CISSP Notes 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Packers

A

Provide runtime compression of executables. The original .exe is compressed, and a small executable decompresser is prepended to the .exe. Upon execution the decompresser unpacks the compressed executable machine code and runs it.

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2
Q

compartmented security mode

A

A system is operating in ________ when all users have clearance to access all the information processed by the system in a system high-security configuration, but might not have the need-to-know and formal access approval.

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3
Q

Sutherland Model

A

A model that is based on the idea of defining a set of system states, initial states, and state transitions. Through the user of only these predetermined secure states, integrity is maintained and interference is prohibited.

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4
Q

Hardware Segmentation

A

Physically mapping software to individual memory segments.

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5
Q

System-High Security Model

A

A system is operating _____ when all users have a security clearance to access the information but not necessarily a need-to-know for all the information processed on the system.

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6
Q

Garbage Collector

A

Tool that marks unused memory segments as usable to ensure that an operating system does not run out of memory.

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7
Q

Trusted Paths

A

For the TCB to communicate with the rest of the system, it must create secure channels, also called _____

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8
Q

System State

A

A snapshot of a system at a specific moment in time.

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9
Q

Absolute Address

A

Hardware addresses used by CPU.

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10
Q

Sandbox

A

Designed to prevent an attacker who is able to compromise a java applet from accessing system files, such as the password file.

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11
Q

Accreditation

A

Is the formal declaration by the designated approving authority that an IT system is approved to operate in a particular security mode using a prescribed set of safeguards at an acceptable level of risk

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12
Q

Transformation Procedures (TP)

A

______ are the only procedures that are allowed to modify a constrained data item (CDI)

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13
Q

ActiveX

A

Are the functional equivalents of Java applets. They use digital certificates instead of a sandbox to provide security. They are tied more closely to the operating system, allowing functionality such as installing patches via Windows Update.

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14
Q

ITSEC

A

European standard used to assess the effectiveness of the security controls built into a system.

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15
Q

Read-Only Memory (ROM)

A

Nonvolatile memory that is used on motherboards for BIOS functionality and various device controllers to allow for operating system-to-device communication. Sometimes used for off-loading graphic rendering or cryptographic functionality.

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16
Q

System security capabilities

A

The _____ of information systems include memory protection, virtualization, Trusted Platform Module, interfaces and fault tolerance.

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17
Q

Cache

A

Fast and expensive memory type that is used by a CPU to increase read and write operations.

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18
Q

Clark-Wilson Model

A

A security model that uses multifaceted approach to enforcing data integrity. Instead of defining a formal state machine, this model defines each data item and allows modifications through only small set of programs.

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19
Q

Security Kernel

A

The collection of components in the TCB that work together to implement reference monitor functions.

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20
Q

Logical Addressing

A

Indirect addressing used by processes within an operating system. The memory manager carries out logical-to-absolute address mapping.

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21
Q

Emanation

A

_____ is energy that escapes an electronic system, which may be remotely monitored under certain circumstances.

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22
Q

Goguen-Meseguer Model

A

The ____ model is based on predetermining the set or domain - a list of objects that a subject can access. This model is based on automation theory and domain separation.

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23
Q

Assurance evaluation criteria

A

The comprehensive evaluation of the technical and nontechnical security features of an IT system and other safeguards.

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24
Q

TCSEC

A

U.S. DoD standard used to assess the effectiveness of the security controls built into a system. Replaced by the Common Criteria.

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25
Q

Stack

A

Memory construct that is made up of individually addressable buffers. Process-to-process communication takes place through the use of them.

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26
Q

Process Isolation

A

Is used to prevent an active process from interacting within an area of memory that was not specifically assigned or allocated to it.

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27
Q

Virtual Memory

A

Combination of main memory (RAM) and secondary memory within an operating system.

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28
Q

Covert channel

A

________ is a way for an entity to receive information in an unauthorized manner. It’s also an information flow that is not controlled by a security mechanism.

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29
Q

Maintenance Hooks

A

They are instructions within software that only the developer knows about and can invoke, and which give the developer easy access to the code.

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30
Q

Fault Tolerance

A

The ability of a system to suffer a fault but continue to operate. This is achieved by adding redundant components such as additional disks within a RAID.

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31
Q

Time of Check/Time of Use

A

A type of attack which takes advantage of the dependency on the timing of events that take place in a multitasking operating system.

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32
Q

Limit Register

A

Ending of address space assigned to a process. Used to ensure a process does not make a request outside its assigned memory boundaries.

