Civ Pro Flashcards

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1
Q

service of process

A

Service of the complaint and summons may be made by ANY nonparty who is at least 18 years old. By plaintiff is improper.

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2
Q

collateral-order doctrine

A

Under the collateral-order doctrine, a court of appeals has discretion to hear and rule on a district court order if it (i) conclusively determines the disputed question, (ii) resolves an important issue that is completely separate from the merits of the action, and (iii) is effectively unreviewable on appeal from a final judgment. A grant of immunity from prosecution, such as the immunity provided by the Eleventh Amendment, can fall within the narrow confines of the collateral-order doctrine because the benefit of immunity would be lost if the party claiming it were wrongfully forced to proceed to trial.

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3
Q

diversity between foreigner

A

there is no diversity of citizenship because the action is not between citizens of different States.

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4
Q

can the manufacturing company voluntarily withdraw the cross-claim without the approval of the court or the consent of the parties?

A

A party may voluntarily dismiss a cross-claim (or a counterclaim or third-party claim) without the approval of the court or the consent of the parties before a responsive pleading is served, or if there is no responsive pleading, before evidence is introduced at a hearing or trial. The service of a summary judgment motion by a co-party with respect to a cross-claim (or counterclaim or third-party claim) does not cut off a party’s ability to voluntarily dismiss the claim without court approval or the consent of the other parties. This occurs only after evidence is introduced at the court hearing on the motion. Here, although the motion filed by the advertising firm was a motion to dismiss for failure to state a claim upon which relief can be granted, the attachment of an affidavit presenting evidence beyond the pleadings converted the motion into a summary judgment motion. Nevertheless, because the court had not held a hearing on this motion at which evidence was presented, the manufacturing company can voluntarily withdraw the cross-claim without court approval or the consent of the parties.

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5
Q

A former employee filed a complaint in federal district court under diversity jurisdiction seeking actual and punitive damages from her former employer based on a state law claim. Under the state’s law, unlike federal law, punitive damages are determined by the court rather than a jury. The complaint contained a demand for a jury trial on all issues. Prior to filing an answer or a pre-answer motion to dismiss, the former employer timely filed a motion to strike the jury trial demand with regard to the determination of punitive damages.

How should the court rule on this motion?

A

Deny the motion, because the right to a jury trial is established under federal law.

Because the Seventh Amendment provides for a right to a jury trial, federal law governs whether there is a right to a jury trial, even when the action is based on state law and the federal court’s jurisdiction is based on diversity. A party may specify the issues for which it is demanding a jury trial. Because the facts indicate that, under federal law, punitive damages are determined by the jury, the former employee can demand a jury trial with regard to the issue of punitive damages.

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6
Q

how soon for interrogatories

A

In general, a party may not serve interrogatories before the parties have held a Rule 26(f) discovery conference.

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7
Q

can holding company dismiss for lack of personal jurisdiction?

A

In the absence of evidence that a corporation is the alter ego or mere agent of another corporation, each corporation is a separate legal entity. The fact the one corporation owns a controlling interest in another corporation, as is the case with the holding company and the manufacturer, is not justification for a court to ignore the separate status of each corporation for purposes of determining whether the court has personal jurisdiction over each corporation.

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8
Q

When can two P’s aggregate their claims for purposes of meeting the amount-in-controversy requirement,

A

when the multiple plaintiffs are enforcing a single title or right in which they have a common or undivided interest, such as tenants-in-common,

-they may aggregate their claims. Since the total of both siblings’ claims exceeds $75,000 ($40,000 + $40,000 = $80,000)

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9
Q

Plaintiff permissive joinder

A

amount in controversy NOT required, BUT cannot ruin diversity

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10
Q

Defendant permissive joinder

A

supplemental jurisdiction does not apply to defendants sought to be joined under the permissive joinder rule in a case based EXCLUSIVELY on diversity jurisdiction in which exercising jurisdiction would destroy diversity.

Thus, if the claims are made solely on the basis of diversity jurisdiction, then there must be COMPLETE diversity between the plaintiffs AND the joined defendants, and the claims against each defendant must satisfy the AMOUNT-IN-CONTROVERSY requirement.

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11
Q

compulsory counterclaim

A

A counterclaim may be asserted by a defendant against a plaintiff without satisfying the jurisdictional amount when the counterclaim is compulsory.

A permissive counterclaim does not qualify for supplementary jurisdiction and therefore MUST satisfy the (1) jurisdictional amount and the rule of (2) complete diversity.

