Civ Pro (TX) Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

SPECIAL APPEARANCE

Has to be filed when?

Can D use discovery first?

A

Before ANY OTHER PLEA OR PLEADING

YES—discovery is not a “plea or pleading” so doesn’t waive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

SERVICE

Does P have to try personal service before trying substituted service?

A

Yes

Must file a MOTION FOR SUBSTITUTED SERVICE showing that your previous attempts were unsuccessful

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

SERVICE

What’s the procedure for invoking the long-arm statute?

When does the clock start for D’s answer?

A

Allege in PETITION:

  • D is a non-resident doing business in TX
  • D doesn’t maintain a regular place of business in TX or a reg agent in TX

Serve the SOS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

PLEADINGS

What’s the deadline for filing an answer?

A

STATE COURT:
By 10:00am
The MONDAY NEXT
After 20 DAYS from day of service

FED COURT:
20 days, or within 7 days after D files a notice of removal, whichever is later

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

VENUE

General rule:

A

(1) EVENTS - substantial part of the events or commissions giving rise to the claim

OR

(2) D RESIDENCE at time cause of action accrued
- Natural person: residence
- Not natural person: principal office (where the DECISION-MAKERS are)

IF 1 and 2 not available:
PLAINTIFF’S RESIDENCE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

PLEADING

What’s the DUE ORDER OF PLEADING?

A
  1. Special appearance
  2. MTV
  3. Anything else

Can be simultaneous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

VENUE

Interlocutory appeal?

Reversible error to get venue wrong?

A

NO, need FJ

  • BUT MANDAMUS if mandatory venue applies

YES—ALWAYS reversible error

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

VENUE

If it’s good against one D, is it good against all the others?

If one D1 waives venue challenge, can D2 still challenge?

A

Yes

Yes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

VENUE

What goes in the MTV?

A
  • Plead the county of suit is not proper, or the a different mandatory venue applies

EVIDENCE:

  • Affidavits, any other kind of discovery
  • EXCEPT ORAL testimony—only papers
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

VENUE

How and when does P have to respond to a MTV?

A

NO LESS than 30 DAYS before the hearing

File a response motion:

  • Prima facie proof that venue is proper
  • Specifically deny D’s venue facts
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

PLEADINGS

D is 2 days late in filing an answer—can he still file?

A

Yes—can file until P seeks a DEFAULT JUDGMENT, even if it’s not until after D’s deadline.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

PLEADINGS

When do you need leave of court to amend?

A

If within 7 DAYS OF TRIAL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

PLEADINGS

When is it too late to file a special exception?

A

Jury trial - after CHARGE is read to jury

Bench trial - after judgment is SIGNED

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

PLEADINGS

On what grounds can you move to strike a party’s amendment to their pleading?

A

(1) States a new cause of action and is prejudicial on its face
OR
(2) Causes SURPRISE OR PREJUDICE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

MOTION TO DISMISS

What does it argue?

What’s the timeline?

A

A cause of action has NO BASIS IN LAW OR FACT

Must be filed:

  • 60 days after received service
  • 21+ days before the hearing

Must be GRANTED OR DENIED:
- 45 days after the hearing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

TRIAL AMENDMENT

A

Pleading doesn’t include the cause of action or issue, but evidence was presented on it at trial, and the jury charge includes a Q on it

P can seek to amend via TRIAL AMENDMENT because D’s failure to object to the evidence when presented is IMPLIED CONSENT—now can’t claim surprise or prejudice for the amendment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

D thinks P is a minor, doesn’t have capacity to sue. What motion should he file?

A

VERIFIED plea in abatement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

PLEADINGS

When does D need leave of court to file a third party (impleader) action?

A

30 days after answer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

DEFAULT JMT

What must P show in order to get a default jmt?

A
  • Court has SMJ
  • D has been served, RETURN is on file for 10+ days
  • D hasn’t timely answered
  • Prove up UNLIQUIDATED DAMAGES
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

DEFAULT JMT

How does a D challenge a DJ?

A
MNT within 30 DAYS
(1) Legal error occurred at trial
(2) Equitable grounds: 
- Failure to respond was not intentional, but a mistake
- Meritorious defense
AND
- No delay or harm to P
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

MSJ

What’s the deadline for a response to MSJ?

A

7 days before hearing

22
Q

DISCOVERY

Level 1

  • When is it available?
  • Length of discovery period
  • Total depo times
  • ROGs
  • ROPs
  • ROAs
A

Only monetary relief, less than $100k
OR a DIVORCE without children and marital estate is less than $50k

180 days
6 hours
15
15
15
23
Q

DISCOVERY

Level 2

  • When is it available?
  • Length of discovery period
  • Total depo times
  • ROGs
  • ROPs
  • ROAs
A

Doesn’t meet Level 1, and there’s no court order for Level 3

Until 30 days before date set for trial 
9 months after first depo or first due date for response to written discovery 
50 hours
25
UNLIMITED 
UNLIMITED
24
Q

RFDs

Impt things you can get with RFD:

What’s the due date for response?

A

(1) Names of parties
(2) Contact info for potential parties
(3) Amount and method for calculating damages
(4) Contact info for persons HAVING KNOWLEDGE OF RELEVANT FACTS and a BRIEF STATEMENT OF THEIR CONNECTION with the case
(5) Witness statements
(6) Insurance policies
(7) Relevant medical records, or an executed authorization

30 days
50 if you were served RFD before your answer was due

25
Q

DISCOVERY

Which witnesses do you have to disclose?

