civ pro 2 Flashcards

1
Q

Initial Disclosures

A

must disclose info regarding individuals having discoverable info, documents supporting claims/defense, etc.

Generally withing 14 days of parties’ discovery conference

CA: No required automatic disclosures but parties may agree to initial disclosure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Expert Testimony

A

Identify expert witness and produce expert reports.

At least 90 days before trial or 30 days after disclosure of opposing party’s expert evidence on same subject matter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Scope of Discovery

A

party may seek to obtain any non-privileged matter that’s relevant to claim/defense AND proportional to needs of the case

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Relevance

A

Info need not be admissible in evidence to be discoverable.

CA: Disclosure of all material relevant to subject matter of litigation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Experts

A

expert witnesses may be deposed but expert report drafts and disclosures are protected. Party must disclose identify of expert witness expected to testify at trial and provide written report or summary to opposing party within 90 days before trial

CA: Can request all parties simultaneously disclose expert witness lists, details of trial testimony and all writings/reports and experts be available for deposition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Work product

A

Party can’t discover documents prepared in anticipation of litigation unless other party can show substantial need and cannot without undue hardship obtain a substantial equivalent by other means

CA: Attorney’s impression, conclusions or opinions are absolutely privileged

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Discovery Conference (Rule 26f)

A

parties must meet and confer at least 21 days before scheduling conference to consider nature of claims/defense

CA: Ct must hold initial case management conference within 180 days of filing complaint. Parties required to meet and confer regarding planning of discovery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Oral Depositions

A

can take place any time after discovery conference

limited to 10 per party unless showing of good cause to court

CA: 20 days time limit on notice of deposition. No limit on number

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Written Depositions

A

(1) cross questions must be served within 14 days after service of direct questions
(2) redirect questions must be served within 7 days after service of cross-questions
(3) re-cross questions must be served within 7 days after service of redirect questions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Interrogatories

A

25 written interrogatories per party relating to non-privileged matters relevant to case and proportional to needs of case. If additional question, must either withdraw extra or seek courts permission

CA: Unlimited number of interrogatories and up to 35 specially drafted interrogatories

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Request to product documents (RFAs)

A

party has 30 days from being served with request or 30 days from parties first Rule 26f conference, if request was served prior to that conference to respond

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Physical/mental exams

A

court may order person to submit exam if physical or mental condition is in controversy. Ct order + show of cause

CA: attorney must be permitted to attend examination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Request for Admissions (RFAs)

A

party can serve written request for admissions on any relevant, nonprivileged matter relating to statements or opinions or facts

CA: limit admissions to 35 requests

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Subpoena

A

Issued from court where action is pending, used to command nonparty to take an action

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

attorney-client privilege

A

protects info exchange confidentially between client and attorney. Convo must be intended to be confidential and was made for purpose of obtaining legal advice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

motion to compel

A

If party fails to respond to discovery that has been properly served, then the party seeking the info may move to compel such discovery.

Motion must be served on all parties + accompanied by a certificate that the movant has in good faith conferred or attempted to confer with the opposing party in an effort to obtain the disclosure of info without court action.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

sanctions

A

if party fails to obey court order regarding discovery, courts may impose sanctions subject to abuse of discretion standard

18
Q

voluntary dismissal

A

by filing notice, stipulation or court order w/o prejudice.

CA: after commencement of trial, P can only dismiss with prejudice

19
Q

involuntary dismissal

A

when P fails to prosecute/comply with Rules or court order D can move to dismiss which if granted is with prejudice and operates as an adjudication on the merits

20
Q

2-Dismissal Rule

A

a voluntary dismiss of a second action operates as an adjudication on the merits when the plaintiff voluntary dismissed:
(1) the first action in federal court or state court and
(2) the second action based on the same claim in federal court by filing notice of dismissal

21
Q

Default judgment

A

By Court Clerk – may be entered if (1) D hasn’t responded at all (2) claim is for money damages (3) P gives an affidavit of sum owed and (4) D is not a minor or incompetent