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12
Q

permissive counterclaim

A

A counterclaim may be asserted by a defendant against a plaintiff without satisfying the jurisdictional amount when the counterclaim is compulsory.

A permissive counterclaim does not qualify for supplementary jurisdiction and therefore MUST satisfy the (1) jurisdictional amount and the rule of (2) complete diversity.

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13
Q

cross claim

A

cross-claim may be asserted by a defendant against another defendant or by a plaintiff against another plaintiff if the cross-claim arises out of the SAME TRANSACTION or occurrence as the initial claim, WITHOUT regard to the amount in controversy or the citizenship of the parties to the cross-claim as long as the court has subject matter jurisdiction.

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14
Q

Precluded claims in diversity cases

A

i) Claims by existing plaintiffs (but not defendants) against persons made parties under one of the following Federal Rules of Civil Procedure: Rule 14 (impleader), Rule 19 (compulsory joinder), Rule 20 (permissive joinder), or Rule 24 (intervention);
ii) Claims by persons to be joined as plaintiffs pursuant to Rule 19; and
iii) Claims by persons seeking to intervene as plaintiffs pursuant to Rule 24, when the exercise of supplemental jurisdiction over such claims would be inconsistent with the requirements for diversity jurisdiction under 28 U.S.C. § 1332.

Example 1: Plaintiff, a citizen of Iowa, sues Defendant, a Nebraska corporation, in federal court under diversity jurisdiction for the wrongful death of Plaintiff’s husband. Defendant then impleads Contractor, a citizen of Iowa, under Rule 14, alleging that if Defendant is liable to Plaintiff, then Contractor must indemnify Defendant for any liability to Plaintiff. If Plaintiff then asserts a claim directly against Contractor, because they are both citizens of the same state (Iowa), supplemental jurisdiction in federal court will not apply to the claim, as it would be inconsistent with the requirements for diversity jurisdiction pursuant to §1367(b). Note that Defendant’s claim against Contractor would fall within the federal court’s supplemental jurisdiction, as it is derived from the same operative facts being considered by the court under the claim over which it has original jurisdiction and is not precluded by § 1367(b).

  • SUPP EXISTS IF THEIR TO INDEMNIFY D.
  • SUPP RUINED IF P CHANGES TO DIRECTLY ASSERTS AGAINT CONTRACTOR.

Example 2: Plaintiff, a citizen of Arkansas, sues Defendant 1 and Defendant 2, both citizens of Oklahoma, in federal court on the basis of diversity jurisdiction, alleging negligence. Defendant 1 seeks to assert a cross-claim for negligence, under the same operative facts, pursuant to Rule 13(g), against Defendant 2. Although there would be no original jurisdiction in federal court for the cross-claim, because Defendant 1 and Defendant 2 are citizens of the same state (Oklahoma) (see § I.C.2. Complete Diversity, supra), the federal court could exercise supplemental jurisdiction over the cross-claim, as it is derived from the same operative facts being considered by the court under the claim over which it has original jurisdiction, and it is not excluded under § 1367(b).
-OKAY IF D1 SUES D2 UNDER SAME FACTS WHEN D1 & D2 SAME STATE.

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15
Q

Personal jurisdiction over foreigners

non-U.S. residents who have contacts with the Unites States

A
  1. plaintiff’s claims must be based on federal law
  2. defendant must have sufficient contacts with the United States as a whole to justify the exercise of personal jurisdiction over the defendant.
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16
Q

Jurisdiction of Full Faith and Credit Clause

A

Full Faith and Credit Clause applies to the enforcement of a STATE-court judgment by the courts of another state.

(LOOK for it as wrong answer to enforce FEDERAL judgements)

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17
Q

Federal rules of service of process

A

Federal Rules authorize service only on

(1) a defendant personally,
(2) on a person of suitable age and discretion at defendant’s usual abode, or
(3) on an agent authorized by a defendant or by law to receive service.

state law rules allowed for DIVERSITY JURISDICTION

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18
Q

effect of waiver of service

A

Under Rule 4(d)(3), if a defendant timely returns a waiver of service before being served with process, then the defendant does not have to serve an answer to the complaint until 60 days after the request was sent, or 90 days after it was sent to a defendant outside the United States. This is an incentive to waive service, because the normal time period in which an answer must be served is 21 days after service of process. Rule 12(a)(1)(A).

Rule 4(d)(5) specifically provides that waiver of service does not waive any objection to personal jurisdiction or to venue.