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33
Q

Lattice Model

A

A structure consisting of a finite partially ordered set together with least upper and greatest lower bound operators on the set.

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34
Q

Race Condition

A

______ happens when two different processes need to carry out their tasks on one resource.

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35
Q

Pipelining

A

______ combines multiple steps into one combined process, allowing simultaneous fetch, decode, execute, and write steps for different instructions.

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36
Q

Watchdog timers

A

_______ is designed to recover a system by rebooting after critical processes hang or crash. It reboots the system when it reaches zero; critical operating system processes continually reset the timer, so it never reaches zero as long as they are running.

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37
Q

Dedicated Mode

A

A system is operating in a ______ if all users have a clearance for, and a formal need-to-know about, all data processed within the system.

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38
Q

API

A

Software interface that enables process-to-process interaction. Common way to provide access to standard routines to a set of software programs.

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39
Q

Hardware separation

A

Is a form of CPU hardware layering that separates and protects domains (such as kernel mode and user mode) from each other.

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40
Q

Microkernel Architecture

A

Reduced amount of code running in kernel mode carrying out critical operating system functionality. Only the absolutely necessary code runs in kernel mode, and the remaining operating system code runs in user mode.

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41
Q

RAM

A

Memory sticks that are plugged into a computer’s motherboard and work as volatile memory space for an operating system.

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42
Q

Security Policy

A

Strategic tool used to dictate how sensitive information and resources are to be managed and protected.

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43
Q

Hypervisor

A

Central program used to manage virtual machines (guests) within a simulated environment (host).

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44
Q

P2P

A

Alternative to the classic client/server computer model. Any system may act as a client, a server, or both, depending on data needs.

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45
Q

Thin clients

A

Normally run on a system with a full operating system, but use a Web browser as a universal client, providing access to robust applications which are downloaded from the server and run in the client’s browser.

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46
Q

IoT

A

______ refers to small internet connected devices, such as baby monitors, thermostats, case registers, appliances, light bulbs, smart meters, fitness monitors, cars, etc.

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47
Q

ASLR

A

Memory protection mechanism used by some operating systems. The addresses used by components of a process are randomized so that it is harder for an attacker to exploit specific memory vulnerabilities.

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48
Q

Applets

A

_____ are small pieces of mobile code that are embedded in other software such as web browsers.

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49
Q

Java

A

_______ is an object-oriented language used not only to write applets, but also as a general purpose programming language. Java bytecode is platform-independent.

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50
Q

Diskless workstations

A

______ contains CPU, memory, and firmware, but no hard drive. It includes PCs, routers, embedded devices, and others. The kernel and operating system are typically loaded via the network.

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51
Q

Are launched directly from an attacker (the client) to a listening service. The Conficker worm of 2008+ spread via a number of methods, including this method on TCP port 445 - exploiting a weakness in the RPC service.

A

Server-side attack

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52
Q

Systematic whittling at assets in accounts or other records with financial value, where very small amounts are deducted from balances regularly and routinely.

A

Salami attack

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53
Q

An attacker gains access to a system and makes small random or incremental changes to data during storage, processing, I/O, instead of obviously altering the file.

A

Data Diddling

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54
Q

Malicious variations of official BIOS or firmware is installed that allows remote controlled access or other malicious actions.

A

Phlashing attack

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55
Q

Holds different condition bits. One of the bits states whether the CPU should be working in user mode or Kernel mode.

A

Program Status Word (PSW)

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56
Q

Single-purpose digital computer deployed for the management and automation of various industrial electro-mechanical operations

A

Programmable Logic Controller (PLC)

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57
Q

Static file on TCP/IP supporting systems that contains hard-coded references for domain names and their associated IP addresses.

A

HOSTS file

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58
Q

Often contains historical information not normally stored in productions DBs because of storage limitation and data security concerns

A

Data Warehouses

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59
Q

Software that runs an algorithm to identify unused committed memory and then tells the OS to mark the memory as available.

A

Garbage Collectors

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60
Q

Designed to do limited sets of specific functions, and it may consist of the same components of typical computer systems; or it could be a micro-controller (integrated chip with on-board memory and peripheral ports)

A

Embedded Systems

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61
Q

Minimal human interfaces, can be stand-alone; other similarly systems-integrated or traditional IT system integrated; mechanical buttons and knobs or simple LCD screen interfaces

A

SCADA

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62
Q

A technology that allows the electronic emanations that every monitor produces (Van Eck radiations) to be read from a distance.

