CISSP Notes Flashcards

1
Q

Type of malware which can change or update a system’s kernel

A

Rootkit

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2
Q

Best practice when it comes to taking measures against a rootkit

A

Reinstall operating system

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3
Q

Type of self-sufficient malware

A

Worm

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4
Q

Malware which requires host-to-host transmission to work

A

Virus

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5
Q

Firewall rule placed at the top of the rulebase to drop direct connections to the firewall

A

Stealth rule

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6
Q

Attribute-based access control allows authorization through this type of condition

A

Environmental

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7
Q

Examples of environmental attributes in ABAC

A

Time of day, geolocation, network type

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8
Q

Subjects access _________

A

objects

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9
Q

Signing a document with your private key provides

A

Nonrepudiation

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10
Q

HMAC is associated with this high-level and fundamental security concept

A

Integrity

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11
Q

Users are allowed access to resources through a pre-determined template

A

Role-based access control

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12
Q

Firewall policies reflect this type of access control

A

Rule-based access control

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13
Q

Every object must have an owner

A

Discretionary Access Control

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14
Q

A more in-depth, granular, detailed, and fully tested evaluation provides ________

A

assurance

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15
Q

Determines the functionality of a product

A

Certification

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16
Q

Determining why to create the software and for what purpose

A

First phase of SDLC

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17
Q

Implementing proper disposal methods for software

A

Last phase of SDLC

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18
Q

A portion of software which is left unprotected and could provide a means for an attacker

A

Attack surface

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19
Q

How well the components of software work together per design specifications

A

Integration testing

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20
Q

Making sure the users verify the product operates as it should

A

User acceptance testing

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21
Q

Enter safe mode, recover files, validate operations

A

What to do after a system crash

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22
Q

Only allowing systems administrators to shut down critical systems

A

Reduce the possibility of denial of service

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23
Q

When processes should not be interrupted from receiving input to providing output

A

Atomic transactions

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24
Q

Type of codes which maintain the integrity of files

A

Message authentication code

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25
Q

Even if a report has no data, it should still say “no data to report”.

A

Input/output control

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26
Q

The default state of wiring closet doors.

A

Closed

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27
Q

When doors are opened during emergencies

A

Fail-safe

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28
Q

The estimated amount of time a device is meant to work reliably.

A

Mean time between failures

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29
Q

This should be implemented if the mean time to repair is too high on a device

A

Redundancy measures

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30
Q

The decision engine in this access control method is controlled by the operating system in highly classified computers

A

Mandatory Access Control

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31
Q

ACLs provide this type of RBAC, with no formal roles other than by the user themselves

A

Non-RBAC

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32
Q

An access control system fully defined by organizational roles, policies, and permissions for subjects to objects

A

Full RBAC

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33
Q

Attack from flaws in IP packet reassembly

A

Teardrop attack

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34
Q

10.1.2.0/23 and10.1.3.248/30

A

RFC 1918 Overlapping subnets

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35
Q

A product which provides IDS/IPS, DLP, firewall, antimalware, antispam services

A

Unified Threat Management

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36
Q

First thing to establish before any security control or project

A

The business need

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37
Q

Transferring workers to another organization’s workplace to use their infrastructure as a recovery agreement

A

Reciprocal agreement

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38
Q

Type of recovery site necessary for an MTD of 1 hour

A

Hot site

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39
Q

Type of recovery site necessary for an MTD of 12 hours

A

Warm site

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40
Q

Permissions and authorization rights are this type of control

A

Administrative

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41
Q

NIST 800-34

A

Contingency Guide Planning (good read for exam)

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42
Q

Who can declare an emergency?

A

Anyone

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43
Q

Who can declare a disaster?

A

BCP Coordinator

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44
Q

Read Shon Harris 7th Edition once, Sybex 3 times, Official CBK once

A

Study Tips

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45
Q

The best way to memorize something for the exam. It creates a visual placeholder in your brain.

A

Handwritten notes

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46
Q

Don’t let your dreams be dreams, achieve them with goals. Achieve them with three methods.

A

Discipline, dedication, consistency.

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47
Q

People taking the exam usually think they are going to fail. But they pass.

A

Just like you will.