If the defendant agrees to waive service, then the date on which the plaintiff files the waiver form with the court will be deemed the date of service. Rule4(d)(4). However, the defendant must still answer the complaint within 60 (or 90, if foreign) days from the date on which the notice was sent.`

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19
Q

Request for waiver

A

A plaintiff’s notice and request for waiver of service must be in writing and be addressed to the individual defendant, or, for a corporation, to an officer, managing or general agent, or any other agent authorized by appointment or by law to receive service of process.

It must be accompanied by a copy of the complaint, two copies of a waiver form, and a prepaid means for returning the form, and it must give the defendant a reasonable time of at least 30 days after the request was sent (or at least 60days if sent to a foreign defendant) to return the waiver. Rule 4(d)(1).

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20
Q

Time to respond to an amended pleading

A

Unless the court orders otherwise, a party must respond to an amended pleading within the later of 14 days after service of the amended pleading or within the time remaining for response to the original pleading. Rule 15(a)(3).

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21
Q

class certification reqs (4)

A

Rule 23(a) requirements:

  • numerosity MUST BE IMPRACTICAL FOR JOINDER (e.g. if it were practical, it could have been normal suit),
    common questions,
    typicality, and
    adequate representation

AND MUST FIT IN ONE OF THREE:
A. risk of prejudice - incompatible, inconsistent judgements [DOES NOT REQUIRE NOTICE]
B. final equitable relief - additional monetary cannot be sought
C. Common legal or factual questions

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22
Q

when is class action notification required

A

as a “risk of prejudice” situation NOT required.

but ONLY in a Rule 23(b)(3) situation.

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23
Q

pretrial disclosures (when, and what)

A

pretrial disclosures must be made at least 30 days before trial.

Pretrial disclosures include the name and, if not previously provided, the address and telephone number of each witness, separately identifying those a party expects to present and those it may call if the need arises.

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24
Q

timing of demand for jury trial

A

Any party may demand a jury trial in an action at law, as long as the demand is served within 14 days after service of the LAST pleading.

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25
Q
  • Review of a trial court’s factual findings
A

clearly erroneous

finding is clearly erroneous when, although there is evidence to support it, the appellate court, based on the entirety of the evidence, is left with the definite and firm conviction that a mistake has been committed

  • sufficiency of evidence
  • NOT credibility of witness
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26
Q
  • Review of legal rulings
A

de novo

appellate court relies on the record created in a trial court and does not entertain the admission of additional evidence, the appellate court reviews the evidence and law without deference to the trial court’s legal rulings. Thus, the appellate court may reach its own independent conclusions as to the applicable law.

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27
Q
  • Review of discretionary rulings
A

abuse of discretion

trial court’s rulings on discretionary matters, such as the admissibility of evidence, sanctions for violation of discovery rules, or the granting or denial of a motion to transfer venue or to sever actions, are generally subject to review under the abuse of discretion standard.

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28
Q

final judgment

A

is a decision by the court on the merits that leaves nothing for the court to do but execute the judgment.

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29
Q

not immediately appealable

A

MOST INTERLOCUTORY orders, such as the denial of a summary judgment motion, a motion to dismiss, or the granting of a new trial motion

EXCEPTION: THESE ARE IMMEDIATELY APPEALABLE!
1. An order granting, modifying, refusing, or dissolving an injunction; INJUNCTION APPEALABLE IMMEDIATELY AS A MATTER OF RIGHT.

  1. court denies to appoint a receiver to identify corporate property that could be seized
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30
Q

SMJ waiver

A

subject-matter jurisdiction may not be waived; rather, an objection may be raised at any time by any party, even on appeal.

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31
Q

Subpoena (to whom)

A

Nonparties may be compelled to produce documents pursuant to a subpoena.

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32
Q

Request for production (to whom)

A

request for production of documents can only be made on a party.

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33
Q

only one plaintiff and one defendant – amt in controversy

A

total value of the plaintiff’s claims is calculated to determine the amount in controversy, REGARDLESS of whether the claims are related to each other

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34
Q

dismissed due to the failure to timely serve process

with prejudice?

A

When an action is dismissed due to the failure to timely serve process, the dismissal is without prejudice;

irrelevant whether the spouse failed to appear

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35
Q

change domicile JUST for diveristy

A

A party may voluntarily change state citizenship after the accrual of a cause of action but before the commencement of a lawsuit, and therefore establish or defeat diversity jurisdiction, so long as the change is NOT A SHAM. –> That is, if the change of domicile is intended to be PERMANENT–even if the sole motivation is to create diversity–the change is permissible.

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36
Q

general denial of all allegations

A

party may make a general denial of all allegations if he, in good faith, does deny all allegations. In this case, the defendant made a general denial and stated that he intended to controvert all the allegations.