A

TEMPEST

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63
Q

The science of raw data examination with the focus of extracting useful information out of the bill information set.

A

Data Analytic

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64
Q

Refer to devices that offer a computational means to control something in the physical world.

A

Cyber-physical systems

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65
Q

The user of an object (or OS component) doesn’t necessarily need to know the details of how the object works

A

Abstraction

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66
Q

A form of parallel distributed processing that loosely groups a significant number of processing nodes to work toward a specific processing goal

A

Grid Computing

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67
Q

Typically found in industrial process plans where the need to gather data and implement control over a large-scale environment from a single location is essential.

A

Distributed Control Systems

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68
Q

A set of functions that applications can call upon to carry out different types of procedures

A

Dynamic-Link Libraries

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69
Q

Holds information such as the program counter, stack pointer and PSW

A

Special Registers

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70
Q

Used to hold variables and temp results as the ALU works through its execution process

A

General Registers

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71
Q

Can cause the client to download contents and store it in the cache that was not the intended element of a requested webpage

A

Split-Response Attack

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72
Q

A technique to look for duplication of efforts, manual steps which can be automated, and other streamlined techniques to reduce time and effort in business processes

A

Process Enhancement

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73
Q

Document a new employee should sign upon employment which outlines rules, restrictions, acceptable use policies, job description, violations, consequences and length of employment.

A

Employment agreement

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74
Q

A document which needs to be signed by an employee in order to protect the organization’s confidential information or business practices.

A

Nondisclosure agreement

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75
Q

A document which needs to be signed by an employee in order to protect trade secrets or knowledge which distinguishes the company from the competition. It may even prevent the employee from working for a competitive company for a certain period of time.

A

Noncompete agreement

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76
Q

This process is essential to making sure a terminated employee is handled in a private, respectful, and careful manner as to make sure precautions are taken.

A

Employment Termination Process

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77
Q

Document containing vendor, consultant, or contractor controls used to define the expected performance, compensation, scope, and consequences of a missed agreement.

A

Service Level Agreement

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78
Q

The act of following the necessary laws, rules, policies, requirements, standards, or regulations.

A

Compliance

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79
Q

The freedom from being observed, leaked, monitored or experience unauthorized access to your data.

A

Privacy

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80
Q

Private information which can be traced back to the original person

A

Personally Identifiable Information

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81
Q

A system in which governance can be mandated by a third party law, regulation, standard, license, obligation or requirement.

A

Third-party governance

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82
Q

The process of reading through and verifying standards and requirements between exchanged documentation.

A

Documentation review

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83
Q

This loss can occur when failing to meet the required documentation requirements of third-party governance; specifically in the military or government.

A

Authorization to Operate

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84
Q

The process of examining the environment for risk and scoring the likelihood of it happening

A

Risk analysis

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85
Q

The direct target of a threat

A

Asset

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86
Q

The dollar value attached to an asset

A

Asset Valuation

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87
Q

Can be caused by the absence of a safeguard

A

Vulnerability

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88
Q

The percentage that a threat will be realized

A

Exposure factor

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89
Q

The calculation of a risk

A

Threat x vulnerability

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90
Q

The step taken to protect an asset

A

Safeguard or counter-measure

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91
Q

When a safeguard or counter-measure has failed and an exploit has been successful by the threat agent

A

Breach

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92
Q

Network topology that uses a single unilateral cable

A

Ring Topology

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93
Q

Network topology in which all points connect to one another

A

Mesh Topology

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94
Q

Fourth layer of the OSI Model

A

Transport

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95
Q

Fourth layer of the TCP/IP Model

A

Application

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96
Q

The #1 most important concept in all of the CISSP

A

Human life comes first

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97
Q

The place where security should begin in any SDLC

A

First phase/stage

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98
Q

The battleground where information and communication technology is used and utilized as a competitive factor over an enemy

A

Information warfare

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99
Q

Calculations made with numbers, graphs, historical numbers and research

A

Quantitative Analysis

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100
Q

Calculations based on feelings and instinct

A

Qualitative Analysis

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101
Q

SSL belongs in this layer of the OSI Model

A

TransportLayer

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102
Q

TCP belongs in this layer of the OSI Model

A

TransportLayer

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103
Q

Protocol data unit at the transport layer

A

Segments

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104
Q

Protocol data unit at the network layer

A

packets

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105
Q

Protocol data unit at the data link layer

A

frames

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106
Q

SMTP, HTTP, DNS belong in this layer of the OSI Model

A

ApplicationLayer

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107
Q

This layer of the OSI Model is not concerned with the data, but the format of the data

