civ pro Flashcards

1
Q

civ pro

Civ pro MBE tips

A
  1. think of how to make the case go away
  2. if there are dates, make a timeline
  3. be open-minded about idx
  4. carefully note the c/a
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

civ pro

msj std

A

the movant must show that there is no genuine dispute as to any material fact and that the movant is entitled to judgment as a matter of law.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

civ pro

time to request a jury trial

A

A demand for a jury trial must be served within 14 days after service of the last pleading directed to the issue that is sought to be tried by a jury.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

civ pro

holidays and weekends

A

In computing whether a party has complied with the rules for undertaking an action within the specified time period, when the last day of the period would otherwise fall on a holiday, the action may be undertaken on the next non-holiday weekday.

Weekend days are counted in determining whether a party has taken action, such as making a demand for a jury trial, within the permissible time period.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

civ pro

diversity jdx

A

U.S. district courts have diversity jurisdiction when both (i) no plaintiff is a citizen of the same state as any defendant and (ii) the amount in controversy in the action exceeds $75,000. To be a citizen of a state, a person must be a citizen of the United States and a domiciliary of the state. Domicile is determined at the time the action is commenced.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

civ pro

relation back of amended complaint

A

An amendment to a pleading will relate back to the date of the original pleading when the amendment asserts a claim or defense that arose out of the conduct, transaction, or occurrence set out, or attempted to be set out, in the original pleading.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

civ pro

statutory interpleader

A
  1. any two claimants diverse
  2. at least $500 in controversy
  3. national SOP
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

civ pro

venue

A

In general, venue in a federal civil action is proper in only one of the following judicial districts: (i) a judicial district in which any defendant resides, if all defendants reside in the same state in which the district is located, or (ii) a judicial district in which a “substantial part of the events or omissions” on which the claim is based occurred, or where a “substantial part of the property” that is the subject of the action is located. If neither situation applies, venue is proper in the judicial district in which one of the defendants is subject to personal jurisdiction.

residence= domicile for individuals; where PJ for businesses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

civ pro

supplemental jdx to a federal claim

A

If the original claim is based on federal-question jurisdiction, then a nonfederal claim may be joined only if diversity jurisdiction exists or if the two claims are part of the same case or controversy as the federal claim such that supplemental jurisdiction applies.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

civ pro

service for in rem cases

A

Although in rem proceedings are commenced against property, they must still satisfy due process requirements for personal jurisdiction because they affect the rights of individuals in the property. Due process is met if the notice is “reasonably calculated, under all the circumstances, to apprise interested parties of the pendency of the action and afford them an opportunity to present their objections.” It is not sufficient to simply post the notice on the property or publish the notice in a newspaper as to persons who are known to have an interest in the property and whose whereabouts are reasonably ascertainable.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

civ pro

PJ approach

A
In Personam Jurisdiction
Due Process Requirements
   *Minimum Contacts
         Purposeful Availment
         Specific and General Jurisdiction
   *Fair Play and Substantial Justice
          Forum State Interest
          Burden on Defendant
          Interest of Judicial System
          Shared Interest of States
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

civ pro

SMJ Approach

A
  1. Objection to Jurisdiction
  2. Federal Question Jurisdiction
  3. Diversity Jurisdiction
    a. Complete Diversity
    Citizenship of Parties
    Corporations
    *Principal Place of Business
    *Foreign Corporation
    b. Amount in Controversy
    *Aggregation of Claims by a Single P Against a Single D
    *Aggregation of Claims by Multiple P’s
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

civ pro

“SMJ”

A

The term “subject matter jurisdiction” refers to a court’s competence to hear and determine cases of the general class and subject to which the proceedings in question belong. The most common congressional grants of subject matter jurisdiction are federal question jurisdiction and diversity jurisdiction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

civ pro

“Objection to SMJ”