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37
Q

timing of polling

A

After the jury returns a verdict and before the jury is dismissed, the court must poll the jurors individually if a party requests.

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38
Q

when is too late to submit for judgement as a matter of law?

A

A party who has not submitted a prior motion for judgment as a matter of law may not submit such a motion after the jury has rendered its verdict. After the jury has rendered its verdict IT IS TOO LATE

A party MAY ONLY RENEW a motion for judgment as a matter of law that it has previously made.

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39
Q

Can president not spend Congress explicitly mandates funds to be spent?

A

If Congress explicitly mandates an allocation, distribution, or expenditure of funds, the President lacks the power to impound those funds (e.g., refuse to spend them or delay their spending)

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40
Q

Equal protection for aliens. How does it change for state interest jobs?

A

This question involves equal protection based on one’s status as a lawful resident alien. Classifications based on status as a lawful resident of the United States (as opposed to a citizen) are subject to a variety of different standards, depending on the level of government and the nature of the classification. Courts will generally apply the strict scrutiny test and strike down state laws that discriminate against aliens, such as laws prohibiting aliens from owning land, obtaining commercial fishing licenses, or being eligible for welfare benefits or civil service jobs. A growing exception exists, however, for state laws that restrict or prohibit an alien’s participation in government functions. Such laws need only have a rational relationship to a legitimate state interest, and are generally upheld as preventing aliens from having a direct effect on the functioning of the government. Because working as a law enforcement officer is a position involving participation in the governmental function of enforcing law, rational basis is likely the proper standard to apply.

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41
Q

contracts w/ state (changing payment)

A

A state may impair the obligations of a contract, including a contract entered into by the state with a private citizen, so long as the impairment is not substantial, or, if the impairment is substantial, so long as it is not unreasonable. In the case of a contract to which the state is a party, the state must show that its important interest cannot be served by a less restrictive alternative and that the impairment it seeks is necessary because of unforeseeable circumstances.

42
Q

drawing blood

A

Drawing blood is NOT considered a major medical procedure; little intrusion or pain is involved. Consequently, the procedure is reasonable in light of the Fourth Amendment.

43
Q

can prosecutor comment on the defendant not testifying?

A

A prosecutor may NOT comment on the defendant’s exercise at trial of his privilege against self-incrimination. Such a comment constitutes an impermissible shifting of the burden of proof onto the defendant, due to his exercise of this privilege.

44
Q

counsel at a nontrial proceeding, such as a lineup

A

If a right to counsel at a trial proceeding under the Sixth Amendment is denied, the defendant’s conviction should be automatically reversed, even without a specific showing of unfairness. However, a denial of counsel at a nontrial proceeding, such as a lineup, is SUBJECT TO HARMLESS-ERROR ANALYSIS. Here, the witness’s identification of the defendant at trial is based on her memory of the actual event rather than the lineup. Therefore, the court is likely to find that the failure to provide the defendant with a lawyer at the post-indictment lineup constitutes harmless error.

45
Q

guilty plea

A

Because a guilty plea constitutes both a confession and a waiver of various constitutional rights, the plea must be both intelligent and voluntary. The record must reflect that the judge has determined that the defendant knows and understands (i) the nature of the charges and their essential elements, (ii) the consequences of the plea (e.g., the maximum and minimum possible sentences, possible immigration consequences), and (iii) the rights that the defendant is waiving (e.g., the right to a trial). The judge must ALSO determine that the plea DID NOT result from force or improper threats.

46
Q

“specific jurisdiction”

A

When a cause of action arises out of or closely relates to a defendant’s contact with the forum state, jurisdiction may be warranted even if that contact is the defendant’s only contact with the forum state. This type of jurisdiction is often referred to as “specific jurisdiction.” In this case, the defendant’s only contact with the state was his drive through the state, at which time the accident occurred.

47
Q

third-party defendant files motion to dismiss against defendant (who pulled in for contribution)

A

court must take all well-pleaded facts in the complaint as true and resolve all doubts and inferences in the complainant’s favor. Here, the DEFENDANT is the complainant.

48
Q

federal question claim, adding other claim requires what?

A

supplemental jurisdiction requires either:

(1) same “common nucleus of operative facts,” or
(2) its OWN diversity jurisdiction

49
Q

diversity claim, adding another claim requires what?

A

If the original claims are based EXCLUSIVELY on diversity jurisdiction, however, under §1367(b), supplemental jurisdiction will not apply to claims by the plaintiff against a third-party defendant brought in under Rule 14. Such claims need to meet diversity or federal question jurisdiction requirements on their own.