By Court – Ct must enter and hold a hearing on damages

22
Q

Summary Judgment

A

shall be granted if moving party shows no genuine dispute as to material fact + is entitled to judgement as a matter of law. Ct will construe evidence in light most favorable to P. May be filed within 30 days after close of all discovery

23
Q

Declaratory judgment

A

court tells parties their rights and responsibilities w/o awarding damages or ordering parties to do so

24
Q

Form of Verdicts

A

Special: written finding made by jury on each issue of ultimate fact

General: typically decision by jury as to prevailing party

General with special interrogatory: used to ensure that jury independently considered material facts of case

25
Q

Judgment as a matter of law

A

prior to submission to jury, party can file JMOL.

granted if no reasonable jury could finding for the nonmoving party.

26
Q

JMOL/Directed Verdict

A

can be made by D at the end of case or either party after both sides rest. Reasonable jury wouldn’t have legally sufficient evidentiary basis to find for nonmoving party. Ct views evidence in light most favorable to party opposed. Any time before case is submitted to jury

27
Q

Renewed JMOL

A

if court doesn’t grant directed verdict, movant can file JNOV no later than 28 days after entry of judgement. Case can be granted on grounds raised in pre-verdict motion

28
Q

Motion to amend/make additional findings

A

(nonjury trial) must be made within 28 days of entry of judgement

29
Q

relief from judgment or order

A

court can relieve party of final judgement within reasonable time and no later than 1 year following judgment entry for (1) mistake (2) newly discoverable evidence or (3) fraud, misrepresentation of opposing party

30
Q

appeals

A

must generally be filed with district clerk within 30 days after judgment or order being appealed is entered. If its a federal govt, agency or official, then within 60 days of judgment

CA: Once trial ct enters judgment against one party and leaves no further issues for resolution, its deemed a final judgement and is immediately appealable

31
Q

final judgment rules

A

federal courts of appeals have jx over appeals of final judgment of district court

32
Q

Standard of review

A

De Novo – pure legal issues
Clear error – factual issues in bench trial
Substantial evidence – factual issues in jury trials
Abuse of discretion – discretionary rulings by judge

33
Q

full faith and credit clause

A

if valid judgemnt rendered by court that has jx over parties, and parties receive proper notice and reasonable opportunity to be heard, judgment will receive same effect in other states

34
Q

claim preclusion (res judicata)

A

prevents relitigation of any part of cause of action thats been adjudicated on its merits.

Valid judgement on merits
Sufficiently identical claims
Sufficiently identical parties

35
Q

Issue preclusion (collateral estoppel)

A

same issues, actually litigated, final and valid judgement, essential to judgement

36
Q

motion to quash

A

court may modify or quash a subpoena that requires (1) disclosing unretained experts info/opinion that doesn’t describe specific occurrences in dispute and results from experts independent study instead of party’s request or (2) trade secret or other confidential research, development or commercial info

37
Q

7th amendment demand for jury trial

A

party may demand a jury trial on any triable jury issue by (1) serving other parties with written jury demand no later than 14 days after the last pleading directed to the issue is served and (2) filing demand with court within reasonable time after service

  • extends to legal but not equitable issues. AIC exceeds $20
38
Q

stay of execution/enforcement

A

most final judgements are automatically stayed for 30 days unless court states otherwise.

doesn’t apply to orders (1) granting injunction/receivership or (2) directing an accounting in patent-infringment action. These orders can be enforced and executed immediately

39
Q

rule 26(f) conference

A

a party may generally not seek discovery until after the discovery conference pursuant to Rule 26f. Rule 26f requires that the parties confer as soon as practicable and in any event at least 21 days before scheduling conference is to be held or scheduling order is due

40
Q

discovery challenge

A

When discovery is challenged, the court must weigh the party’s interests in seeking discovery against the privacy interests of the party resisting discovery.