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48
Q

A Cisco ASA firewall failing after 213 days of uptime

A

Example of mean time between failure

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49
Q

The more complex a device, program, or component

A

The less reliability

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50
Q

Data written across all drives increases write performance

A

Striping

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51
Q

Applying controls to better “suit” an environment beyond the recommended baseline

A

Tailoring

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52
Q

Eliminating unnecessary controls for an environment recommended by a baseline

A

Scoping

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53
Q

Applying minimum security controls as a reference point in an organization

A

Baseline

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54
Q

Pre-employment administrative detective control to gauge employee suitability

A

Background investigation

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55
Q

Most important action before applying updates or patches to a system in production

A

Backup

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56
Q

Type of knowledge that is a must for the CISSP exam

A

Inter-domain

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57
Q

The most stressful moments of the CISSP exam

A

First 10-15 minutes/questions

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58
Q

Port for SMTP

A

25

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59
Q

Practice CISSP questions most similar to the CISSP exam

A

CISSP Practice Questions, Fourth Edition, Shon Harris

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60
Q

A more secure way to remotely connect to servers instead of Telnet (Port 23)

A

SSH (Port 22)

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61
Q

Standards enforce a _________ environment

A

homogeneous

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62
Q

Form of API security to mitigate DOS

A

Rate-limiting

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63
Q

Those who direct the business and security efforts of an organization

A

Senior management

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64
Q

Structure to properly direct organizational business and security efforts

A

Security governance

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65
Q

Cost to support, repair, replace, manage, and administer an asset

A

Asset valuation

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66
Q

Framework which provides steps to match business goals with IT resources

A

COBIT

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67
Q

Access control method which uses classifications and utilized in government systems

A

Mandatory Access Control

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68
Q

Standard which rewards clean desk policies, proper documentation, security protocols and processes for information security management systems

A

ISO 27001

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69
Q

Security model which upholds integrity through the use of data items and well-formed transactions

A

Clark-Wilson

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70
Q

Access control method in which each object must absolutely have an owner

A

Discretionary Access Control

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71
Q

Inventors of the one of the first mathematical security models

A

David Elliot Bell and Leonard J. LaPadula

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72
Q

Risk mitigation should be considered at which stages of the system development life-cycle?

A

Every stage

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73
Q

Administrative control which aims to teach users about potential social engineering techniques and other types of risks

A

Security awareness training

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74
Q

Access control method which users a set with least upper bound and greatest lower bound

A

Lattice-based access control

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75
Q

A backup site to a backup site

A

Tertiary site

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76
Q

Renting a database program

A

Software as a Service

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77
Q

Renting an operating system

A

Platform as a Service

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78
Q

Renting a virtual firewall

A

Infrastructure as a Service

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79
Q

The use of shared resources among thousands of servers in thousands of data centers

A

Cloud computing

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80
Q

Document which outlines an appropriate level of service between a provider and a customer

A

Service Level Agreement (SLA)

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81
Q

Uptime, downtime, peak, average and failover times.

A

Common issues addressed in SLAs

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82
Q

Establishing a contract with a cloud service provider

A

Due care

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83
Q

Verifying controls are in place when forming a contract with a cloud service provider

A

Due diligence

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84
Q

Reports capable of verifying the controls used by vendors to ensure service delivery

A

Service Organization Control (SOC)

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85
Q

Virtualization spurned the invention of this technology

A

Cloud computing

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86
Q

Customer’s responsibility in Software as a Service

A

Data Security

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87
Q

Customer’s responsibility in Platform as a Service

A

Data classification

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88
Q

Customer’s responsibility in an Infrastructure as a Service

A

Access Control

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89
Q

Cloud service provider’s responsibility in a Software as a Service

A

Application Security

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90
Q

Cloud service provider’s responsibility in a Platform as a Service

A

Infrastructure Security

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91
Q

Cloud service provider’s responsibility in an Infrastructure as a Service

A

Physical Security

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92
Q

Companies or users who utilize the services offered by the cloud

A

Tenants

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93
Q

AWS and Microsoft Azure

A

Cloud service providers

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94
Q

Cloud service model which dedicates all services to one tenant

A

Private cloud

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95
Q

Type of cloud where multiple tenants use the same service

A

Community cloud

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96
Q

Type of cloud service which will allow you to throttle server CPU utilization if necessary

A

Infrastructure as a Service

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97
Q

Best way to secure data flowing from your organization and the cloud

A

Encryption

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98
Q

Sort of like policies

A

Directives

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99
Q

Takes over when primary controls have failed

A

Compensating controls

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100
Q

Controls which discourage those trying to subvert directives

A

Deterrent controls

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101
Q

Pours water out immediately after the suppression mechanism is triggered

A

Wet Pipe

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102
Q

Pipe system filled with compressed air

A

Dry pipe system

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103
Q

Bigger pipes, more water

A

Deluge system

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104
Q

Best type of water suppression system for computers and other electronics

A

Preaction system

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105
Q

Combination of a dry pipe/wet pipe system

A

Preaction system

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106
Q

Vulnerability which was the death of SSL

A

POODLE

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107
Q

Component of ABAC which makes it a unique type of access control method

A

Environmental attributes

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108
Q

Data state which can be secured by hard disk encryption

A

Data at rest

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109
Q

Data state which can be secured by TLS

A

Data in motion

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110
Q

Data state which can be secured by a proper a software development life cycle

A

Data in use

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111
Q

Used to assess the quality of software, but not the vendor which makes the software