50
Q

Compulsory counterclaims

A

which is generally a claim arising out of the same transaction or occurrence as the plaintiff’s claim, does not have to meet the statutory jurisdictional amount requirement to be considered by the court. See Rule 13(a). The court will have supplemental jurisdiction

51
Q

Permissive joinder

A

For plaintiffs:

  1. not required to satisfy the amount-in-controversy requirement;
  2. but cannot destroy diversity (cannot be citizen of D’s state)

For defendants:

  1. NEED to satisfy amt;
  2. cannot destroy diversity
52
Q

improper venue for foreigner

A

A defendant who is not a resident of the United States may be sued in any judicial district.

Because the jeweler is a resident of a foreign country, the jeweler may be sued in the federal district court for the district in which the buyer resides.

53
Q

which state law to apply for federal question?

A

If an action is based on a federal question claim, then federal substantive and procedural law will control, as well as federal common law.

54
Q

is burden of proof procedural or substantive law?

A

Questions about the burden of proof are considered PROCEDURAL under Klaxon and are determined by the law of the forum state.

In diversity actions, a federal district court is generally bound by the conflict-of-law rules of the state in which the district court is located.

55
Q

Class Action Fairness Act of 2005 (CAFA)

A

made it easier to satisfy federal subject matter jurisdiction

i) The class action involves at least 100 members;
ii) The primary defendants are not states, state officials, or other government entities
iii) The action does not involve certain securities-related cases, or litigation concerning the internal affairs or governance of a corporation;
iv) The amount in controversy exceeds the sum or value of $5,000,000, exclusive of interest and costs; and
v) Minimum diversity exists. Minimum diversity is satisfied when ANY member of a class of plaintiffs is a citizen of a state different from any defendant.

56
Q

Interrogatories

A

any party may serve no more than 25

may NOT be used on nonparty witnesses.

57
Q

depositions

A

party may take the deposition of any party or nonparty witness at any time after the discovery conference

WITHOUT leave of the court, the plaintiffs, the defendants, and the third-party defendants, each as a group, are limited to 10 depositions by oral or written examination.

58
Q

subpoena

A

A party may use a subpoena to obtain documents relevant to litigation that are in the possession of a person who is not a party to the litigation.

THEY ARE REQUIRED TO CONFORM or may file to quash for reasons being.

59
Q

verdict of a civil jury

A

verdict of a civil jury must be unanimous unless the parties otherwise agree

60
Q

demand for a jury trial

A

demand for a jury trial must be served within 14 days of service of the last pleading

61
Q

days to respond to claim

A

defendant has 21 days to respond to a complaint

62
Q

days to rile renewed motion for judgement as a matter of law

A

The movant may file a renewed motion for judgment as a matter of law no later than 28 days after the entry of judgment

63
Q

newly discovered evidence

A

Rule 60(b) allows a court to RELIEF FROM JUDGEMENT from a final judgment or order for a motion filed within a reasonable time, and NO LATER than ONE YEAR following the entry of the judgment or order, for newly discovered evidence that could not have been earlier discovered with reasonable diligence.

64
Q

can one immediately appeal a motion to grand a new trial?

A

Immediate appeal is precluded by the final judgment rule.

An order for a new trial is not appealable because it is not a final judgment. A party who wants to raise on appeal the grant of a new trial must wait until the new trial has occurred and resulted in a final judgment. The party may then appeal from that judgment and raise as an issue the order for the new trial.

65
Q

with prejudice

A

dismissal operates as an adjudication on the merits.

66
Q

service of process (which state)

A

service may be made by following state law for serving a summons in an action brought in courts of general jurisdiction in

(1) the state where the district court is located (the forum state) OR
(2) in the state where service is made.

67
Q

time limit to amend pleading once?

A

a party may amend its pleading once as a matter of course within 21 days after serving it.

a party waives the defense of lack of personal jurisdiction by failing to include it in a pre-answer motion, a responsive pleading, or in an amendment

Here, the defendant included the defense of lack of personal jurisdiction in an amendment made within 21 days after serving its answer. Accordingly, the defense was not waived and may be asserted by the defendant in the case.

68
Q

amending after statute of fruads

A

may amend if it asserts essentially the SAME claim or defense, and the new party KNEW or should have known of the potential action and received notice within 90 days after the filing of the original complaint.

69
Q

do sanctions require motions?

A

court may impose sanctions, including payment of attorney’s fees, on attorneys, law firms, and parties for violations of Rule 11, but may typically do so only when a party makes a MOTION for such fees.