A

An objection to subject matter jurisdiction can be presented by any party at any stage of a proceeding, including on appeal, or may be raised by the court.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

civ pro

“FQ jdx”

A

Under federal question jurisdiction, district courts have original jurisdiction of all civil actions arising under the Constitution, laws, or treaties of the United States.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

civ pro

“Diversity jdx”

A

The U.S. district courts have jurisdiction over actions when: (i) the parties to an action are citizens of different states or citizens of a state and citizens or subjectsz of a foreign state and (ii) the amount in controversy in the action exceeds $75,000. In general, when these requirements are met, a federal court may exercise jurisdiction over the action, regardless of the legal subject of the controversy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

civ pro

“Complete diversity”

A

Diversity jurisdiction requires complete diversity between opposing parties in a case. There is no diversity of citizenship if any plaintiff in the case is a citizen of the same state as any defendant in the case or if any plaintiff and any defendant are aliens. Two plaintiffs in a case may be from the same state without destroying diversity, as long as no plaintiff is from the same state as any defendant in the case. When the action is commenced, there must be complete diversity between opposing parties. The citizenship of each party must be determined to ensure complete diversity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

civ pro

“citizenship of parties”

A

In general, a person is a domiciliary of the state in which he or she is present and intends to reside for an indefinite period. A person can only have one domicile at a time.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

civ pro

“principal place of business”

A

The principal place of business refers to the “nerve center” of the corporation. The nerve center is generally the location from which the high-level officers direct, control, and coordinate the activities of the corporation. Typically, the nerve center is the corporate headquarters.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

civ pro

“foreign corporation”

A

A foreign corporation will be deemed a citizen of the country in which it is incorporated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

civ pro

“amount in controversy”

A

The amount in controversy must exceed the sum or value of $75,000, exclusive of interest, costs, and collateral effects of a judgment. The amount in controversy is determined at the time the action is commenced in federal court, or, if the action has been removed to federal court, at the time of the removal. The party seeking to invoke federal court jurisdiction must allege that the action satisfies the amount-in-controversy requirement. In general, a plaintiff’s good-faith assertion in the complaint that the action satisfies the amount-in-controversy requirement is sufficient.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

civ pro

“aggregation of claims by multiple plaintiffs”

A

If the action involves multiple plaintiffs, then the value of their claims may be aggregated only if the multiple plaintiffs are enforcing a single title or right in which they have a common or undivided interest. If multiple plaintiffs, each having separate and distinct claims, unite for convenience or economy in a single suit, then each plaintiff’s aggregate claims are judged separately in determining whether the amount-in-controversy requirement has been met. If the aggregate claims of at least one plaintiff separately meet the amount-in-controversy requirement, then the court has diversity jurisdiction over that plaintiff’s claims, provided the diversity-of-citizenship requirement is met. The court may also have supplemental jurisdiction over the claims of any other plaintiff, even though that plaintiff’s claims do not meet the amount-in-controversy requirement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

civ pro

“supplemental jdx”

A

A district court with jurisdiction over a claim may exercise “supplemental jurisdiction” over additional claims over which the court would not independently have subject matter jurisdiction but that are so related to the original claim that the additional claims form part of the same case or controversy under Article III of the U.S. Constitution. In judging whether the claims are related, the test is whether they arise out of a “common nucleus of operative fact” such that all claims should be tried together in a single judicial proceeding.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

civ pro

“SJ for permissive joinder of a party”

A

Although the additional claim is not required to satisfy the amount-in-controversy requirement for purposes of supplemental jurisdiction, when the additional claim is asserted by a party seeking to join the action under permissive joinder, the addition of that party cannot result in a violation of the requirement for complete diversity of citizenship.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

civ pro

“PJ”

A

Personal jurisdiction refers to the judicial power over the persons or property involved in the cases or controversies before it. There are three general types of personal jurisdiction: (i) in personam jurisdiction; (ii) in rem jurisdiction; and (iii) quasi-in-rem jurisdiction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

civ pro

“in personam jdx”

