Civ Pro Flashcards

1
Q

SMJ

A

Courts ability to hear and determine a case. Cannot be waived. Can come in under either Federal question jx or Diversity jx

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2
Q

SMJ - Federal Question Jx

A

Exists when issue is presented on the face of complaint (well-pleaded complaint).

CA – limited $25k or less; unlimited >$25k; Small claims $10k or less for individuals, $5k or less for other litigants

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3
Q

SMJ - Diversity Jx

A

All parties are diverse + Amount in controversy is more than $75k. Citizenship is determined by domicile at time of filing. Can aggregate claims.

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4
Q

Supplemental Jx

A

gives discretion to add claims that arise from common nucleus of operative facts. Must be one claim with original SMJ

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5
Q

Removal

A

Case may be removed from state court to federal court if (1) the case could have been brought in federal court, (2) all of the defendants agree to removal, and (3) a notice of removal is filed within 30 days of service of the document that first makes the case removable.

DJ: only removable if no D is citizen of state where filed. Can’t remove after 1 year
FQ: entire case may be removed. All D must consent

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6
Q

Remand

A

P may send back to state court if removal is improper

Lack of SMJ: P can remand at any time
Other Reasons: P can remand within 30 days

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7
Q

In personam Jx

A

Courts power over an individual person
4 bases: (1) voluntary presence, (2) domicile, (3) consent, (4) long-arm statute

To be subject to PJ, D must have such minimum contacts with forum state such that exercise of jx doesn’t offend traditional notions of fair play and substantial justice

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8
Q

Personal Jx: Minimum Contacts

A

Purposeful availment, foreseeability, and relatedness of P’s claim to D’s contacts

Purposeful availment: D’s contacts with forum must be purposeful and substantial

Foreseeability: D knew of or could anticipate being held accountable for her forum activities

Relatedness: Specific Jx & General Jx

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9
Q

Specific Jx

A

Arises when the cause of action is related to D’s contacts

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10
Q

General Jx

A

can arise even when the cause of action isn’t related to D’s contacts. D must have had “continuous and systematic contacts” with forum such that D is “essentially at home”

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11
Q

Fair Play and Substantial Justice

A

Court must examine factors

(1) interest of forum in adjudicating matter
(2) burden of D appearing in case
(3) interest of judicial system in efficient resolution
(4) shared interest of states protecting social policies

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12
Q

In Rem Jx

A

Court’s authority to determine issues concerning personal/real property. Property is present in forum

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13
Q

Quasi in Rem Jx

A

determines only interest of parties regarding property located in forum

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14
Q

Venue In California

A

Transitory action (Claim arose elsewhere)

County where D resides when action commences

Contract: Where K has executed/performed

Personal Injury/wrongful death: where injury occurred

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15
Q

Venue is Proper…

A

(1) where any D resides
(2) where substantial part of claims arose/property is located OR
(3) where court has personal jx over defendant if no (1) or (2)

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16
Q

Original Venue Proper

A

court may transfer to another district for convenience of parties AND in best interest of justice. Laws of original state apply

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17
Q

Original Venue Improper

A

court must either dismiss case OR if in best interest, may transfer to any place where it could have been originally brought or where parties consent to

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18
Q

Forum Non Conveniens

A

when there’s a more appropriate forum for litigation, but the cannot be transferred there, court may dismiss action pursuant to doctrine of forum non conveniens

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19
Q

Erie Doctrine

A

FQ: Federal substantive + procedural law controls as well as federal common law

DJ: State substantive law + federal procedural law

SJ: State substantive law

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20
Q

Service of Process

A

generally only allowed in limits of state where district court sits OR anywhere else allowed by state law (Long arm statute). Timing: Within 90 days of filing case

Exception: 100 Mile Bulge Provision

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21
Q

100 Mile Bulge Provision

A

Provides that out of state services is allowed even across state lines within 100 mile radius of court district where suit is pending

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22
Q

Waiver of Service

A

waiver must be in writing and addressed to individual D and must give D reasonable time of at least 30 days after request sent to return waiver. Extends time to answer from 21 to 60 days after waiver request is sent. 90 days if foreign.

CA: D’s waiver doesn’t extend time to respond to complaint

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23
Q

Temporary Restraining Order

A

preserves status quo until opportunity for full hearing. No longer than 14 days unless good cause. May be issued without notice if immediate and irreparable harm will result.

CA: TRO issues w/o notice to D generally can’t exceed 15 days

24
Q

Preliminary Injunctions

A

Require Notice and a Hearing.

(1) irreparable harm w/o injunction, (2) likelihood of success on merits, (3) balance of hardships in favor of P, (4) feasibility of enforcement

25
Q

Permanent Injunction

A

once issued, it continues until dissolved by court, but affected person may move for modification/dissolution. P must show actual success on merits

26
Q

Complaint

A

(1) short plain statement of courts SMJ (2) P’s claim establishing entitlement to relief and (3) demand for relief sought

CA: All pleadings must contain statement of material operative facts constituting each cause of action and demand for relief and amount of damages

Timing: Within 90 Days of filing

27
Q

Rule 12(b) Motion to Dismiss

A

lack of SMJ can be raised any time; lack of PJ, improper venue, insufficient process or service can be raised in pre-answer motion or answer otherwise waived

