 30 days of receiving the complaint.

If there’s multiple defendants, they must all consent to the removal

62
Q

What kind of law is considered substantive in regard to Erie Doctrine?

A

1) law addressing statute of limitations
2) law that creates evidentiary privileges
3) law that alters how damages are calculated

63
Q

What is a preliminary injunction?

A

a temporary court order that commands or prohibits certain actions while the case is pending before the court

64
Q

When will a preliminary injunction be granted?

A

If the seeking party can show:
1) they’re likely to succeed on the merits of the lawsuit
2) irreparable harm will occur if the injunction isn’t granted
3) balancing the equities is in the seeking party’s favor
4) the injunction is in the public’s best interest

65
Q

What is the relation back doctrine?

A

A doctrine addressing amendments and when a party can amend their complaint even though the statute of limitations has already run.

66
Q

Can new claims be added into a lawsuit even though the statute of limitations has already run?

A

Yes. A new claim can be added if the original complaint was timely filed, and the new claim is from the same transaction or occurrence as the claims in the original complaint.

67
Q

Can new parties be added into a lawsuit even though the complaint is already filed, and the statute of limitations has run?

A

Yes in limited circumstances. A new defendant can be added if:
1) the claim against the new defendant arises from the same transaction or occurrence as the preexisting claims
2) the new defendant must’ve known about the original complaint within 90 days of when it was filed
3) the new defendant must’ve known, but for a mistake, he would’ve been part of the original complaint

68
Q

What is a Rule 19 compulsory joinder?

A

When a third party must be joined because they are necessary

69
Q

When is impleader appropriate?

A

Defendant can bring in 3rd party as long as they can show that the reason for bringing them in is related to the original claim

70
Q

What is intervention?

A

When a nonparty butts into the lawsuit as a party

70
Q

When is intervention appropriate?

A

As a right, a nonparty can intervene into the lawsuit if:
1) nonparty has interest in property or transaction that is subject matter or action
2) Disposition of action may impair nonparty’s interest
3) Nonparty’s interest not adequately represented by existing parties

Permissive intervention also exists if federal statute allows nonparty to intervene into the suit

70
Q

What counts as sufficient minimum contacts to establish personal jurisdiction?

A

If there is purposeful availment, meaning that the defendant’s contacts with forum state must be purposeful and
substantial, such that D should reasonably anticipate (foresee) being taken to court
there

71
Q

When determining whether to impose sanctions, what factors should a court consider?

A

In determining fs, the court should consider the prejudice to another party and the intent of the party that failed to preserve the evidence.

72
Q

What is the special venue rule regarding foreign citizens?

A

When someone isn’t a US citizen, venue is proper in any federal district.

73
Q

When a claim arises under federal question jurisdiction, which substantive and procedural law does the court apply?

A

Federal procedural and federal substantive law

74
Q

When a claim arises under diversity jurisdiction, which substantive and procedural law does the court apply?

A

federal procedural law and state substantive law

75
Q

What is the timeline on making a demand for a jury trial?

A

Any party can make the demand if they:
1) serve the demand on the opposing party within 14 days after the last pleading directed to that issue is served; and
2) the demand is filed with the court within a reasonable amount of time after service on the opposing party

76
Q

How can a party challenge jury instructions?

A

The party must preserve the issue for appeal by timely objecting to the instructions on the record.

An objection is timely if it’s made promptly after learning about the instructions and it’s done before the instructions are given to the jury.

77
Q

When can a party move for relief from a final judgment?

A

The motion must be made within 1 year of the judgment if the basis for the motion is either:
1) newly discovered evidence that couldn’t be discovered even with due diligence,
2) the nonmovant engaged in fraud, misconduct, or misrepresentation; or
3) The judgment was due to mistake, inadvertence, surprise, or excusable neglect by the nonmovant or the court

Otherwise, for all other reasons, the motion must be made within a reasonable amount of time from the judgment

77
Q

When can a court order a party undergo a mental or physical examination?

A

1) mental and/or physical condition is in controversy; and
2) the motion for the order was made in good cause; and
3) the order provides notice by specifying the time, place, manner, conditions, and scope of the exam, as well as the person who will perform it.

78
Q

When can a party make a motion for summary judgment?

A

30 days after the close of all discovery

79
Q

When does a party need to disclose the expert witnesses they’re calling?

A

90 days before trial

80
Q

When must a plaintiff serve process on a defendant?

A

Within 90 days after the complaint is filed

81
Q

What are the two kinds of case dismissal?

A

Involuntary dismissal (defendant moves to dismiss the suit) or voluntary dismissal (plaintiff moves to dismiss the suit)

82
Q

What’s the difference between how a voluntary and involuntary dismissal affect the case?

A

If an involuntary dismissal is granted, it’s considered an adjudication on the merits, and thereby dismisses the case with prejudice (plaintiff can’t re-sue)

In a voluntary dismissal, the case isn’t presumed to be dismissed with prejudice.

83
Q

When does a plaintiff need to file a reply to a defendant’s answer?

A

Only when the court expressly orders them to. A plaintiff doesn’t inherently need to make a reply.

84
Q

What are the exceptions to the final judgment rule, allowing immediate appeal as a right?

A

Certain equitable orders:
1) Injunction (grant or denial)
2) Certification by district court
3) Class action certification
4) admiralty cases
5) appointment of receiver
6) collateral-order doctrine
7) bankruptcy cases
8) petition for writ of mandamus
9) patent-infringement order