A

In personam jurisdiction is the power that a court has over an individual party. There are four bases for in personam jurisdiction: (i) voluntary presence; (ii) domicile; (iii) consent; and (iv) long-arm statutes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

civ pro

“Due process requirements”

A

Due process requirements are satisfied if the nonresident defendant has certain minimum contacts with the forum state such that the maintenance of the action does not offend traditional notions of fair play and substantial justice.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

civ pro

“minimum contacts”

A

Presently, any attempt to gain in personam jurisdiction, under whatever basis, is subject to the International Shoe requirement of minimum contacts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

civ pro

“purposeful availment”

A

A defendant’s contacts with the forum state must be purposeful and substantial, such that the defendant should reasonably anticipate being taken to court there. Foreseeability depends on whether a defendant recognizes or anticipates that by running his business, he runs the risk of being party to a suit in a particular state.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

civ pro

“specific and general idx”

A

The scope of the contacts necessary for the assertion of personal jurisdiction depends on the relationship that the cause of action has with the forum state. A court will have specific jurisdiction over a defendant when the cause of action arises out of or closely relates to a defendant’s contact with the forum state. A court will have general jurisdiction when the cause of action does not arise out of or relate to the defendant’s contact with the forum state, but the defendant’s contact with the state has been systematic and continuous.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

civ pro

“fair play and substantial justice”

A

A court must determine if maintenance of the action would “offend traditional notions of fair play and substantial justice.” Courts consider various factors, including: (i) the interest of the forum state in adjudicating the matter; (ii) the burden on the defendant of appearing in the case; (iii) the interest of the judicial system in the efficient resolution of controversies; and (iv) the shared interests of the states in promoting common social policies.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

civ pro

when to appeal an order for new trial

A

An order for a new trial is not appealable because it is not a final judgment. A party who wants to raise on appeal the grant of a new trial must wait until the new trial has occurred and resulted in a final judgment. The party may then appeal from that judgment and raise as an issue the order for the new trial.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

civ pro

De novo review

A

Appellate review of legal rulings is de novo. The appeals court will use the trial court’s record, but it reviews the evidence and law without deference to the trial court’s rulings.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

civ pro

Motion for a judgment as a matter of law

A

When ruling on a Rule 50 motion for judgment as a matter of law, the court must view the evidence in the light most favorable to the opposing party and draw all reasonable inferences from the evidence in favor of the opposing party. It may not consider the credibility of witnesses or evaluate the weight of the evidence, and it must disregard all evidence favorable to the moving party that the jury is not required to believe.
Reviewed de novo.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

civ pro

time to respond to an amended pleading

A

Unless the court orders otherwise, a party must respond to an amended pleading within the later of 14 days after service of the amended pleading or the time remaining for response to the original pleading.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

civ pro

when can parties ask for new jury instructions

A

Although the court may require the parties to file jury instructions at the close of evidence or at any earlier reasonable time, a party can file a request for jury instructions on issues that could not have reasonably been anticipated as of the earlier time set by the court for such requests.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

civ pro

issue preclusion

A

The doctrine of issue preclusion, often called “collateral estoppel,” precludes the re-litigation of an issue of fact or law that has already been necessarily determined by a final and valid judgment as part of an earlier claim. The party against whom the issue is to be precluded (or one in privity with that party) must have been a party to the original action.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

civ pro

default judgment

A

When a party has failed to plead or otherwise defend an action and that failure is shown by affidavit or otherwise, the court clerk must enter the party’s default. Once a default is entered against a party, the plaintiff may seek a default judgment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

civ pro

time to serve a complaint

A

Although the court can dismiss an action for failure to serve process within 120 days of filing the complaint, this dismissal is without prejudice. Note that as of December 1, 2015, service must be made within 90 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

