Civil Procedure Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

What are the requirements for personal jurisdiction?

A

There are three types of personal jurisdiction: specific, general, and tag jurisdiction.

A court may have specific jurisdiction over a defendant. The exercise of specific jurisdiction must comport with a state’s long arm statute and the Constitution. If the long-arm statute exercises personal jurisdiction to the same extent as the Constitution, the analysis only focuses on the Constitutional analysis. The Constitutional analysis for specific jurisdiction looks at whether the defendant has minimum contact with the forum state, the relatedness between the plaintiff’s claim and the forum state, and fairness. Minimum contacts means the defendant must have purposefully availed himself of the rights and privileges of the forum state such that it is reasonably foreseeable that he could be hailed there. Relatedness means the plaintiff’s claim arises out of the defendant’s contact with the forum state. Fairness refers to balancing the interests of the plaintiff, the defendant, and the state.

A court may also have general jurisdiction over a defendant. General jurisdiction requires the defendant to be domiciled in the forum state. A person is domiciled in a place where he is physically present and he intends to stay in this place indefinitely for the indefinite future. A corporation is domiciled in their places of incorporation and their principal place of business. Courts also have general jurisdiction over corporate defendants if they are registered to do business in a state and have appointed an agent for service of process there.

A court has tag jurisdiction over a defendant if the defendant is served with process in the forum state. Under the “bulge rule,” there is personal jurisdiction over a party if he is served in a district in the United States and not more than 100 miles from the federal court that issued the summons regardless of his contacts with the forum state. However, tag jurisdiction does not apply to a defendant being sued in his professional capacity if the defendant is served with process on the forum state while taking a personal vacation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the requirements for service of process?

A

Service of process includes the summons and the complaint. Process must be provided by a non-party to someone over the age of 18 within 90 days of filing the complaint. Process can be provided to someone other than the party if the person is of suitable age and discretion (18 or older) and the person resides at the defendant’s usual place of abode. Process may also be served on agents or according to state law methods.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the requirements for subject matter jurisdiction?

A

There are two types of subject matter jurisdiction: diversity and federal question.

Diversity jurisdiction is met if none of the plaintiffs share the same state citizenship with any of the defendants (or if one party is a citizen of a state and the other party is a citizen of a foreign country) and the amount in controversy is greater than $75,000. A person is domiciled in a place where he is physically present and he intends to stay in this place indefinitely for the indefinite future. A corporation is domiciled in their places of incorporation and their principal place of business (the “nerve center”). Partnerships and limited liability companies are domiciled wherever its members are domiciled. A single plainitff can aggregate multiple claims to reach the amount in controversy, but multiple plaintiffs cannot aggregate their claims together to meet this amount.

Federal question jurisdiction is at least one claim in the plaintiff’s well-pleaded complaint arises under federal law. This asks if the plaintiff is enforcing a federal right.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the rules for removal?

A

A defendant can remove a case to federal court within 30 days of service of process. Other defendants can file their own motions for removal or consent to removal, but all defendants must agree to removal. If removal is granted, the defendant removes to the district court embracing the state court where that case was filed, even if venue would not be proper in this new court. In a diversity case, the defendant cannot remove the case if the defendant is a citizen of the forum state or more than one year has passed since the plaintiff first filed the case in state court. A plaintiff can remand the case to state court for any non-SMJ reason within 30 days of the notice of removal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is supplemental jurisdiction?

A

A part may invoke supplemental jurisdiction on a new claim (1) if there is an independent basis for jurisdiction over the claims (diversity or federal question) or (2) if the added claim is part of the same common nucleus of operative fact as the claim that satisfied SMJ. A defendant can invoke supplemental jurisdiction if the plaintiff’s claim satisfies subject matter jurisdiction. In diversity cases, plaintiffs normally cannot invoke supplemental jurisdiction. However, a plaintiff can invoke supplemental jurisdiction if the case involves more than one plaintiff, at least one of the plaintiffs satisfies diversity jurisdiction, and the other plaintiff, who is diverse but raises a claim that does not meet the amount in controversy, arises out of the same transaction or occurrence as the plaintiff that satisfies diversity jurisdiction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How does a judge determine whether state law applies in a federal diversity jurisdiction case?

