Civil commitment + civil comp Flashcards

1
Q

What are the differences between criminal and civil commitment?

A

1) Police power v. Parents patriae (punish v. Tx
2) Bx that triggers the intervention (the criminal act v. Future risk of harm)
3) Strictness of procedures (beyond a reasonable doubt v. Lax/clear and convincing
4) Length of intervention

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2
Q

What are 3 ways in which civil commitment was challenged in the 1970s?

A

1) Challenges to substantive and procedural criteria of state commitment laws
2) Challenges to institutional conditions (LRA, right to tx)
3) How tx was administered (forced v. Right to refuse tx)

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3
Q

What was the finding in O’Connor v. Donaldson?

A

That civil commitment required the presence of dangerousness. You can’t commit someone just bc they are SMI or to improve their living conditions.

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4
Q

What are the similarities between civil and criminal commitment?

A

Both allow confinement or mandated intervention bc of bx unacceptable to the community.

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5
Q

What factors facilitated deinstitutionalization

A

Antipsychotics being created, Kennedy’s community MH centers act, Medicare/Medicaid/SS, managed care.

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6
Q

What are the risks/disadvantages of commitment?

A

Stigma, increased risk of institutional dependency, loss of civil rights (marry, vote, driver’s license, have kids)

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7
Q

What was the finding in Addington v. Texas

A

For civil commitment, the standard of proof is clear and convincing.

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8
Q

Per Parham v. J.R., what 3 factors/issues should be considered in civil commitment?

A

Juvie case: (1) The minor’s interest in not being committed. (2) The state’s interest in the procedures for the commitment & tx of kids. (3) THe need for protection against arbitrary commitment decisions.

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9
Q

In the civil commitment context, what is the definition of a mental disorder?

A

An illness that is substantial and grossly impairing, including disturbances in cognitive and functional abilities.

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10
Q

What key elements are common across most civil commitment criteria and procedures?

A

Presence of a mental do, dangerousness (including grave d/a), medical competency, need for tx as prognosis poor w/o it. Commitment impermissible if least restrictive environment exists (e.g., outpatient commitment like Kendra’s Law in NY)

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11
Q

What was the finding in Zinermon v. Burch?

A

A hospital violated state law by admitting Burch as a voluntary patient when they knew or should have known that he was incompetent to give informed consent to his admission. Their failure to initiate Florida’s involuntary placement procedure denied him constitutionally guaranteed procedural safeguards (e.g., involuntary commit hearing that is designed to protect his due process and liberty).

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12
Q

What are the two stages of inpatient commitment?

A

Emergency admission and long-term commitment.

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13
Q

With emergency admissions, what 3 things does every state require for the individual to be told?

A

Length of confinement (72 hours), when the right to counsel becomes available, when they are entitled to a hearing.

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14
Q

With what rights is an individual entitled to in a long-term commitment proceeding?

A

Written notice of rights (reasons for it), right to counsel, right to call and cross-examine witnesses, right to request a jury trial, right to have a judge v. Clinician make the ultimate decision, and right to have the state prove its case by clear and convincing evidence.

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15
Q

What is the relevance of Morrissey v. Brewer when someone on outpatient commitment revocation and transfer to inpatient care?

A

SCOTUS said parolees had rights to revocation proceedings, including notice, confrontation, counsel, etc.

So the same logic and procedures to outpatient civil commitment in some jurisdictions. However, some states automatically hospitalize people, and allow them to challenge via habeus corpus.

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16
Q

What was the finding in Jones v. US?

A

NGRI patients are more dangerous and have an ongoing SMI that requires tx.

A verdict of not guilty by reason of insanity is sufficiently probative of mental illness and dangerousness to justify commitment of the acquittee for the purposes of treatment and the protection of society. Such a verdict establishes that the defendant committed an act constituting a criminal offense, and that he committed the act because of mental illness. Indefinite commitment of an insanity acquittee, based on proof of insanity by only a preponderance of the evidence, comports with due process.

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17
Q

What was the finding in Foucha v. Louisiana

A

Dangerousness alone is insufficient to keep someone committed.

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18
Q

Kansas v. Hendricks

A

A statute allowing civil commitment and long-term treatment of individuals convicted of sexually violent offenses who suffer from mental abnormalities or personality disorders that make them likely to continue to commit sexually predatory behavior is constitutional. It’s not double jeopardy, bc the focus is on tx, not retribution.

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19
Q

What is guardianship?

A

A legal mechanism by which the state delegates authority over an individual’s person or estate to another party.

Guardian - one’s person and medical decisions
Conservator - finances.

20
Q

What are four things to consider in a guardianship eval?

A

1) There is loss of decisional autonomy, which has psychological consequences
2) Focus on fx’l abilities vs. dx/sx
3) See if there’s anything that can be remediate/least restrictive alternative
4) Keep abreast of newest strategies in performing these evals.

21
Q

What individual- and context-specific factors should one consider in a guardianship eval?

A
  • Individual: measurement error due to hearing/vision/PS loss, reluctance to take tests
  • Context: environment might discourage them from taking care of themselves (e.g., $ mgmt)
22
Q

What is the DAFS?