28
Q

Rule 12(b) Defenses

A

lack of smj, lack of pj, improper venue, insufficiency of process, insufficiency of service, failure to state a claim, failure to join necessary party

29
Q

Rule 12(b) Failure to State a Claim

A
  • Claim for relief can be dismissed if it either fails to assert a legal theory of recovery that cognizable at law or fail to allege facts sufficient to support a cognizable claim
  • In deciding a motion, cts will treat all well-pleaded facts of complaint as true, and resolve all doubts in favor of nonmovant and view pleading in light most favorable to nonmovant
30
Q

Motion for Judgment on the Pleadings

A

after answer is filed, allows it to dispose of case when material facts aren’t in dispute and judgment on merits can be achieved based on contents of pleading

CA: Before filing motion, moving P must meet and confer to determine if resolution can be reached

31
Q

Motion for More Definite Statement

A

responding party can move for motion for more definitive statement if claim for relief is so vague or ambiguous that party can’t reasonably draft responsive pleading

32
Q

Motion to strike

A

when pleading contains insufficient defense or redundant, immaterial, scandalous material, courts may strike

CA: Within 30 days party can move to strike improper, false or irrelevant matter in pleading

33
Q

Answer

A

must (1) respond to allegations in complaint and (2) raised affirmative defenses (if not, waived)

Timing: Within 21 days after being served with complaint. 60 days if D timely waived service.

CA: 30 days after being served and if D files motion to strike/demurrer within 10 days of service of denial

34
Q

Reply

A

by P to Ds answer within 21 days after being served with order to reply

CA: P files separate answer to cross-complaint instead of reply

35
Q

amendments - as of right

A

can be done once within 21 days after service or pleading within 21 days of responsive pleading/pre-answer motion

36
Q

amendments - w/o right

A

may amend with written consent of adverse party or leave of court

37
Q

Relation Back

A

Must respond within 14 days after service of amended pleading or time left on original pleading whichever is later

38
Q

Relation Back - New Claim

A

relates back to date of original pleading if amendment asserts claim/defense that arose from same conduct, transaction or occurrence

CA: amended pleading must also involve the same accident/injuries and refer to same offending instrumentalities

39
Q

Relation Back - New Party

A

relates back to date of original pleading if amendment asserts
(1) claims/defenses that arose from same transaction or occurrence
(2) New party receives notice within 90 days and
(3) D knew or should have known about action but for mistake of identification

CA: misnomer allows P to correct even when SOL runs

40
Q

Rule 11 Sanctions

A

requires attorney/pro se party to sign all pleadings, motions, etc

CA: Party seeking sanctions must exercise due diligence. 21 days to correct conduct

41
Q

permissive joinder

A

P and D may join one action if (1) claims relate to same series of occurences/transactions and (2) question of law/fact common to all parties

42
Q

compulsory joinder

A

must be joined if unfair to litigate without them.

  • necessary party
  • indispensable party
43
Q

compulsory joinder - necessary party

A

(1) complete relief can’t be granted without them (2) impairment of interest if not included (3) substantial risk of multiple/inconsistent obligations

44
Q

compulsory joinder - indispensable party

A

if party can’t join because of jx or venue, ct may dismiss considering factors (1) extent to when judgement w/o party would prejudice them or existing parties, (2) extent to which protective measures could prevent injustice (3) whether judgement would be adequate (4) whether P would have adequate remedy if action is dismissed

45
Q

intervention as of right

A

must be allowed if either (1) absentee’s interest would be harmed if not joined and no existing party can represent that interest OR (2) absentee has unconditional statutory right

46
Q

permissive intervention

A

allowed in courts discretion if (1) absentee has claim/defense that shares common question of law, (2) absentee has conditional statutory right OR (3) absentee is govt agent and claim relates to govt officer/agency/statute

CA: Intervenor’s interest must be “direct and immediate”

47
Q

interpleader

A

allows person holding property (aka stakeholder) to force all potential claimants into a single lawsuit

  • rule interpleader
  • statutory interpleader
48
Q

rule interpleader

A

Requires that action involves (1) Federal question Or (2) AIC is $75k + Complete diversity between stakeholder and claimants

49
Q

Statutory interpleader

A

Requires AIC be at least $500 + Minimal diversity between claimants (at least 2 are diverse)

50
Q

Cross-claims - Requirements

A

(1) claim is based on same t/o and (2) must ask for actual relief from other party (damages. Must be answered within 21 days of service

51
Q

Counterclaims

A

Must be answered within 21 days.

Compulsory – arise from same transaction or occurrence and doesn’t require adding party court doesn’t have jx of

Permissive – may bring claim that doesn’t arise from same t/o. Needs independent of jx

52
Q

Impleader (third party claims)

A

Defending party can implead nonparty for liability of original claim.

Timing: Can be asserted any time after complaint is filed but 3P must get court’s permission if filed more than 14 days after service of original answer

53
Q

Class Action Requirements

A

Numerosity, Commonality, Typicality, Adequacy

54
Q

3 Situations when Class can be Certified

A

(1) risk of prejudice, (2) final equitable relief (3) common question of law/fact

CA RULE: requires ascertainable class + well defined community of interest
Common question of law/fact predominates, class action benefits parties and named reps adequately represent class

55
Q

Class Action Fairness Act (CAFA)

A

Jx exists if (1) any class member is diverse of any opposing party (2) aggregated claims of class exceed $5million and (3) any D can remove