70
Q

jury size

A

a jury must initially have at least six and no more than 12members.

The verdict must be returned by a jury of at least six members UNLESS the parties stipulate otherwise. Rule 48(b).

e.g. someone gets sick and parties agree to 5-member jury.

71
Q

A retailer was found liable for $300,000 in a products liability class action for selling a particular defective brand of coffee maker. The retailer then brought a diversity action against the coffee-maker manufacturer for contribution. The jury found that the retailer was not liable for any of the judgment against him and awarded the retailer the entire $300,000 requested as contribution. However, through a clerical error, the judgment entered reflected an award of only $300. After the manufacturer filed an appeal of the judgment and the appeal was docketed with the appellate court, the district court clerk discovered the mistake. The court immediately corrected the error. Did the court properly correct the written judgment?

A

No, because the judgment has been docketed in the appellate court.

A court may correct a clerical or other mistake resulting from oversight or omission whenever one is found in a judgment on motion by a party or on its own initiative, with or without notice. However, once an appeal from the judgment or order has been docketed in the appellate court, such a correction can be made only with leave of the appellate court. Therefore, the court cannot make this correction to the written judgment without leave of the appellate court.

72
Q

A defendant in a civil action in federal district court filed a complaint against a third-party defendant for contribution. The third-party defendant moved for dismissal based on a failure to state a claim upon which relief could be granted. The court granted the motion to dismiss, without prejudice. The defendant wants to appeal immediately, contending that the trial judge erred in dismissing the complaint against the third-party defendant. Is the court’s order immediately appealable?

A

Only a final judgment is subject to immediate appeal. Usually, a judge’s 12(b)(6) dismissal is considered a “final judgment” subject to immediate appeal. However, when there are multiple claims and parties, any order or other decision that adjudicates fewer than all of the claims or the rights and liabilities of fewer than all of the parties will not end the action as to any of the claims or parties, and it may be revised at any time before the entry of a judgment adjudicating all of the claims and all of the parties’ rights and liabilities. The district court here did not direct entry of a final judgment as to the third-party defendant. It merely dismissed the claim, without prejudice, without directing entry of a final judgment.

73
Q

interlocutory order

A

While most interlocutory orders are not immediately appealable, CERTAIN equitable orders are reviewable IMMEDIATELY as a matter of right, including an order granting an INJUCTION.

Before a court can issue a temporary restraining order, the attorney of the party seeking the order must certify in writing any efforts made to give notice and the reasons why notice should not be required.

74
Q

time limit to appeal judgement (typically)

A

A judgment or order certified under Rule 54(b) must generally be appealed within 30 days from the date of the entry of the certified judgment.

75
Q

If the court of appeals permits appeal, what is the effect on the district court proceedings?

A

The proceedings in the district court are stayed pending the appeal IF the district court or the court of appeals SO ORDERS.

76
Q

venue for federal violation filed in DC

A

venue is proper either in the judicial district where the plaintiff RESIDES or in the judicial district where the act or omission OCCURRED. DC NOT PROPER.

77
Q

when is transfer of venue allowed?

A

“[F]or the convenience of parties and witnesses, in the interest of justice, a district court may transfer any civil action to any other district or division where it might have been brought or to any district or division to which all parties have consented.”

78
Q

forum non conveniens

A

This common-law doctrine traditionally allows a court to dismiss an action—even if personal jurisdiction and venue are otherwise proper—if the court finds that the forum would be too inconvenient for parties and witnesses, and that another, more convenient, venue is available.

The doctrine of forum non conveniens has been codified and relaxed with respect to transfers between federal district courts (see § III.E.1. Change of Venue When the Original Venue Is Proper, supra), now allowing the remedy of transfer as opposed to outright dismissal. Consequently, this doctrine as a common-law rule is now used by a federal district court primarily when the forum that is deemed most appropriate for the action is a state or foreign court, since the federal statute does not apply in such a circumstance.

79
Q

state law controls, but is less than federal law standards

A

If the applicable state and federal laws conflict, the district court must ask whether a valid federal statute covers the disputed issue. Here, there is a valid federal statute on point, so the district court must apply federal law rather than the State B law.

80
Q

waiver of request

A

If a defendant timely returns a waiver of service before being served WITH PROCESS, then the defendant does not have to serve an ANSWER TO THE COMPLAINT until 60 days after the request was sent, or 90 days after it was sent to a defendant outside a judicial district of the United States.