A

Common Criteria

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112
Q

Used to assess the quality of a software vendor, but not the software the vendor makes

A

Capability Maturity Model Integration

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113
Q

A form of non-discretionary based access control

A

Mandatory Access Control

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114
Q

Can be used on top of role-based access control

A

Rule-based access control

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115
Q

Evaluation method which preceded the Common Criteria

A

TCSEC (Trusted Computer System Evaluation Criteria)

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116
Q

A set of categorized basic security requirements to evaluate a specific type of system

A

Protection Profile

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117
Q

Documentation and paperwork to prove the functionality and assurance of a system

A

Security Target

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118
Q

The product of a Common Criteria security evaluation

A

Target of Evaluation

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119
Q

Hiding an invention such as custom encryption and thinking attackers won’t ever break it

A

Security through obscurity

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120
Q

The theory that transistors on a microchip will grow exponentially making old encryption algorithms breakable

A

Moore’s Law

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121
Q

Encrypting data on a hard drive instead of deleting it

A

Crypto erase

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122
Q

Overwriting sectors on a hard drive

A

Overwriting

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123
Q

Media which cannot be degaussed

A

Solid state drives

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124
Q

Method of calculating the different ways a system can experiences faults and lower reliability and safety

A

Fault-tree analysis

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125
Q

Technology used to control physical components of industrial environments

A

Industrial control systems

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126
Q

Trusting your friend and your friend’s friend with data

A

Transitive trust

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127
Q

Trusting your friend and only your friend with data

A

Non-transitive trust

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128
Q

FTPS and SMTPS

A

Protocols which use Transport Layer Security

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129
Q

What to do the night before the exam

A

Get at least 8 hours of sleep

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130
Q

Bundle of functional and assurance requirements

A

Common Criteria EALs

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131
Q

Software, encryption algorithms, key management, applications, TPMs

A

A cryptosystem

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132
Q

Encryption cipher which uses the natural world and the elements within it for the key

A

Running key cipher

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133
Q

Less mathematical computations than public key cryptography

A

Symmetric encryption

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134
Q

Probably the only stream cipher you need to know for the CISSP exam

A

RC4

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135
Q

Random values used at the beginning of a keystream or algorithm

A

Initialization Vectors

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136
Q

Signing a document with a private key provides nonrepudiation and also this

A

Authentication

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137
Q

A symmetric key used one time to secure the communication channel for data

A

Session key

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138
Q

Supports 14 rounds of encryption if both the key and block sizes are 256 bits

A

Rijndael 256

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139
Q

Cryptographic keys should never be in cleartext outside the system’s trusted memory location

A

Key management principle

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140
Q

Unique private key within a TPM and a public key to authenticate the TPM

A

Endorsement Key

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141
Q

The toughest cryptographic attack

A

Ciphertext-Only Attacks

142
Q

You can view Known-Plaintext Attack in this movie

A

The Imitation Game

143
Q

Locks, bollards, fences, barriers

A

Physical detective controls which only serve to slow down an attacker, not prevent

144
Q

Emergency 911 service, water sprinklers, Army National Guard

A

Physical responses to security incidents

145
Q

Results obtained from custom measurements of information which are becoming more important in organizations

A

Metrics

146
Q

Manipulating the natural environment to reduce crime around a facility

A

Crime Prevention Through Environmental Design (CPTED)

147
Q

WAN technology which dedicates a single virtual connection between two systems, not multiple paths

A

Circuit-switched

148
Q

Multitasking, multicore, multiprocessing, multithreading

A

They all do not mean the same thing, should know the difference

149
Q

Type of system security mode which provides the least amount of risk as compared to a multilevel security mode

A

Dedicated mode

150
Q

If you don’t want the predicted path of a synthetic transactions, use this instead

A

Real User Monitoring (RUM)

151
Q

Your mindset and role when taking the CISSP exam

A

Risk advisor, security consultant, CISO, senior management

152
Q

Type of solutions to pick when taking the CISSP exam

A

High-level answers which guide the organization without taking direct hands-on action

153
Q

Every choice picked on the real CISSP exam must revolve around this

A

Risk management and cost-benefit analysis. Identifying and valuating assets. CIA Triad.