A

Courts will apply the Erie Doctrine. First, courts will determine whether there is a federal law on point that directly conflicts with the state law and forces federal law to govern. Second, if this is not the case, courts will apply state law to substantive issues such as conflicts (or choice) of law, elements of a claim or defense, rules for tolling the statute of limitations, and the standard for granting a new trial because the jury’s damages award was excessive. Third, if neither of these is the case, the court must determine whether the issue is substantive (meaning state law applies) and courts will consider whether the issue is outcome determinative, the interests of state and federal systems, and whether ignoring state law will encourage forum shopping.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the requirements for venue?

A

There are two types of venue: transactional and residential.

A court is a proper transactional venue if a substantial part of the claim or a substantial part of the property involved in an area covered by this court.

A court is a proper residential venue if ALL the defendants reside in an area covered by this court. A human resides in the federal district where he is domiciled. A corporation resides in the federal district courts where it is subject to personal jurisdiction. If all the defendants reside in the same state, venue is proper in any of the federal district courts in the state, even if not all the defendants reside in the same federal district court.

If neither of these are appropriate, the venue will be proper wherever the defendant is subject to personal jurisdiction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the rules for venue transfer?

A

If the original venue is proper in a diversity case, the party seeking the transfer must show that public (e.g., what law applies, what community should be burdened with jury service, the desire to keep a local controversy in a local court, etc.) and private interest factors (e.g., convenience) weigh in favor of transfer. In this case, the transferee court will apply the choice of law rules of the transferor court, unless a valid forum selection clause states otherwise. Courts will only look at the public interest factors for a venue transfer based on a forum selection clause. The only exception is that parties can consent to transfer to a new proper or improper venue. However, the defendant(s) must be subject to personal jurisdiction in the transferee court.

If the original venue is improper in a diversity case, courts will usually grant the transfer or dismiss the case. The parties cannot consent to a new proper or improper venue. In this case, the transferee court will apply its own choice of law rules.

If a proper venue is located outside the United States judicial system, a court may apply the same public and private interest factors under the doctrine of forum non-conveniens to determine if the case needs to be dismissed in favor of transferring the case to a court outside the United States. This court must be available and adequate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the pleading standard?

A

A plaintiff must plead sufficient facts to support a plausible claim. In cases involving, fraud, mistake, or special damages, the plaintiff must plead with particularity and specificity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the rules for amending the pleadings?

A

The plaintiff may amend their complaint within 21 days of serving the complaint, the defendant serving their Rule 12 response, or the defendant serving their anwer while a defendant may amend their answer within 21 days of serving it. Alternatively, the court may grant leave to amend if justice so requires. If the defendant’s first response was the answer, the defendant can amend the answer to include the waiveable defenses.

A pleading can be amended to include a new claim and change a defendant if the amended pleading relates back to the original pleading, meaning the pleading concerns the same conduct, transaction, or occurrence as the original pleading. If a defendant is being changed, the defendant must also have had knowledge of the case and known that she would have been named originally but for the mistake.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What does a party certify when it submits a paper to the court?

A

A party certifies (1) that the paper is not for an improper purpose, (2) the legal contentions are warranted by law or a nonfrivolous argument for a law change, and (3) the factual contentions and denials have evidentiary support or are likely to after further investigation. Rule 11 sanctions can be imposed against parties, attorneys, or law firms, and may consist of monetary penalties, such as payment of expense and attorneys’ fees incurred because of the improper paper, and non-monetary measures such as censuring the offending lawyer or striking the offending pleading.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the safe harbor rule for sanctions?

A

A party seeking to sanction an opposing party must serve the motion for sanctions on the opposing party. The opposing party then has 21 days to fix the problems and avoid sanctions, otherwise the motion is filed with the court.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the rules for joinder (think plaintiffs)?

A

Permissive Joinder: Claims by multiple plaintiffs against multiple defendants must (1) be part of the same transaction or occurrence and (2) involve at least one common question of law or fact. There must be SMJ over these claims.

Compulsory Joinder: An party not joined to the case may be a necessary absentee party. In this case, joinder may be necessary where (1) the court cannot accord complete relief to the existing parties, (2) the absentee’s interest may be harmed if he is not joined (most common), or (3) the absentee claims an interest that subjects a party to a risk of multiple obligations. Joint tortfeasers are never necessary.

Indespensible Party: To add an absentee party, the court must have PJ over the absentee and SMJ over any claims brought by or against the absentee. If the absentee party cannot be joined (e.g., no PJ), courts must determine whether to proceed or dismiss the case. Courts will look at the (1) the extent of prejudice to the absentee or available parties, (2) the extent to which the prejudice can be reduced or avoided by means of protective provisions in the judgment, the shaping of relief, or other measures, (3) the adequacy of a judgment rendered without the absentee, and (4) whether the plaintiff will have an adequate remedy in another forum if the case is dismissed for nonjoinder.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What type of claims can a defendant bring?