How can you challenge someone’s calling a W they didn’t disclose?

A

The ones you plan to call at trial — not including rebuttal W’s (can’t anticipate those)

OBJECT, request the court to DISALLOW TESTIMONY
- Other party has to show EITHER good cause OR no prejudice

26
Q

DISCOVERY

5 discovery tools:

A

(1) ROG
(2) RF PRODUCTION
(3) RF ADMISSIONS
(4) RF DISCLOSURES
(5) Depo’s

27
Q

DISCOVERY

How can you request entry onto property to inspect?

What if it’s a non-party’s property?

A

Request for PRODUCTION

Need notice and a SUBPOENA — must be filed no later than 30 days before end of disc period

28
Q

DISCOVERY

How can you request an opportunity to test/inspect something?

A

RF PRODUCTION

Specify a REASONABLE TIME and PLACE for production, and the means, manner, and procedure for testing

  • Testing cannot MATERIALLY ALTER or DESTROY the thing
29
Q

DEPO

Reasonable time and place for depo:

A

(1) Deponent’s residence
(2) Where deponent is employed
(3) County in which deponent was SERVED with subpoena
- Or within 150 miles of service if deponent is a non-resident or transient
(4) County of suit if deponent is a party

  • OR any CONVENIENT PLACE by COURT ORDER
30
Q

DEPO

How soon do you have to object to stay the depo?

A

3 business days after receiving the notice

31
Q

DEPO

The only THREE kinds of objections:

A

Form
Leading
Non-responsive

32
Q

202 DEPO BEFORE SUIT

Requirements:

A

(1) Petition anticipates institution of a suit of which he may be a party
(2) Subject matter of the anticipated suit, petitioner’s interest in the suit
(3) Names of expected adverse persons

33
Q

SUPPLEMENT

Have to supplement by when?

If you don’t supplement on time, and the other party objects to your trying to introduce evidence in violation of the duty to supplement, what do you have to show to get the evidence admitted?

A

Reasonably promptly after you discover you need to supplement—within 30 days of trial is PRESUMED UNREASONABLE.

GOOD CAUSE
or
NO UNFAIR PREJUDICE

34
Q

EXPERTS

By what date does a party have to disclose their testifying experts?

A

Party seeking relief:

  • 30 days after a request is received
  • 90 days before end of discovery

Party not seeking relief:

  • 30 days after a request is received
  • 90 days before end of discovery
35
Q

EXPERTS

When does the party seeking relief have to make his expert available for depo?

A

If filing a report:
- Not until all other experts have been designated

If NOT filing a report:
- As soon as the expert has been designated

36
Q

PRIVILEGES

Can a witness statement be work product?

A

No, even if part of the atty’s investigation

37
Q

PRIVILEGES

Withholding statement includes what info?

What can the other party do in response? How soon do you have to respond to their response?

A

(1) Material information in response to a request IS BEING WITHHELD
(2) Identify WHICH REQUESTS asked for the privileged info
(3) The PRIVILEGES you’re relying on

They can ask for a PRIVILEGE LOG—describes the withheld information in detail

Have to respond within 15 DAYS

38
Q

PRIVILEGES

Claw-back within how many days?

A

10 days

39
Q

DISCOVERY

Documents you send in response to discovery requests are DEEMED AUTHENTICATED unless you do what?

A

Object to its authenticity within 10 days

40
Q

DISCOVERY

What’s the difference between ROGs and depositions on written questions?

A

ROGs&raquo_space;> PARTIES ONLY

Depo on written questions can be directed to non-parties

41
Q

JURY DEMAND

Who can demand a jury?

How do you do it?

A

Any party

File written demand no later than 30 DAYS BEFORE TRIAL (but even if later than that, opposing party has to show unreasonable)

Pay the FEE, or affidavit of inability

Will remain on the jury docket even if the other party objects

42
Q

What Rule is used for making agreements between the parties re trial, discovery, motions, etc.?

A

Rule 11 agreement

43
Q

How do you preserver error for the court denying your objection for cause?

A

Use up your peremptory challenges
Specify objectionable jurors who made it on the panel that you would have struck if you hadn’t needed to use your peremptory challenge on the one earlier

44
Q

How many peremptory challenges?

A

6 per side

Motion to equalize if it’s not even among different parties/sides

45
Q

How many jurors have to agree for a verdict?

A

10/12
5/6
If less than 12 or 6 jurors remain, must be unanimous

46
Q

What are the three motions that challenge legal sufficiency, and when do they arise?

Can the court make any of these on its own motion?

A

MSJ - before trial

DV - during trial

47
Q

MNT

Needed for what kinds of arguments:

A

(1) Complaining about an error that occurred, which requires putting on evidence
(2) Complaint about FACTUAL SUFFICIENCY for a jury finding
(3) Verdict is against the OVERWHELMING WEIGHT of the evidence
(4) Damages are EXCESSIVE or INADEQUATE
(5) Incurable JURY ARGUMENT

48
Q

ADR

Referral to ADR requires how many days’ notice?

A

10 days, and the objecting party must object within 10 days

49
Q

ADR

Can the court sanction someone for not participating in good faith during mediation?

A

No—can sanction if they refuse to participate AT ALL, but not if they aren’t putting forth a good faith effort

50
Q

PLENARY POWER

MNT is filed (timely, within 30 days of judgment), but the court never rules on it. When does plenary power end?

A

MNT denied by operation of law after day 75 (from the judgment).

Plenary power extends 30 days after a MNT has been denied.

So, plenary power extends to 105 days after the judgment.