154
Q

Input validation, message digests, preventing unauthorized modifications

A

Integrity protections

155
Q

Availability metrics

A

MTD/RTO/RPO/SLA/MTBF/MTTR

156
Q

What comes after identification but before authorization

A

Authentication

157
Q

Operational plans are within days or weeks, tactical plans are within months, and strategic plans are within

A

years

158
Q

Why do we have data classification

A

For implementing proper security controls

159
Q

The activities which promote due care

A

Due diligence

160
Q

The amount of time for which an organization will face risk

A

FOREVER

161
Q

Risk Treatment: MART

A

Mitigate, Accept, Reject, Transfer

162
Q

What are the exact BCP/DRP steps to know for the CISSP exam?

A

There are no official steps. Just know the general steps. Policy, BIA, Recovery Strategies, Maintenance

163
Q

What do you probably NOT have to memorize or know for the exam?

A

TCSEC, US Laws

164
Q

The right to be forgotten and having your personal information deleted is part of which regulation?

A

GDPR (Global Data Protection Regulation)

165
Q

Term which describes destroying media to the point of being unrecoverable

A

Sanitization

166
Q

Science of cryptography and cryptanalysis

A

Cryptology

167
Q

Sharing proof of a part of the knowledge without knowing the actual knowledge

A

Zero Knowledge Proof

168
Q

The work factor to break a cryptosystem depends on this

A

Key strength

169
Q

Do you need to know “n(n-1)/2” ?

A

You most likely will not need to calculate total number of symmetric keys required

170
Q

Streaming cipher version of cipher block chaining

A

Cipher Feedback Mode

171
Q

The most important phase/step of the BCP/DRP process to know for the CISSP exam

A

Business Impact Analysis

172
Q

Temporary location for holding initial memory instructions on a CPU

A

Registers

173
Q

A countermeasure to inference

A

Polyinstantiation

174
Q

Java, C++, Python, or other languages all have to be broken down to this by the processor

A

Binary format

175
Q

After passing the CISSP, what can you focus on for a prosperous future?

A

Cloud computing or technical certs. You already have the best high-level cert.

176
Q

Method of accessing a secure and separate channel outside the realm of the existing system

A

Out-of-band

177
Q

Reckless programming leads to vulnerabilities which lead to this

A

Exploits

178
Q

A bug in this protocol can lead hackers to compromising single sign-on services to websites

A

SAML

179
Q

The approach to bridge different organizational teams to prevent conflicting priorities

A

DevOps

180
Q

System which makes decisions based on the perceived thought process of humans

A

Neural Network

181
Q

Cost is not a factor when classifying data.

A

Cost is a factor when implementing the security controls on classified data.

182
Q

Concerned with preventing information from lower security levels to flow to higher security levels

A

Biba Model

183
Q

Columns are ACLs, and rows are capability tables

A

Access Matrix

184
Q

Model which uses integrity verification procedures to confirm data ingerity

A

Clark-Wilson Model

185
Q

Subjects take over rights of an object, subjects grant rights to an object

A

Take-Grant Model

186
Q

Any organization with a BYOD Policy must try to enforce this first step with the user.

A

Device registration

187
Q

When the introduction of a new company-wide application or system has been formally approved

A

Accreditation

188
Q

Metadata repository

A

Data dictionary

189
Q

Legal way to obtain other people’s confidential information

A

Dumpster diving

190
Q

encryption=ontinyeprc

A

Message reordering process associated with the terms transposition or permutation

191
Q

Report which covers the security, integrity, privacy, confidentiality and availability controls shared by an NDA with management and regulators

A

SOC2

192
Q

Report on the internal financial reporting controls used by auditors and controller offices

A

SOC1

193
Q

Report which covers the security, integrity, privacy, confidentiality and availability controls publicly available for all to view

A

SOC3

194
Q

When you quickly go through a door you are not supposed to go through while it is closing

A

Piggybacking

195
Q

Type of evidence which has not been tampered with at all and aligns with the facts presented

A

Reliable evidence

196
Q

Device which can function like an IDS if the primary feature is disabled

A

Intrusion Prevention System

197
Q

Most conservative form of system failure in terms of information security (but may cost human life)

A

Fail close/fail secure

198
Q

The two most important things to maintain the integrity of audit trails

A

Date and time stamps

199
Q

Windows failure in which the system is in a full secure state

A

Blue Screen of Death

200
Q

If this is obtained from a victim, the attacker will be able to login to web services with their identity

A

API Key or SAML token

201
Q

On-site inspection. Review how they exchange documents and data. Check out their policies, incident handling, guaranteed uptime, procedures, standards. Perform an audit by an external third-party company.

A

Risk management concepts for the supply chain

202
Q

They used to be hired to lower costs, but slowly and slowly they are being hired for the value they would add.

A

Third-party vendors

203
Q

Assurance that multiple vendors and partners have followed a sufficient level of quality, performance, and security controls for a finished product to a customer.

A

Supply chain security

204
Q

Limited visibility into partner or supplier risk. Limited information to improve supplier vulnerabilities. Limited standardized platforms.