civ pro

requirements for discovery sanctions

A

Generally, attempting to obtain evidence from the plaintiff without a court order and making a motion to compel are prerequisites to obtaining any sanctions under Rule 37.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

civ pro

final judgment rule

A

Under the final judgment rule, a federal appellate court has jurisdiction over an appeal of a final judgment of the trial court. A final judgment is a decision on the merits that leaves nothing for the court to do but execute the judgment. Here, although the trial court granted the dealer’s motion for summary judgment with regard to the issue of liability, it denied the motion as to the matter of damages and thus the issue of damages remained. Consequently, the trial court’s order was not a final judgment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

civ pro

bond requirement for statutory interpleader

A

In order to file a federal statutory interpleader action, the stakeholder must be willing to either deposit the property at issue with the court or to post a bond in an appropriate amount.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

civ pro

leave of court for depositions

A

Unless the parties agree to the deposition, leave of the court must be obtained to (i) exceed the 10-deposition limitation, (ii) depose a witness a second time, or (iii) depose a person before the deposing party has complied with its initial disclosure requirements under Rule 26(a).

44
Q

civ pro

joinder of defendants

A

In order for joinder of defendants to be proper, any right to relief must arise out of the same transaction, occurrence, or series of transactions or occurrences.

45
Q

civ pro

mx dismiss for failiure to state a claim

A

When a defendant files a motion to dismiss for failure to state a claim upon which relief can be granted and attaches materials outside the pleadings to the motion, the court must treat the motion as a summary judgment motion if the court considers such materials in reaching its decision on the motion.

46
Q

civ pro

SL procedural or substantive?

A

substantive

47
Q

civ pro

is stay automatic during appeal?

A

If an appeal is permitted, it will not stay proceedings in the district court unless the district court or the court of appeals so orders.

48
Q

civ pro

numerosity

A

In order for a representative of a class to sue on behalf of all members of a class, the class must be so numerous that joinder of all members is impracticable.

49
Q

civ pro

commonality

A

there are questions of fact and law common to the class

50
Q

civ pro

typicality

A

claims of representative parties are typical of the claims of the class.

51
Q

civ pro

good cause for physical exam

A

Although a physical examination may be ordered only for “good cause,” the plaintiff here has placed her physical condition into controversy by claiming personal injury damages, which is sufficient “good cause” for the court to order a physical examination.

52
Q

civ pro

AIC for injunctive relief

A

In the case of injunctive relief, when it is difficult to assess a dollar amount, the court determines both the value of the plaintiff’s harm if an injunction is not imposed and the defendant’s cost of complying with an injunction. If the amount of either exceeds $75,000, then the amount in controversy requirement is satisfied.

53
Q

civ pro

“Interlocutory appeals”

A

certain equitable orders are immediately appealable as a matter of right. However, the denial of a venue motion is not immediately appealable.

54
Q

civ pro

privilege in federal question jdx

A

In federal question cases, privileges are determined under federal common law, pursuant to Rule 501 of the Federal Rules of Evidence.

55
Q

civ pro

removal venue

A

Under Section 1441(a) of the removal statute, an action may be removed to the federal court in the district where the state action is pending. That removal statute determines venue, regardless of whether venue would have been proper under the venue statute (Section 1391) if plaintiff had originally brought the action in that federal district court.

56
Q

civ pro

relation back for added claims

A

amendment to a pleading relates back to the date of the original pleading when the amendment asserts a claim or defense that arose out of the conduct, transaction, or occurrence set out, or attempted to be set out, in the original pleading.

57
Q

civ pro

civil jury size

A

Unless the parties stipulate otherwise, a civil jury in federal district court must have at least six members.

58
Q

civ pro

time to voluntarily dismiss action

A

A plaintiff may dismiss an action without court approval or the agreement of the other parties prior to the service of an answer or summary judgment motion.