A

A defendant may bring counterclaims against a plaintiff. If these claims arise from the same transaction or occurrence as the plainitff’s claim, the defendant must raise these compulsory counterclaim, otherwise he waives them. A defendant can also bring crossclaims against a co-party if these claims arise from the same transaction and occurrence as the underlying action, but these claims are not compulsory. There must be SMJ over counterclaims and crossclaims. Counterclaims and crossclaims may be subject to supplemental jurisdiction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the rules for impleader (think defendants)?

A

An impleader claim is usually brought by the defendant and tries to shift liability from the defendant to a third party. This typically involves claims for indemnity or contribution. To implead a third party, the defendant must file a complaint against the the third party and serve it on the third party. SMJ is required for claims brought against impleaded third parties, but venue need not be proper. Defendant’s claims against impleaded third parties may be subject to supplemental jurisdiction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the rules for class actions?

A

To qualify as a class action four requirements must first be met: (1) numerosity in class members, (2) common issue among class members, (3) typicality in the class claims, and (4) adequate class representation. Next, the class action must fall into one of three categories: (1) the class is necessary to avoid harm or prejudice, (2) the class seeks injunctive of declaratory relief (most common), or (3) common questions predominate over individual questions such that the class action is a superior method to handle the dispute.

Class members in the third type of class action must be notified that they are in a class so that they can have a chance to opt out and not be bound by the judgment. All other members of a class will be bound by the judgment denied in a class action.

Notice of a dismissal or settlement of a class action must be given to all members of the class in a manner directed by the court. The court must approve settlement or dismissal of a class action.

Class actions can be brought under the Class Action Fairness Act if (1) there are at least 100 members, (2) any class members is of diverse citizenship with any defendant, and (3) the aggregated claims of the class exceed $5 million.

17
Q

What is the process for sanctioning a party that failed to comply with a discovery request?

A

If a party does not respond to a discovery request, the party will be subject to merits sanctions. If a party provides a less than full response to a discovery request, the requesting party must first move for an order compelling the party to comply, and if the party violates the order, the court can order merits sanctions. Merits sanctions can include an establishment order, a strike of pleadings, the disallowance of evidence, a dismissal of the plaintiff’s case, and an entry of default judgment.

18
Q

Describe the process for TROs and preliminary injunctions?

A

A party can move for an ex parte TRO against the opposing party. The moving party must file a paper under oath showing that it will be immediately and irreparably harmed if it must wait to hear from the other side and the moving party’s lawyer must certify in writing her efforts to give oral or written notice to the defendant or the defendant’s lawyer (or why such notice should not be required). A TRO last 14 days subject to a potential 14 day extension. A TRO that lasts more than 28 days is a preliminary injunction. To obtain a preliminary injunction, the moving party must show (1) irreparable harm, (2) likelihood to succeed on the merits, (3) balancing of hardships in favor of the moving party, and (4) public interest.

19
Q

What is the process for obtaining a default judgment?

A

First, a plaintiff must move for an entry of default against the defendant demonstrating that the defendant failed to respond in time. Until a default is entered, the defendant can respond by motion or answer. Entry of default cuts off the defendant’s right to respond. Second, a plaintiff may then move for a motion of default judgment against the defendant with the clerk of the court if the defendant has made no response at all (i.e., never appeared), the plaintiff provides an affidavit for a sum certain, and the defendant is not a minor or incompetent. If either one of these is not true, the plaintiff must apply to the court for a default judgment. The moving party is not required to provide notice to the defaulting party about default judgment if that party has not made an appearance in the case, but notice is required if the defaulting party did make an earlier appearance.

20
Q

What is the standard for summary judgment?

A

A motion for summary judgment will be granted to the moving party if there is no dispute of material fact and the moving party is entitled to judgment as a matter of law. The moving party must filed the motion no later than 30 days after the close of discovery.

21
Q

What is the process for an entry of judgment?

A

If the jury returns a verdict, the clerk of the court will enter the judgment. If the jury returns a special verdict (or general verdict with written questions), and the answers are consistent with each other and with the verdict, the judge approves the judgment and the clerk enters it. In a case involving a general verdict with written questions, if the answers are consistent with each other but inconsistent with the verdict, the court may enter an appropriate judgment consistent with the answers. If the answers are inconsistent with each other and one or more is inconsistent with the general verdict, no judgement may be entered. In both cases, however, the court may order a new trial.