A

Supply chain risk management challenges

205
Q

Evaluation of a vendor’s internal policies, procedures, and controls as it directly relates to the CIA Triad and the service organization.

A

Service Organization Control 2 (SOC2)

206
Q

There is never any true security in the cloud, so it’s best to keep your data on your own. Or, the cloud provider has proper security controls to take care of data better than you ever could.

A

Two common attitudes toward putting data in the cloud. The solution is to find a balance.

207
Q

Verify vendor security policies, contractors who may have access to the data, where the data is actually stored, any business relationships with parties who will also handle the data.

A

Cloud security due care practices by the data owner.

208
Q

The best way to make sure your third-party cloud vendors properly handle your data and are held accountable.

A

Establishing a third-party risk management program.

209
Q

To effectively manage cloud vendor information security risks, this type of monitoring should be encouraged from each cloud actor.

A

Near real-time monitoring.

210
Q

Cloud actors and their individual businesses, processes, functions, missions, and supporting information security systems.

A

Cloud ecosystem.

211
Q

SAML, OpenID, Kerberos.

A

Some standard protocols for cloud subscriber users to authenticate themselves.

212
Q

The process of representing private data elements with a non-private and meaningless value.

A

Tokenization.

213
Q

Other than the cloud vendor, this entity also has the responsibility of on-going monitoring and risk evaluation.

A

You.

214
Q

Responsible for external vendor rules on an organization as a whole. Responsible for imposing internal rules on external vendors.

A

Responsibilities of a Compliance Officer.

215
Q

A clear communicator, a strong constitution, intelligent, proactive, fair, modest, disciplined, fair principles, and held to the highest standard of ethics.

A

Qualities of a Compliance Officer.

216
Q

Consists of a policy decision point, a policy enforcement point, and a supportive policy.

A

Main mechanisms of an Identity Provider for the cloud.

217
Q

Amazon EC2, IBM Blue Mix, Microsoft Azure, Google Cloud, Dream Host.

A

Real time cloud providers.

218
Q

An alternative open standard form of cloud authentication in which access is granted to a website/application without sharing passwords from another authenticated website/application.

A

OAuth.

219
Q

Trade and professional organizations.

A

Sources of independent impartial auditors

220
Q

Requires government agencies to have information security programs which provide assurance for networks, facilities, and systems.

A

Federal Information Security Management Act of 2002

221
Q

Do this before prioritizing risk management of third-parties, cloud vendors, business partners, or the supply chain.

A

Prioritize the data and assets of your own organization first

222
Q

Doveryai, no proveryai -Russian proverb describing clients first doing their own neutral third-party assessment before signing on with the vendor.

A

Trust, but verify

223
Q

Know who you’re trusting, anticipate problems, include vendor in your security discussions, constantly verify vendor’s security.

A

Risk management best practices

224
Q

Identify interdependencies and any risk inheritance between the cloud vendor and the consumer.

A

Cloud vendor risk treatment

225
Q

Real-time monitoring of cloud provider’s security controls, operations, and posture

A

Cloud vendor risk control

226
Q

An early malicious form of cloud computing with cost reduction, dynamically provisioned computers, redundancy, and security.

A

These are the same characteristics as botnets.

227
Q

Stage at which cost, security, privacy, and the effectiveness of cloud systems and vendors must be implemented for maximum effectiveness.

A

The first stage, and every other stage after that.

228
Q

Addresses the customized concerns, data ownership, exit rights, breach notifications, tenant isolation, employee vetting, and compliance with laws and regulations.

A

Negotiable agreements with cloud provider

229
Q

Defines the terms of use, conditions of access, period of service, and the termination or disposal of data with a cloud service provider.

A

Specifications of a cloud service provider

230
Q

Predefined non-negotiable and negotiable.

A

Types of cloud service agreements.

231
Q

Everything requires risk management, especially with third-party cloud providers or any other type of unfamiliar vendor.

A

The theme of these flashcards.

232
Q

Cloud service agreement crafted completely by the cloud service provider. They serve as the general basis for a cloud vendor’s economies of scale for cloud tenants. Can only be amended at the vendor’s discretion.

A

Non-negotiable service agreement.

233
Q

Promotes better automation of configuration control, vulnerability testing, audits, patching, and replacing platform components.

A

Cloud system homogeneity

234
Q

Entity which determines alone, or jointly, the purpose for which data or personal information is processed.

A

Data controller

235
Q

Entity which handles and processes the data as dictated by the data controller.

A

Data processor

236
Q

Direct or indirect identification to whom personal information relates.

A

Data subject

237
Q

Legally collected data and limited to the consent and scope of the data subject.