59
Q

civ pro

remittitur and additur

A

Although a federal court is permitted to offer remittitur (a reduction in the damages awarded by the jury) as the means by which the plaintiff can avoid a new trial, a federal court is not permitted to offer additur (an increase in the amount of damages awarded by the jury) as the means by which the defendant can avoid a new trial.

60
Q

civ pro

time to move for new trial

A

a motion for a new trial must be filed no later than 28 days after the entry of judgment

61
Q

civ pro

appeal of certification decision

A

An appellate court may, but is not required to, hear an immediate appeal of a certification decision rendered by the district court. A petition for permission to appeal a certification order must be filed within 14 days of the entry of the order.

62
Q

civ pro

Erie when fed/state law conflicts

A

A federal court sitting in diversity will generally apply state law. However, the court is not required to apply state law if there is a conflict between state and federal law and affirmative countervailing federal interests are at stake that warrant the application of federal law. In this case, there is no clear federal interest at stake. Therefore, the court must apply state law.

63
Q

civ pro

relation back for amended party

A

A court should freely grant leave to amend a pleading when justice so requires. Under Rule 15, an amendment to a pleading that changes the named defendant relates back to the date of the original pleading if it asserts essentially the same claim or defense, and the new party knew or should have known of the potential action and received notice within 120 days after the filing of the original complaint.

64
Q

civ pro

claim preclusion

A

The doctrine of claim preclusion (res judicata) provides that a final judgment on the merits of an action precludes the parties from successive litigation of an identical claim in a subsequent action.

65
Q

civ pro

effect of a waiver of SOP

A

Under Rule 4(d)(3), if a defendant timely returns a waiver of service before being served with process, then the defendant does not have to serve an answer to the complaint until 60 days after the request was sent, or 90 days after it was sent to a defendant outside the United States. This is an incentive to waive service, because the normal time period in which an answer must be served is 21 days after service of process. Rule 12(a)(1)(A). The date on which the plaintiff files the waiver form with the court will be deemed the date of service of process.

66
Q

civ pro

grounds for new trial

A

i) Error at trial that renders the judgment unfair;
ii) Newly discovered evidence that existed at the time of trial was excusably overlooked and would likely have altered the outcome of the trial;
iii) Prejudicial misconduct of counsel, a party, the judge, or a juror;
iv) A verdict that is against the clear weight of the evidence;
v) A verdict that is based on false evidence such that a new trial is necessary to prevent injustice; or
vi) A verdict that is excessive or inadequate.

67
Q

civ pro

D’s deemed admissions

A

Although an allegation in the plaintiff’s complaint is generally deemed admitted if that allegation is not denied in the answer, the same is not true if the allegation relates to the amount of damages

68
Q

civ pro

court’s obligation to state reasons for ruling on motions

A

The court is not required to state findings or conclusions when ruling on a motion under Rule 12 (motions against the complaint) or 56 (summary judgment) or, unless the rules provide otherwise, on any other motion.

69
Q

civ pro

materials judge considers on motion to dismiss

A

In ruling on a motion to dismiss under Rule 12(b)(6), the court may consider only the allegations in the complaint, any exhibits attached to the complaint, and any matters subject to judicial notice. If a matter outside the pleadings, such as an affidavit, is presented to the court and is not excluded by the court in its review, then the motion must be treated as a motion for summary judgment under Rule 56, and all parties must be given an opportunity to present all material information for the court’s consideration. Rule 12(d).

70
Q

civ pro

TRO requirements

A

A TRO may issue without notice to the adverse party if (i) the moving party can establish, under written oath, that immediate and irreparable injury will result prior to hearing the adverse party’s opposition; and (ii) the movant’s attorney certifies in writing any efforts made to give notice and the reason why notice should not be required. I

71
Q

civ pro

time to answer after mx dismiss denied

A

When a defendant files a pre-answer motion under Rule 12, such as a motion to dismiss for lack of personal jurisdiction, the defendant has 14 days after receiving notice of the court’s decision on this motion to file its answer.