A

Presentation Layer

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108
Q

This layer of the OSI Model is responsible for establishing the connection between applications

A

Session Layer

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109
Q

Communication that takes place unidirectionally, in one direction

A

Simplex

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110
Q

This layer of the OSI Model is responsible for establishing the connections between endpoints, between the actual physical computers, not the applications

A

Transport Layer

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111
Q

Mode in which two applications can communicate with each other and send messages at the same time

A

Full-duplex

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112
Q

MAC addresses belong in which layer of the OSI Model?

A

Data Link Layer

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113
Q

Voltage, bits, UTP, NIC cards are all on which layer of the OSI Model?

A

Physical Layer

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114
Q

Connection-oriented protocol

A

TCP

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115
Q

Enables private IP addresses to be routed through the Internet

A

Network Address Translation

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116
Q

Allows fiber channel protocol encapsulation over Ethernet networks

A

Fiber Channel Over Ethernet

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117
Q

Layer 2 protocol which allows private IP addresses over a dedicated link, acting like a VPN

A

MPLS (Multiprotocol Label Switching)

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118
Q

Transmission in which the entire communication channel is utilized

A

Baseband

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119
Q

Transmission in which communications channels can be divided up into different types of subchannels for different types of data

A

Broadband

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120
Q

Has a copper core surrounded by a layer of shielding and grounded. It is further protected by an outer jacket. It is somewhat resistant to EMI.

A

Coaxial cable

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121
Q

Protocol that does not guarantee delivery

A

UDP

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122
Q

Components of a TCP handshake

A

SYN, SYN/ACK, ACK

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123
Q

192.168.1.12 is what type of IP address?

A

Private (RFC 1918)

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124
Q

10.0.0.2 is what type of IP address?

A

Private (RFC 1918)

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125
Q

127.0.0.1 is what type of IP address?

A

Loopback

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126
Q

Will you have to calculate subnets for the CISSP exam?

A

No.

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127
Q

Allows bigger networks to become smaller, more segmented and manageable networks.

A

Subnetting/CIDR

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128
Q

Does not require network address translation as it has its own configuration administration.

A

IPv6

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129
Q

Cabling with high transmission speeds, not susceptible to EMI, and can go for extended distances.

A

Fiber-optic cable

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130
Q

Contains large glass cores, can carry more data than single mode in fiber optic cables.

A

Multimode

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131
Q

This kind of cabling interference can be caused by other wires, microwaves, motors, computers, or other types of electronics.

A

Noise

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132
Q

The weakening and eventual loss of a signal.

A

Attenuation

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133
Q

802.3

A

Ethernet

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134
Q

When you hear conversations on your electronic device from another electronic device

A

Crosstalk

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135
Q

The most common network topology

A

Star Topology

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136
Q

CSMA/CA

A

Carrier sense multiple access with collision avoidance

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137
Q

Computers which all receive a Layer 2 broadcast frame are all in this type of domain.

A

Broadcast.

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138
Q

FDDI

A

Fiber Distributed Data Interface

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139
Q

Protocol which assigns IP addresses.

A

DHCP

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140
Q

Protocol used by ping

A

ICMP

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141
Q

Protocol for Internet mail servers which can send and receive email

A

Post Office Protocol

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142
Q

Protocol that does not download messages from an email server and erase them

A

IMAP

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143
Q

192.168.255.22 is an example of a Class _____ network

A

C

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144
Q

172.16.0.66 is an example of a Class _____ network

A

B

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145
Q

10.255.255.255 is an example of a Class ____ network

A

A

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146
Q

If someone said they were having IP connectivity issues, which layer of the OSI Model would you look at first?

A

Network Layer

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147
Q

Type of firewall that has the ability to look at the entire packet, not just the source and destination address and associated ports

A

Application-Level Proxy Firewalls

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148
Q

These types of firewalls remember the state of a connection, and has become the de facto standard. It was first created by Checkpoint.