A

Data collection limitation

238
Q

Relevance and kept in accurate form with integrity .

A

Data quality

239
Q

Unauthorized secondary usage of PII, uncertainty of data disposal, questionable data retention policies, determination if a breach has occurred.

A

Cloud computing privacy issues

240
Q

Cloud service model which is cost-effective but raises the most concern for the privacy of data.

A

Public cloud

241
Q

Access, transparency, control over data lifecycle, changing providers

A

Limitation or lack of user control over cloud vendors

242
Q

Technique to lessen the impact of decisions which impact the privacy of user data.

A

Training and expertise

243
Q

Unauthorized sale of detailed customer sales data to competitors or advertisers.

A

Unauthorized secondary usage of data in the cloud.

244
Q

Deployed applications, virtual machine monitors, guest virtual machines, data storage, supporting middleware, backplane services, utilization metering and quota monitoring.

A

Cloud computing system complexities

245
Q

Emails coming into data center servers are redirected to the cloud for further analysis to check for spam, malware, or phishing.

A

Data center oriented cloud service

246
Q

The ability to reduce company capital investment and increase computational needs through operations expenses.

A

An advantage of cloud computing

247
Q

Best way to counter a sprawling, widespread, unknown and unmanageable mix of insecure cloud services.

A

Proper organizational security governance

248
Q

An organization’s responsibility to conduct agreements in line with laws, regulations, standards, and meeting specifications.

A

Compliance

249
Q

One of the most important and common issues facing an organization whether in-house or in the cloud.

A

Data location

250
Q

Goes beyond that of current or previous employees and includes contractors, affiliates or other third-parties.

A

Insider access/threat

251
Q

Often times equated to just vulnerability assessment and pen testing, it also covers people, machines, and processes. It covers the entire information ecosystem.

A

A systematic assessment, otherwise known as a security audit.

252
Q

Two crucial first steps to take before performing a security audit. If these two steps are not undertaken, it creates more work and costs more down the line.

A

It is important to establish the goals for the audit and to remain within scope.

253
Q

The use of technology to protect an asset.

A

Technical control

254
Q

Regulatory requirements, an unbiased view, or meeting internal benchmarks of assets, would bring this entity in for an audit.

A

Third-party

255
Q

A blind test of the system. Similar to recreating the approach of a real attacker. Provides insight into otherwise unknown attack vectors.

A

Black box testing

256
Q

Full-knowledge test specifically targeted at known internal security controls and systems. Good for understanding the internal threat, but not the external one.

A

White box testing

257
Q

A good balance of knowns and unknowns of a tested environment. Tester does not have full scale knowledge, allowing for discovering unknown issues.

A

Gray box testing

258
Q

Written proof that a hacker can compromise a system. Permission is obtained, scope is defined, test is performed, compromised systems are reported.

A

Penetration testing.

259
Q

Provides identification of operating systems, active hosts, non-essential ports or insecure ports or system misconfigurations

A

Vulnerability scanning

260
Q

The lawful compromise of technical, physical, and administrative controls.

A

Penetration testing

261
Q

Search engine results, primary or secondary domain nameserver identification, WHOIS or IP Lookup results, and input from user machines

A

The general first step of the penetration testing process, otherwise known as “Discovery” stage (Shon Harris 7th edition, page 872).

262
Q

Spellchecking, formatting, encrypting, and then sending a report to the top level executives of an organization

A

Last step of the penetration testing process, otherwise known as “Report to Management” stage (Shon Harris 7th Edition, page 872).

263
Q

An adversary that compromises this core part of the system allows them to gain the most control

A

Kernel

264
Q

The amount of time, money, and personnel a company is willing to spend defending its network or infrastructure

A

Risk appetite

265
Q

Disruption to this UDP protocol can affect the timestamps of multiple applications, services, and processes

A

Network Time Protocol (NTP)

266
Q

This strategy for logs keeps them out of reach of attackers or at least adds an additional step before compromise

A

Storing logs on a remote device

267
Q

Technical control similar to cipher block chaining which ensures the integrity of multiple hashed messages

A

Hash chaining

268
Q

Application which correlates alerts from multiple devices and provides an overview to determine if action is required or if it’s a false positive

A

Security Incident Event Management (SIEM)

269
Q

Associated with Unified Modeling Language, this type of testing takes the inverse of a proper case testing

A

Misuse case testing

270
Q

The strongest method to prevent password guessing attacks

A

2-factor authentication

271
Q

A state of mind in which opportunities for compromise must constantly be reviewed when reviewing code

A

Defensive programming

272
Q

One of the first operating systems to implement a ring system and also inspire the term “Unix”.