81
Q

withdrawal when threatened with sanction

A

A motion for sanctions must be made separately from any other motion and must describe the specific conduct alleged to violate Rule 11. The motion must first be served on the opposing party under Rule 5. The opposing party must then be given 21 DAYS to withdraw or correct the challenged pleading. If this 21-day “safe harbor” period passes, and the opposing party fails to correct the pleading, the party seeking sanctions may file the motion with the court. Rule 11(c)(2).

82
Q

sum certain

A

When a party has failed to plead or otherwise defend an action, and that failure is shown by affidavit or otherwise, the court clerk must enter the party’s default. [note: just for the judgement for guilty]

Once a default is entered against a party, the plaintiff may seek a default judgment [this is the JUDGEMENT for amount].

If the relief sought is a sum certain or an amount that can be made certain by computation, the default judgment can generally be entered by the court clerk on the plaintiff’s request, accompanied by an affidavit showing the amount due. Otherwise, the plaintiff must apply to the court for a default judgment. [if can show proof of K with amount, court can enter]

83
Q

two-dismissal rule

A

If a plaintiff has voluntarily dismissed an action based on a claim without court approval, a subsequent voluntary dismissal of an action based on the same claim is a dismissal with prejudice and thus has preclusive effect. This is sometimes referred to as the “two-dismissal” rule.

84
Q

standard to determine of jury trial is allowed for new statute

A

Whether the relief sought is equitable or legal in nature.

If a new cause of action that was unknown at common law is created, such as the statutory cause of action here, then the court must look to whether the remedy sought is legal rather than equitable; if it is legal, a jury should be allowed.

85
Q

timing of filing jury instructions

A

Although the court may require the parties to file jury instructions at the close of evidence or at any earlier reasonable time, a party can file a request for jury instructions on issues that could not have reasonably been anticipated as of the earlier time set by the court for such requests.

86
Q

voie dire rule for preemptory challenges for co-plaintiffs or co-defendants

A

Several defendants or several plaintiffs may be considered as a single party for the purpose of making such challenges, OR the court may allow additional peremptory challenges and permit them to be exercised separately or jointly.

87
Q

remittitur & additur

A

Although a federal court is permitted to offer remittitur (a reduction in the damages awarded by the jury) as the means by which the plaintiff can avoid a new trial, a federal court is not permitted to offer additur (an increase in the amount of damages awarded by the jury) as the means by which the defendant can avoid a new trial.

88
Q

date of service of process calculation when defendant agrees to waive service

A

If the defendant agrees to waive service, then the date on which the plaintiff files the waiver form with the court will be deemed the date of service of process.

89
Q

how much time to respond after motion to dismiss?

A

When a defendant files a pre-answer motion under Rule 12, such as a motion to dismiss for lack of personal jurisdiction, the defendant has 14 days after receiving notice of the court’s decision on this motion to file its answer.

90
Q

amendment by right

A

a. By right

Under Rule 15(a), a party may amend a pleading once as of right within 21 days if no responsive pleading is required, or, if a responsive pleading is required, within 21 days of service of the responsive pleading or within 21days of being served with a motion under Rule 12(b), whichever is earlier. Thus, a plaintiff may amend his complaint even after being served with an answer (up to 21 days), but he is also limited to 21 days to amend after being served with a Rule 12(b) motion. A party may amend a pleading during and after a trial if doing so will conform to the evidence and as long as the opposing party had an opportunity to prepare. Due process is required for the amended pleading.

91
Q

amendment by leave of court

A

b. By leave of the court

The court should freely give leave to amend a pleading when justice so requires. Rule 15(a)(2). Generally, a court will first determine if the proposed amendment to the pleading would be futile because it would immediately be subject to dismissal under Rule 12(b)(6). If it would not, the amendment will generally be permitted unless it would result in undue prejudice to the opposing party. However, when the court has issued an order regarding the trial plan after a final pretrial conference, which may include the issues for trial, the court may modify that order only to prevent manifest injustice. Rule 16(e).

92
Q

Rule 12(b)

A

motion to dismiss

93
Q

how to state claim against third party

A

Because the manufacturer did not claim the designer would be liable to it on the basis of indemnification or contribution if the manufacturer was found liable to the consumer, the manufacturer has failed to state a proper third-party claim.

94
Q

notice of class action members

A

For a class action that is certified under Rule 23(b)(1) or (2), notice to the class members, other than the named representatives, is at the discretion of the court. The court may order that appropriate notice be given, which often takes the form of publication notice.