A

Stateful

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149
Q

IDS is a technical _____________ control

A

Detective

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150
Q

A firewall with two interfaces is said to be __________

A

dual-homed

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151
Q

A type of proxy that does not have the ability to perform deep packet inspection, and operates at the session layer

A

Circuit-level proxy

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152
Q

Firewalls that can examine the relationship between previous and current network packets are known as _______ filtering firewalls

A

Stateful

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153
Q

Firewalls that can only examine the source, destination, and port are known as _______ filtering firewalls

A

packet

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154
Q

Firewalls which have two interfaces

A

Dual-homed firewalls

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155
Q

A server or a firewall designed to receive inbound network attacks

A

bastion host

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156
Q

A storage area network combined with backup tapes would provide a high degree of ______

A

availability/redundancy

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157
Q

Provides integrity through well-formed transactions

A

Clark-Wilson Model

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158
Q

CPTED

A

Crime Prevention Through Environmental Design

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159
Q

This algorithm uses less computing power and offers more security

A

Elliptical Curve Cryptography

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160
Q

The most common type of intrusion detection system

A

Signature-based

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161
Q

An architecture in which multiple segmented networks are separated by two or more firewalls

A

Three-tier deployment

162
Q

The concept of providing security to a local device, to a local host whether it is connected to the network or not

A

Endpoint security

163
Q

A remote encrypted connection for users connecting to the corporate headquarters externally

A

Virtual Private Network

164
Q

When two transmissions collide on a transmission medium meant for one connection

A

Collision

165
Q

An environment which communicates only using MAC addresses (Layer 2 of the OSI Model)

A

Broadcast domain

166
Q

A device in the middle of the same broadcast domain which repeats traffic from multiple systems

A

Hub

167
Q

PSTN

A

Public switched telephone network

168
Q

Also known as a store and forward device

A

Bridge

169
Q

An intelligent hub

A

Switch

170
Q

A device that connects two different networks together

A

Router

171
Q

A type of firewall which receives traffic only from the router in front of it, and then sends the packets to the internal host(s)

A

Screened host

172
Q

An intangible firewall

A

Virtual firewall

173
Q

Firewall company the created the stateful filtering firewall

A

Checkpoint

174
Q

Firewall company that boasts a single-pass architecture and named after a city in California

A

Palo Alto

175
Q

A type of proxy firewall that can look into the sequence numbers of a TCP packet

A

Application-level proxy

176
Q

Total number of connections created by a proxy when a host tries to connect to a web server

A

4 connections. One from the host to the proxy, one from the proxy to the web server, one from the web server to the proxy, and one from the proxy to the host

177
Q

A type of attack which creates Instability caused by malformed fragments

A

Teardrop attack

178
Q

The first and implicit rule for a firewall

A

Implicit deny rule

179
Q

Type of rules you create and put on a firewall, and not ones that are already built into the firewall

A

Explicit rules

180
Q

A firewall rule that logs and drops traffic and is usually at the bottom of the rule base

A

Cleanup rule

181
Q

Allowing excessive half-connected TCP sessions to overflow the NIC buffer can cause this attack on availability

A

Denial of service

182
Q

Sharing your private key with someone else can destroy ___________

A

Confidentiality

183
Q

A firewall rule that drops any connections directed only at the firewall

A

Stealth rule

184
Q

A computer used to study the techniques, attack styles, and tactics of attackers utilizing various exploits

A

Honeypot

185
Q

A device capable of providing multiple security services such as threat prevention, VPNs, stateful filtering, IDS/IPS, or DLP

A

UTM (Unified Threat Management)

186
Q

If in a company there is a single point of failure, then there needs to be ________

A

redundancy / high availability / fault-tolerance

187
Q

Max speed of 1000Base-T

A

1 Gbps

188
Q

Type of cable which has zero susceptibility to EMI

A

Fiber-optic

189
Q

Type of cable that has a PVC shielding around four pairs of wires twisted around each other

A

Twisted-Pair

190
Q

Most common type of unshielded twisted-pair cable

A

CAT 5

191
Q

Degradation of a signal

A

Attenuation

192
Q

A standard best practice rule when designing and allocating network repeaters, concentrators and segments

A

5-4-3 Rule

193
Q

Lines which are dedicated to carry voice and data over trunk lines

A

T-carriers

194
Q

CSU/DSU

A

Channel service unit/data service unit

195
Q

A type of switching which sets up a dedicated virtual link between two systems. May experience fixed delays and travels in a constant and predictable manner.

A

Circuit switching

196
Q

A type of switching that sets up a connection which can pass through several links on the way to the destination. Consists of variable delays.

A

Packet switching

197
Q

VoIP

A

Voice over Internet Protocol

198
Q

A dedicated WAN link technology which is obsolete now, but should be known for the CISSP exam.