22
Q

What is the process for appeals under the Interlocutory Appeals Act?

A

The Act allows for the appeal of a non-final order if (1) the district judge certifies that it involves a controlling issue of law as to which there is a substantial ground for differences of opinion and (2) the court of appeals agrees to hear it.

23
Q

Explain the Collateral Order Doctrine.

A

The appellate court has discretion to hear an appeal on an issue if that issue (1) is distinct from the merits of the case, (2) it involves an important legal question, and (3) is essentially unreviewable if parties await a final judgment. The Court has only ever applied this to the 11th Amendment and Double Jeopardy cases.

24
Q

What is claim preclusion?

A

A claimant is precluded from raising a claim in a subsequent trial if (1) the involves the same claimants, or parties in privity, suing the same defendants as a previous case, (2) the previous case ended in a valid final judgment on the merits, and (3) the case involves the same claim as the previous case. There are two ways of interpreting the third requirements: (1) Majority: a claim is any right to relief arising from a transaction or occurrence; or (2) Minority: there are separate claims to property damages and personal injuries that can arise from a single event. When a party wins a prior action, that claim merges with the prior judgment. Where a party loses a prior action, the claim is said to be barred by the prior judgment.

25
Q

What is issue preclusion?

A

A claimant is precluded from litigating an issue in a subsequent trial if (1) the previous case ended in a final judgment on the merits, (2) the same issue was litigated and determined in the previous, (3) the issue was the basis of the judgment in the previous case, (4) the person against whom preclusion is issued was a party to the previous case or in privity with a party to the previous case, and (5) if a non-party to the previous suit is invoking issue preclusion as the plaintiff in the present case, courts must assess whether issue preclusion is fair. In assessing fairness, courts will consider whether (1) the party to be bound had a full and fair opportunity to litigate the previous case, (2) the party to be bound had a strong incentive to litigate the previous case, (3) the party asserting issue preclusion could have easily joined to the previous case, and (4) there have been no inconsistent findings on the issue.

26
Q

What are the grounds for a motion from relief from judgment?

A

A party may move for a motion from relief of judgment on the following grounds: (1) mistake inadvertence, surprise of excusable neglect; (2) newly discovered evidence that by due diligence could not have been discovered in time to move for a new trial; (3) fraud, misrepresentation, or other misconduct of an adverse party; (4) the judgment is void; (5) the judgment has been satisfied, released, or discharged, a prior judgment on which it is based has been reversed or otherwise vacated, or it is no longer equitable that the judgment should have prospective application; and (6) any other reason justifying relief from the operation of the judgment. The first three grounds for relief must be made within a reasonable time not exceeding one year. The other grounds for relief can be made within a reasonable time.

27
Q

What are the rules for a jury trial?

A

The Seventh Amendment right to a jury trial in federal courts applies to all “suits of common law” where the amount in controversy exceeds $20. If a new claim is created that did not exist at common law, a right to a jury trial will exist if the claim is similar to a claim for common law rights and remedies.

28
Q

What are the rules for motion for judgment as a matter of law, renewed motion for judgment as a matter of law, and a new trial?

A

In a bench trial, a judge may enter a judgment as a matter of law against a party on any issue whenever there are sufficient facts to resolve the issue, provided the party has been fully heard on the issue. To grant the motion, a court must find that a reasonable jury would not have a legally sufficient basis to find for the nonmoving party on that issue.

A new trial may be granted because of an error during the trial, because the verdict is against the weight of the evidence, because of juror misconduct, or because the verdict is excessive or inadequate. If the court rules on a renewed motion for judgment as a matter of law that is coupled with a request for a new trial, the court must rule hypothetically on the new trial motion so that no remand is required of the ruling on the judgment as a matter of law is subsequently reversed on appeal.

29
Q

What are the standards of review on appeal?

A

On Matters of Law: De novo.
On Questions of Fact: Clearly erroneous (bench trial) and a reasonable jury could have reached the same concluding while viewing the evidence in the light most favorable to affirming the jury’s verdict (jury trials).
On Mixed Questions of Law and Fact: De novo.
On Discretionary Matters: Abuse of discretion (e.g., whether to consolidate or sever cases, whether to grant leave to amend a pleading, whether to admit evidence).

30
Q

What is the rule for appealing a case involving multiple claims or parties?

A

When more than one claim is presented in a case, or when there are multiple parties, the district court may expressly direct entry of a final judgment as to one or more of them if it makes an express finding that there is no just reason for delay.