95
Q

leave of court and depositions

A

Under Rule 30, a party may take the deposition of any party or nonparty witness at any time after the party has made its mandatory initial disclosures pursuant to Rule 26(a). Without leave of the court, the plaintiffs and the defendants, each as a group, are limited to 10 depositions by oral or written examination. Unless the parties agree to the deposition, leave of the court must be obtained to (i) exceed the 10-deposition limitation, (ii) depose a witness a second time, or (iii) depose a person before the deposing party has complied with its initial disclosure requirements under Rule 26(a).

96
Q

may court require appearance for pretrial discussions?

A

Under Rule 16(a), the court may direct counsel and unrepresented parties to appear for pretrial conferences for such purposes as expediting disposition of the action, effective case management, and facilitating settlement. The court may require that a party or its representative be present or reasonably available by telephone or by more sophisticated electronic means to consider possible settlement. If counsel or a party fails to appear, fails to participate in good faith, or fails to obey a pretrial conference order, then the court may generally impose the same sanctions as those permitted for failure of a party to comply with a discovery order, including contempt of court or dismissal of an action.

97
Q

res judicata

A

claim preclusion (res judicata) provides that a final judgment on the merits of an action precludes the parties from successive litigation of an identical claim in a subsequent action. Federal courts apply a transactional approach under which they bar a subsequent claim with respect to all or any part of the transaction, or series of connected transactions, out of which the action arose. Claim preclusion is limited to the parties or their privies.

98
Q

collateral estoppel

A
  1. In General

The doctrine of issue preclusion, often called “collateral estoppel,” precludes the re?litigation of issues of fact or law that have already been necessarily determined in an earlier adjudication.

  1. Nonparty Preclusion

Unlike claim preclusion, issue preclusion does not require strict mutuality of parties; it requires only that the party against whom the issue is to be precluded was a party to the original action. Thus, “offensive” use of collateral estoppel is permitted.

  1. Requirements
    a. Same issue

The issue sought to be precluded must be the same as that involved in the prior action. The facts relevant to the particular issue and the applicable law must be identical in order for issue preclusion to apply. Comm’r of Internal Revenue v. Sunnen, 333 U.S. 591 (1948).

b. Actually litigated

The issue must have been actually litigated in the prior action in order for issue preclusion to apply. Stoll v. Gottlieb, 305 U.S. 165 (1938) (issue preclusion applies to findings of jurisdiction that are fully litigated).

c. Final, valid judgment

The issue must have been determined by a valid and binding final judgment. Generally, this requires that the first determination of the issue was within the authority of the court that decided it, and that the determination was made in a final decision on the merits.

d. Essential to the judgment

The determination of the issue must have been essential to the prior judgment. Generally, an issue that constitutes a necessary component of the decision reached will be considered essential to the judgment.

99
Q

choice of venue

A

When conflict of choice of venue in contract:
DISMISSING law suit is invalid.
TRANSFER is valid.

check all answers.

100
Q

“Applicable state law provides that tortfeasors may be jointly and severally liable”

A

means they are NOT NECESSARY PARTIES and therefore not subject to compulsory joinder.

e.g.
A driver was speeding through a town’s business district. The driver swerved suddenly to avoid hitting a car that was double parked in the middle of a traffic lane, and hit a pedestrian who was crossing the street. The pedestrian filed a complaint in federal district court in the state where the accident occurred against the owner of the car that was double parked. The pedestrian argued that the owner’s negligence in leaving his car in the middle of a traffic lane caused the pedestrian to sustain physical injuries, and asserted $100,000 in damages. The plaintiff-pedestrian is a citizen of the state where the accident occurred, and the defendant is a citizen of a neighboring state. The driver of the speeding car is a citizen of the state where the accident occurred and is in the midst of a personal bankruptcy action. The defendant filed a motion to dismiss, arguing that the driver of the speeding car was an indispensable party. Applicable state law provides that tortfeasors may be jointly and severally liable for a plaintiff’s injuries. Is the court likely to grant the defendant’s motion to dismiss?

101
Q

mandatory disclosures

A

requires the parties, three times prior to trial, to make certain disclosures:

(i) initial disclosures,
(ii) disclosures of EXPERT TESTIMONY 90 days before trial, and
(iii) pretrial disclosures 30 days before trial. These disclosures are mandatory and must be made even if an opposing party does not ask for such information. Unless otherwise ordered by the court, the disclosures must be in writing, signed, and served.

102
Q

defendant’s obligation with regard to the disclosure of the defendant’s liability insurance?

A

The defendant must make the insurance agreement available to the plaintiff EVEN IF the plaintiff does not ask for it.