72
Q

civ pro

diversity SMJ for rule interpleader

A

Under the federal interpleader rule, unlike the federal interpleader statute, diversity of citizenship is tested between the stakeholder and the other claimants. There is no requirement under the rule, unlike the statute, that there be diversity between at least two of the claimants.

73
Q

civ pro

claim preclusion: same claim

A

One aspect of claim preclusion is that when a judgment is in a party’s favor, the entire claim merges with the judgment and is extinguished. Under the transactional approach, a subsequent claim with respect to all or any part of the transaction, or series of connected transactions, out of which the original action arose is barred.

74
Q

civ pro

Proper SOP

A

service may be made by: (i) personally serving the summons and complaint on the defendant; (ii) leaving the summons and complaint at the defendant’s usual place of abode with a person of suitable age and discretion who resides there; or (iii) delivering the summons and complaint to an agent appointed by the defendant or otherwise authorized by law to receive service. Further, service is proper if made according to the state law of the forum or service state.

75
Q

civ pro

Due process in SOP

A

Due process is met if the notice is reasonably calculated, under all the circumstances, to apprise interested parties of the pendency of an action and afford them an opportunity to present their objections. If the identity and address of an interested party are known or obtainable through reasonable efforts, then notice through in-person delivery, registered mail, return receipt requested, or some other means likely to notify the particular individual is required. Notice by publication under such circumstances would not be sufficient.

76
Q

civ pro

venue for resident alien

A

a lawful, permanent resident alien is deemed for venue purposes to be a resident of the judicial district in which the alien is domiciled. Consequently, the defendant may not be sued in just any judicial district.

77
Q

civ pro

forum non conveniens

A

Application of the common law doctrine is largely confined to dismissal of actions that would be more appropriately tried in the court of a foreign country. It is not applicable to the transfer of an action from one federal court to another.

78
Q

civ pro

AIC calculation

A

Although interest and costs are excluded from the amount in controversy, attorney’s fees may be made part of the amount in controversy if the fees are recoverable by contract or statute. Punitive damages, as well, may be permitted to be made part of the amount in controversy.

79
Q

civ pro

federal/state court preclusion effect

A

If a federal court with diversity jurisdiction over an action issues a judgment, then a state court must give such judgment the same claim-preclusion effect that the courts in the state where the federal court is located would have given the judgment.
Although the dismissal of the federal action was on the merits, the preclusive effect of that dismissal is determined by reference to the law of the state where the federal court is located.

80
Q

civ pro

effect of failure to prosecute

A

If a plaintiff fails to prosecute his case and, in response to a defendant’s motion, the court dismisses the action, the dismissal is with prejudice and operates as an adjudication on the merits.

81
Q

civ pro

“compulsory joinder of a necessary party”

A

A person who is subject to service of process and whose joinder will not deprive the court of subject matter jurisdiction or destroy venue must be joined as a party if: (i) complete relief cannot be provided to existing parties in the absence of that person; or (ii) disposition in the absence of that person may impair the person’s ability to protect his interest; or (iii) the absence of that person would leave existing parties subject to a substantial risk of multiple or inconsistent obligations. A necessary party is therefore a person whose participation in the lawsuit is necessary for a just adjudication.

82
Q

civ pro

“compulsory counterclaim”

A

A counterclaim is a claim for relief made against an opposing party after an original claim has been made. A pleading is required to state as a counterclaim any claim that, at the time of service, the pleader has against an opposing party if the claim arises out of the same transaction or occurrence that is the subject matter of the opposing party’s claim and does not require adding another party over whom the court cannot acquire jurisdiction.

83
Q

civ pro

“discovery”

A

Discovery is generally permitted with regard to any matter relevant to any party’s claim or defense in the action that is not otherwise privileged. This includes the existence, description, nature, custody, condition, and location of any documents or other tangible things and the identity and location of persons who know of any discoverable matter.

84
Q

civ pro

“privilege”

A

Privileged information is not discoverable.