A

Multics operating system

273
Q

Important account management step which eliminates the use of a legitimate account for malicious purposes

A

Suspending accounts

274
Q

Allows the ability to improve the BCP/DRP process with not just a pass/fail score, but yielding long-lasting results

A

Performing exercises, not just testing

275
Q

CPR, first aid, fire suppression, and equipment training

A

Physical security training

276
Q

Gauging the success of a user’s performance on a potential threat validates this security control

A

Training

277
Q

A customized, detailed and specifically crafted attack against an adversary

A

Social engineering

278
Q

Sending multiple TCP connection synchronization packets but never responding to the acknowledgement

A

SYN flood

279
Q

Agreement, cooperation, and adherence of this group of people will determine the success of an information security awareness program

A

Users

280
Q

Standard which provides a framework for an organization to make sure management is meeting the needs of customers and stakeholders

A

ISO 9000

281
Q

Ernst & Young, Deloitte & Touche, PricewaterhouseCoopers, and KPMG

A

Big Four companies who provide a high degree of valid audits with an unbiased nature

282
Q

Naming system to describe security vulnerabilities and referred to when issuing notices.

A

Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures (CVE)

283
Q

Type of scanning in which multiple flags are set in a packet

A

Xmas Scanning

284
Q

Ports for FTP, SSH, Telnet, SMTP, HTTP, HTTPS

A

20/21, 22, 23, 25, 80, 443

285
Q

Software used for testing and executing exploits

A

Metasploit

286
Q

Type of scan which opens a half TCP connection instead of a full open connection.

A

TCP SYN Scanning

287
Q

Scanning which goes deeper into the presence of vulnerabilities within a system instead of just discovering an open port

A

Network vulnerability scan, not a discovery scan.

288
Q

The purpose for the “sqlmap” vulnerability scanner

A

To discover database vulnerabilities

289
Q

Associate developers, senior developers or automated tools used to look for code flaws

A

Code peer review measures

290
Q

Planning, overview meeting, preparation, inspection, rework and follow-up.

A

Fagan Inspection steps

291
Q

Allows the usage of web services to use code modules to interact with each other. Usages amount in the billions worldwide.

A

Application Programming Interfaces (APIs)

292
Q

This concept is valued over knowing how to conduct vulnerability assessment and penetration testing

A

Understanding the important of vulnerability assessments and penetration testing

293
Q

Port which allows the secure and remote management of network security devices using SSH

A

22

294
Q

To be a well-rounded information security professional, the CISSP and this other type of certification goes well together

A

Technical certification. Examples include: CCNA, GIAC, or OSCP.

295
Q

Being 15 minutes late to the testing center, not agreeing to the NDA within 5 minutes, forgetting your ID

A

Reasons you may be unable to take the exam without a full refund

296
Q

Asking this question for any high or low-level topic in the CISSP CBK broadens your knowledge and seeks to gain high-level overral understanding

A

Why?

297
Q

What does Wi-fi stand for?

A

It doesn’t stand for anything. It is a marketing term.

298
Q

Type of virtual desktop infrastructure which retains the custom settings and desktop environment for a user even after logging off

A

Persistent virtual desktops

299
Q

Type of media which would require both on-site and off-site storage

A

Tape media

300
Q

Environmental, physical, and infrastructure changes force the annual test of this process

A

BCP/DRP

301
Q

Cryptography services provided by digital signatures

A

Nonrepudiation, authentication, integrity

302
Q

Cryptography service NOT provided by digital signatures

A

Confidentiality

303
Q

Method to which digital signatures provide nonrepudiation and authentication

A

When sender signs the hash with their private key

304
Q

How to provide the confidentiality of a digital signature

A

Encrypted hash and plaintext message must both be encrypted with the receiver’s public key

305
Q

How exactly does a digital signature provide nonrepudiation and authentication?

A

When the sender signs the hash with their private key, since only the sender should have their private key

306
Q

Besides nonrepudiation, digital signatures are also used for these vendor services

A

Applets, software patches, authentication of code distributions

307
Q

To digitally sign a message you must use this type of key

A

Your private key. Signing a message with your private key ensures nonrepudiation and authentication

308
Q

These are basically an official endorsement of your public key

A

Digital certificate

309
Q

Symantec, AWS, DigiCert, Verisign, Entrust, GlobalSign, IdenTrust

A

Vendors who provide digital certificates

310
Q

Process involves checking the certificate authority’s public key, as well as CRL or OCSP

A

Digital certificate verification process

311
Q

Compromise, loss of private key, erroneous issuance, change in public key details, a change in security association or sponsor

A

Reasons to revoke a digital certificate

312
Q

Ticket authentication system which provides identification and authentication for services

A

Kerberos

313
Q

Single point of failure in a Kerberos system. Is the trusted third-party for all clients and services in a realm.

