Civ Pro Flashcards

1
Q

P’s claim arises from the anticipation of a federal defense

A

No Federal Question JX

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2
Q

P’s claim implicates federal law

A

No Federal Q JX: such jurisidiction must be made out in P’s first complaint

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3
Q

State rules of civil procedure…

A

are subordinate to federal rules of procedure. If in federal court, follow federal rules of procedure even if there is a state rule of procedure on point

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4
Q

multiple P’s may NOT aggregate their claims against a single D unless:

A

they are seeking to enforce a joint right in which they have an undivided interest

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5
Q

general jurisdiction is a ___ standard to meet

A

difficult

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6
Q

general jurisdiction requires a D to be …

A

at home

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7
Q

unilateral activity of the P will or will not be considered purposeful activity?

A

will NOT

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8
Q

for personal jx internet contacts …

A

can be sufficient to create personal jurisdiction when they are purposeful and the claim arises from those contacts

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9
Q

when a D waives service of process …

A

he is allowed additional time (60 days from date P mailed the summons) to respond to the complaint

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10
Q

additional time for a D that waived service of process begins

A

from the date the waiver of process was sent by the P

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11
Q

Ex parte TRO – a TRO may be granted by a court when it necessary to prevent irreparable and immediate harm without notice of the hearing IF moving party–>

A
  1. gives specific facts in affidavit or complaint to establish immediate and irreparable injury before adverse party can be heard
  2. certifies in writing all efforts it made to give notice to adverse party and why notice should not be required
  3. provides some security to pay for any costs and damages incurred by adverse party if its wrongfully restrained
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12
Q

if a jx does not recognize contribution among joint tortfeasors can a D bring in a third party claim stating the 3rd party is liable in some way?

A

No

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13
Q

what must a motion to compel discovery certify if it wishes to be awarded reasonable expenses?

A

that the moving party has made a good faith attempt to confer with the opponent to obtain the discovery without court intervention

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14
Q

After a D files an answer, can an action be dismissed by the P?

A

Only by a stipulation signed by all parties or by an order of the court

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15
Q

for claim preclusion, a later claim is deemed to be the same if

A

it arises from the same transaction or occurrence as the earlier claim

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16
Q

T/F - In rem actions binds the property that was the subject of the disposition, and also the parties personally

A

F

17
Q

when a party claims certain discoverable info is privileged or trial prep material what must it also do?

A

disclose the existence of the material in sufficient detail to the opposing party so it can assess the privilege claim

18
Q

can a fed. trial judge that believes compensatory damages awarded were inadequate offer the D the choice of paying more?

A

No, additur is unconstitutional

19
Q

when removal is based on diversity jx and a D is a citizen of the state where the state action was brought can the action be removed?

A

No, if it were based on FQ jx it could be though

20
Q

What level of review should appellate courts give the findings of fact of the previous judge?

A

they should only be set aside if they are clearly erroneous

21
Q

T/F: courts can grant partial summary judgments

A

T

22
Q

In every class action notice of ___ must be provided

A

dismissal or compromise
notice of pendency NOT required

23
Q

when a D does not waive service of process

A

P must serve and D is liable for the cost of service unless he can show good cause for not waiving

24
Q

in a typical class action - diversity is determined on the basis of

A

the citizenship of the named members of the class who are suing

25
Q

A juror can testify on matters occurring during deliberation ONLY IF

A

they are testifying on a question of whether extraneous prejudicial information was improperly brought to a jury’s attention OR whether any outside influence was brought to bear on a juror

26
Q

what does it mean to take judicial notice of a fact

A

means it is a matter of common knowledge in the community but the jury is not required to accept the fact as conclusive in a criminal case
- do not need to resort to reference materials
- they are not subject to reasonable dispute because they are generally known within community

27
Q

T/F: For Double Jeopardy, a D cannot be prosecuted for the same criminal conduct

A

F
- two crimes do not constitute the same offense if each crime requires proof of an additional elements even though some of the same facts may be necessary to prove the crime

28
Q

claims can be dismissed if they fail to:

A

put the other side on notice of the claim being asserted which requires some form of details

29
Q

Claims that assert fraud or mistake requires a P to assert a claim for relief with

A

particularity

30
Q

When a case is filed in an improper venue the court must

A

either
- dismiss the case
- transfer the case to a venue where the case could have initially been brought

31
Q

When most removal be made?

A

30 days after receipt of the complaint

32
Q

What is plain error review?

A

The standard of review that applies to jury instructions that the appellant did not timely or properly complain about in district court

33
Q

T/F: a remand is considered a final order

A

T (SOMETIMES) bc it puts the case out of federal court
- BUT remands that are based on a defect in the removal procedural or lack of fed. jx cannot be appealed

34
Q

Can remands based on discretionary choice be appealed?

A

Yes for review for abuse of discretion

35
Q

Whether to hear new issues on appeal is

A

within the court’s discretion
- appellate courts frequenetly hear new issues when they are issues of law and no factual record is required

36
Q

May a P join all claims she has against a D even if they are unrelated?

A

Yes