85
Q

civ pro

“attorney work product”

A

In general, a party may not discover documents and tangible things that are prepared in anticipation of litigation or for trial by or for another party or its representative.

Such materials will be subject to discovery, however, if the party shows that it has substantial need for the materials to prepare its case and cannot, without undue hardship, obtain their substantial equivalent by other means. If the court orders discovery of trial-preparation materials, the court must protect against disclosure of the mental impressions, conclusions, opinions, or legal theories of a party’s attorney or other representative concerning the litigation.

Whenever a party withholds information on the basis of a privilege, such as the attorney-work-product privilege, the party must expressly state the claim of privilege and describe the materials or communications not produced in a manner that will enable other parties to assess the applicability of the privilege or protection.

86
Q

civ pro

“mx compel”

A

If a party fails to respond to discovery that has been properly served, the party seeking the information may move to compel such disclosure or discovery. A motion to compel must be served on all parties and be accompanied by a certificate that the movant has in good faith conferred or attempted to confer with the opposing party in an effort to obtain the disclosure or secure the information or material without court action.

87
Q

civ pro

“amendment”

A

The court should freely give leave to amend a pleading when justice so requires. Generally, a court will first determine if the proposed amendment to the pleading would be futile because it would immediately be subject to dismissal under Rule 12(b)(6). If it would not, the amendment will generally be permitted unless the amendment would result in undue prejudice to the opposing party.

88
Q

civ pro

scope of discovery

A

In general, the court is required to limit the frequency or extent of discovery otherwise allowed by the rules if it determines, in its discretion, that the burden or expense of the proposed discovery outweighs its likely benefit, considering the needs of the case, the amount in controversy, the parties’ resources, the importance of the issues at stake, and the importance of the discovery in resolving the issues.

89
Q

civ pro

collateral order doctrine

A

Under the so-called collateral-order doctrine, a court of appeals has discretion to hear and rule on an issue if it is distinct from the merits of the case, involves a serious and unsettled legal question, and would be effectively unreviewable if the court waited until final judgment to hear the claim or issue.

A grant of immunity from prosecution, such as the immunity provided by the Eleventh Amendment, can fall within the narrow confines of the collateral-order doctrine because the benefit of immunity would be lost if the party claiming it were wrongfully forced to proceed to trial.

90
Q

civ pro

deadline to file msj

A

A party may file a motion for summary judgment at any time until 30 days after the close of all discovery.

91
Q

civ pro

FQ in a state law claim

A

In order for federal question jurisdiction to exist when the cause of action is based in state law, the court must determine whether the state-law claim necessarily stated a substantial and disputed federal issue that a federal court could adjudicate without disturbing the balance of federal and state judicial responsibilities.

92
Q

civ pro

SOP rules in diversity

A

With regard to procedure in a diversity action, if a procedural issue is addressed by a valid federal law, then the federal law will be applied, even if a state rule or statute is in conflict. Service of process is considered procedural, rather than substantive. Therefore, the valid Federal Rule of Civil Procedure will trump State B’s law in this case.

93
Q

civ pro

new trial based on juror’s response in voir dire

A

To obtain a new trial, a party must demonstrate that a juror failed to answer honestly a material question on voir dire, and show that a proper response would have provided a valid basis for a challenge for cause.

94
Q

civ pro

mx 12(b)(6)

A

A complaint should not be dismissed for an mere imperfect statement of the legal theory. However, under Rule 12(b)(6), a claim for relief can be dismissed if it either fails to assert a legal theory of recovery that is cognizable at law or fails to allege facts sufficient to support a cognizable claim. In reviewing a motion to dismiss under Rule 12(b)(6), the court must identify and reject legal conclusions unsupported by factual allegations. This includes mere conclusory statements and assertions devoid of facts.

95
Q

civ pro

necessary parties

A

Tortfeasors facing joint and several liability are not considered necessary parties.