A

Direct Assessment of Functional Status. 85 items that assess fxl domains.

Revised version is more sensitive to early decrement in ADLs.

23
Q

What is the ACED?

A

Assessment of Capacity for Everyday Decision-Making.

Assesses decisional capacity in solving their own fx’l problems. Semi-structured interview. Has competency rubric by Grisso and Appelbaum.

24
Q

What role does MH play with guardians?

A

Involved when conflicts are apparent, help appoint guardians attuned to ward’s needs.

25
Q

What is an advanced directive?

A

A living will. A competent individual’s instructions that directs/authorizations certain actions if they become unable to make decisions. Protects autonomy by making clear what they want.

26
Q

What is the federal patient self-determination act?

A

Requires all health care providers receiving Medicare or Medicaid funding to provide pts info re: (1) right to participate in tx decisions, and (2) prepare advanced directives.

27
Q

What are three objectives of informed consent?

A

1) Promote autonomy
2) Encourage rational decision making
3) Protect safety/welfare of pts/research subjects

28
Q

What is appropriate disclosure?

A

What a patient would require to make a reasonable decision.

Risks/benefits, nature of procedure, its alternatives.

29
Q

What are 4 exceptions to informed consent?

A

Emergencies, if waived by patient, if IC process would cause harm to the patient, when the pt is incompetent

30
Q

What is the significance of Rennie v. Klein and Rogers v. Commissioner of MH?

A

First cases to focus on patient’s right to tx (vs. hospitals can do whatevs to people before)

31
Q

What are the components of medical competence?

A

1) Understanding: what the pt understands about nature/purpose fo tx, risks/benefits of it.
2) Reasoning: Ability to apply this info to their own situation
3) Appreciation: What are their reasons for consenting/refisomg.

32
Q

What are some instruments available to assess medical competency?

A

MacCAT-T

Capacity to Consent to Treatment Instrument (CCTI)

33
Q

What is the CAT-PAD?

A

Competence Assessment Tool for PSychiatric Advance Directives.

Measures understanding, reasoning, and appreciation of tx subscales so the PAD (doc that details preferred tx and/or designated proxy) is legit.

34
Q

What code was fundamental to the creation of IRBs?

A

Nuremberg Code.

35
Q

What are the components of an IRB?

A

1) Research study/purposes
2) Duration of participation
3) ID experimental procedures
4) Foreseeable risks/discomforts
5) Benefits
6) Appropriate alternate procedures
7) Confidentiality of records
8) Compensation for tx
9) Contact info
10) Statement that participation is voluntary

36
Q

What is testamentary capacity?

A

Whether the individual is/was competent at the time of executing a will?

37
Q

What does the law expect in testamentary capacity?

A
  • Testator must be of sound mind
  • Knows at time of making will they are making will.
  • Knows nature and extent of property
  • Know the natural objects of their bounty
  • Know the manner in which the wills they are making distribute their property.
38
Q

Is forgetfulness, SMI, or a neurocognitive do sufficient to label someone incompetent in a testamentary capacity eval?

A

No.

39
Q

What is undue influence?

A

Whether a third party heavily influenced the drafting of a will.

40
Q

What should one look for in an undue influence eval?

A
  • Did the donor have a weakened condition?
  • Extent to which the wrongdoer was involved in the wills creation
  • Whether the donor received advised from an attorney/disinterested advisor
  • whether there was haste/secrecy in making the will
  • whether the donor’s attitude toward others change bc of their relationship with the alleged wrongdoer (e.g., Anna Nicole Smith
  • Discrepancy between old and new wills
  • Continuity of purpose through present and past drafts
  • Would a reasonable person regard the will as unnatural, unjust, or unfair
41
Q

What are the 4 prongs in a testamentary capacity eval?

A
  • Testator knowledge of making a will.
  • Testator knowledge of nature and extent of property.
  • Testator knowledge of natural objects of bounty (people in their life/significance of relationship and why)
  • Testator knowledge of the manner in which property is disposed (consequences and rationale of decision)
42
Q

What was the finding in Cruzan v. Missouri Dept of Health?

A

SCOTUS extended testamentary notions to healthcare. A judge cannot order termination of life support without clear and convincing evidence the patient would’ve wished for this to occur.

43
Q

What was the finding in Canterbury v. Spence?

A

Unless there is an emergency or the patient is unconscious/incapable of informed consent, tell them risks (including rare yet significant ones)

44
Q

What do Rennie v. Klein Rogers v. Olkin, and Sell v. US have in common?

A

Involuntary meds require finding of imminent risk without med administration.

Washington v. Harper is an exclusion.

45
Q

What are some FAIs for guardianship?

A
  • Community Competency Scale
  • Decision-Making Instrument for Guard…
  • Philadelphia Geriatric Center Multilevel Assessment Inventory
  • Everyday Problems Test for Cognitive Challenged Elderly
  • Functional Independence Measure
  • Aid to Capacity Evaluation
  • Capacity Assessment TOol
  • competency Interview Schedule
  • Hopemont Capacity Assessment Interview
  • Independent Living Scales
46
Q

What are some characteristics of an ideal guardian?

A

Availability, competence, empathetic, freedom from conflict of interest, willingness.