A

Key Distribution Center (KDC)

314
Q

Two major components of Kerberos are provided by this entity which is hosted on the Key Distribution Center

A

Authentication Server

315
Q

Security, reliability, transparency, scalability

A

Four basic access control requirements provided by Kerberos

316
Q

The principal, the application or resource, and the Key Distribution Center

A

Components of Kerberos

317
Q

Limited lifetime of tickets, physical security of KDC, turning off non-Kerberos services

A

Security best practices for Kerberos

318
Q

Short passwords in Kerberos are susceptible to this type of attack

A

Brute-force

319
Q

Long passwords in Kerberos are susceptible to this type of system malfunction

A

Overload of system services (Longer encryption and decryption time)

320
Q

The basis and the main element which makes Kerberos possible

A

Tickets

321
Q

Entering your memorized password and checking your hard token in your possession follows these authentication factors

A

Something you know, something you have

322
Q

Process of mathematically generating a value which represents private data located somewhere else

A

Tokenization

323
Q

Local encryption keys must be marked with this in order to prevent it from being sent to another system

A

Non-exportable mark

324
Q

Values generated by a soft token should have this lifetime

A

Less than 2 minutes

325
Q

A practice of spying which could reveal a user’s soft token generated PIN number

A

Shoulder surfing

326
Q

Traditional cryptography uses complex mathematical calculations, quantum cryptography relies on this branch of science

A

Physics

327
Q

Obfuscations, tokenization, and generally altering a message from the original form to something indecipherable upholds this cryptographic service

A

Confidentiality

328
Q

A constant state of encrypting and decrypting a message until it reaches its final destination

A

Link encryption

329
Q

Controls designed to make sure strong cryptographic technology is not sent to places where it would be used maliciously

A

International Export Controls

330
Q

A complementary access control principle to dual control in which two users share knowledge of a single password or secret

A

Split Knowledge

331
Q

Technique to only allow specific hardware devices in your household access to the Wifi

A

MAC filtering

332
Q

Transportation, industry, healthcare, energy, agriculture, defense, emergency services, building utilities, power grid

A

Sectors of cyber-physical systems (CPS)

333
Q

Abstractions, modularity, diagnostics, prognostics, distributed sensing, integration of multi-physics models, autonomy, human-interaction

A

Core technologies needed to maintain the security and viability of cyber-physical systems (CPS)

334
Q

Industrial Control Systems (ICS)

A

Single standalone computers which monitor and control industrial and infrastructure systems like cyber-physical systems

335
Q

A subgroup of Industrial Control Systems widely used to control, monitor, and interconnect cyber-physical systems

A

Supervisory Control and Data Acquisition (SCADA )

336
Q

DDOS, unauthorized remote access endpoints, human error, sabotage, technical errors or accidents, unintentional outages, compromise of network hardware

A

Threats to Industrial Control Systems (ICS)

337
Q

NISTIR 7628 is a good document to read in order to familiarize yourself with understanding of how to secure this type of system.

A

Cybersecurity for the electric power infrastructure.

338
Q

Special purpose long-term use key used to protect a session key

A

Key encrypting key (KEK)

339
Q

The process of using a key encrypting key to protect a session key

A

Key wrapping

340
Q

You will most likely not have to know this formula for the exam, but it is useful to the know purpose of n (n-1)/2

A

Calculating the number of symmetric keys used for users (n is the number of users)

341
Q

A central location where private keys are held should be encrypted, signed, and MACed in order to provide these two security services

A

Integrity and confidentiality

342
Q

The period of time in which a cryptographic key can be used and even stored for decades in order to verify signatures and decryption

A

Crypto period

343
Q

Is there a policy for the governship and usage of private keys? How long will key be in long term storage? What is the exposure risk to the data if the key is compromised?

A

Questions to ask when archiving crypto keys

344
Q

Key derivation process, the threat factor, open office vs public terminal, data encryption, key production, key protection guidelines, number of copies of a key

A

Factors affecting risk exposure to crypto keys

345
Q

Official terms used to describe a message of mixed length to go through a hash and have the output a standard length

A

Variable-length input, fixed-length output (relate this to hashing algorithms like MD5 or SHA)

346
Q

Studying the amount of power a device may emit in order to use it in a passive attack to discover the secret key of a cryptographic algorithm

A

Side-channel attack

347
Q

Diffie-Hellman uses public/private keys but not for the encryption of the message. The main function is for another crypto service

A

Secure key exchange

348
Q

Type of cryptographic attack which works best against a substitution cipher with known plaintext language statistics

A

Frequency analysis

349
Q

If I created a file, and I trusted you with it, and only you with it

A

Non-transitive trust

350
Q

If I created a file,I trust you with the file, and your friend with the file

A

Transitive trust