96
Q

civ pro

Erie approach

A

In determining whether to apply state or federal law, the district court will start by determining whether there is a conflict between state and federal law with respect to the issue before the court. If the applicable state and federal laws do conflict, then the district court must ask whether a valid federal statute or Federal Rule covers the disputed issue. If no federal statute or rule is on point, then the court must determine whether federal common law, rather than state law, should be applied. In making this determination with respect to federal common law, the district court will ask whether the failure to apply state law will lead to different outcomes in state and federal court. If the answer is yes, then the court will apply state law, unless affirmative countervailing federal interests are at stake that warrant application of federal law. The Supreme Court has also recognized the application of federal common law when a “uniquely federal interest” is at stake and a significant conflict exists between that interest and the operation of state law.

97
Q

civ pro

number of peremptory challenges for multiple defendants

A

Several defendants or several plaintiffs may be considered as a single party for the purpose of making such challenges, or the court may allow additional peremptory challenges and permit them to be exercised separately or jointly.

98
Q

civ pro

PJ over foreign D- rule 4k2

A
  1. claims based on federal law
  2. no state has PJ over D
  3. minimum contacts with US
99
Q

civ pro

Power over immigration vs individual rights

A

in exercising its plenary power over immigration, Congress could lawfully “discriminate” against aliens in ways that would be unconstitutional if applied to citizens (e.g., setting lower quotas for Africans than for Scandinavians, which would otherwise be race discrimination)

100
Q

civ pro

appearing at pre-trial conference

A

Under Rule 16(a), the court may direct counsel and unrepresented parties to appear for pretrial conferences for such purposes as expediting disposition of the action, effective case management, and facilitating settlement. The court may require that a party or its representative be present or reasonably available by telephone or by more sophisticated electronic means to consider possible settlement. If counsel or a party fails to appear, fails to participate in good faith, or fails to obey a pretrial conference order, then the court may generally impose the same sanctions as those permitted for failure of a party to comply with a discovery order, including contempt of court or dismissal of an action.

101
Q

civ pro

mx relief from judgment

A

Rule 60(b) allows a court to relieve a party from a final judgment or order for a motion filed within a reasonable time, and no later than one year following the entry of the judgment or order, for newly discovered evidence that could not have been earlier discovered with reasonable diligence.

102
Q

civ pro

Claim preclusion: two promissory notes

A

One of the requirements imposed on the affirmative defense of claim preclusion is that the causes of action in the two lawsuits must be sufficiently identical. In applying the transactional approach to determine whether the two lawsuits in this case are sufficiently identical, although each promissory note was given by the buyer for the same sale of goods, the buyer gave two notes rather than a single one. Under these facts, the buyer was also aware that the seller intended to sell one of the notes, which would have given a third party the right to sue to enforce that note independent of the seller as holder of the other note. These facts indicate that the parties anticipated that the notes could be enforced independently, and treating the notes as a single transaction would not conform to their expectations. Consequently, the seller’s failure to sue upon both of the notes in a single action does not preclude the seller from suing on each note in separate lawsuits.

103
Q

civ pro

Physical Exam procedure

A
  1. only on a motion
  2. for good cause shown
  3. notice to person to be examined and all parties, specifying time, place, conditions, scope of exam and identity of examiner.
104
Q

civ pro

Residence for venue purposes

A
  1. district where PJ
  2. In a state that contains multiple judicial districts and in which a defendant corporation is subject to personal jurisdiction at the time the action is commenced, the corporation “shall be deemed to reside in any district in that State within which its contacts would be sufficient to subject it to personal jurisdiction if that district were a separate State.”
105
Q

civ pro

General jdx (PJ) over corp

A

at home= incorporation or PPB

106
Q

civ pro

General jdx over Corp

A

Where at home, only state of incorporation

107
Q

civ pro

SMj affirmative allegation

A

must allege that CITIZENS of different states