A

Frame Relay

199
Q

QOS

A

Quality of service. It is a way to make some data processes faster than others. For example, voice data needs to be faster and higher priority for meetings and conferences.

200
Q

A weakness of PAP (Password Authentication Protocol)

A

Cleartext passwords

201
Q

Three components of the first phase of the BCP/DRP

A

Policy, scope, implementation

202
Q

BIA

A

Business Impact Analysis

203
Q

A site which will meet the requirement of an MTD of 1-2 hours

A

Hot site

204
Q

A cloud service where the tenant is responsible for software, hardware, upgrades, licenses, and their own security except for the actual physical security

A

Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)

205
Q

A type of cloud service which provides an operating system such as Windows Server 2003

A

Platform as a Service

206
Q

An employee drug test is this type of control

A

Administrative preventative

207
Q

A governance and management framework created by ISACA

A

Control Objectives for Information and related Technology (COBIT)

208
Q

Designed to improve an organization’s process and the posture of their security program

A

Capability Maturity Model Integration

209
Q

Computer crime laws are also known as this

A

Cyberlaw

210
Q

When an actual computer was used to carry out a crime

A

Computer-assisted crime

211
Q

Logs which record events such as reboots and stopped/started services.

A

System logs

212
Q

Logs which record ingress and egress network traffic along with source/destination IP address and source/destination port numbers.

A

Firewall logs

213
Q

Logs which can record how long a user has been on a specific website, and when a user has gone to an unauthorized website

A

Proxy logs

214
Q

Logs which contain when changes have been made to a firewall, who approved it, and who implemented it

A

Change logs

215
Q

The amount of time data is backed up, stored or preserved from destruction

A

Retention period

216
Q

Tool used to discover open ports on a system either locally or remotely

A

Nmap

217
Q

Two web server ports

A

80/443

218
Q

A SYN packet receives a _________ back

A

SYN/ACK

219
Q

Tool used to easily launch DDOS in MSSQL attacks

A

Metasploit

220
Q

Sets the archive bit to 1 for a file which has changed for backup

A

Incremental backups

221
Q

Leftover risk after implemented controls

A

Residual risk

222
Q

The probability of a threat using an exploit to expose a vulnerability

A

Risk

223
Q

Document which makes sure that the project or plan about to be implemented doesn’t involve things that waste our time and resources

A

Scope

224
Q

The process of identifying the business functions of an organization and prioritizing them from most important, to least important.

A

Business Impact Analysis

225
Q

The group who plans the BCP/DRP

A

BCP Committee

226
Q

Using instinct, experience, and wisdom to calculate risk

A

Qualitative analysis

227
Q

Using numbers, calculations, and math to calculate risk

A

Quantitative analysis

228
Q

Point of time before a disaster from which data needs to be recovered.

A

Recovery Point Objective

229
Q

Recovery of services from initial disaster to recovery, but still within the Maximum Tolerable Downtime.

A

Recovery Time Objective

230
Q

Critical business resources support critical business ________

A

Functions

231
Q

A backup site to a backup site

A

Tertiary site

232
Q

Infrequent backups sent to an offsite facility

A

Electronic Vaulting

233
Q

Has a faster data recovery time than electronic vaulting

A

Remote Journaling

234
Q

Data is being backed up at the same time it is being received

A

Remote Mirroring

235
Q

A duplicate site with the same content, but not the same web address

A

Mirror Site

236
Q

Files which are backed up since the last full backup, and the archive bit may not be set back to zero

A

Differential backup

237
Q

Definition of when immediate operations are back after a disaster

A

Recovery

238
Q

Definition of when all organizational functions are back after a disaster

A

Restoration

239
Q

Occurs before a disaster

A

Testing

240
Q

Occurs after a disaster

A

Implementation

241
Q

Someone or something which has identified a vulnerability, and will proceed to exploit it

A

Threat

242
Q

An specific entity which takes advantage of a vulnerability

A

Threat agent

243
Q

A risky BCP/DRP test which requires a business impacting halt to production

A

Full-interruption test

244
Q

A disaster which is recreated at an alternate site

A

Parallel test

245
Q

Testing which involves a round table discussion

A

Structured-walkthrough

246
Q

The level of importance for knowing BCP/DRP for the CISSP exam

A

High

247
Q

IPSec provides confidentiality through _______

A

Encryption

248
Q

IPSec secures data in _______

A

Motion

249
Q

One of the least favorite yet critical task for an information security professional

A

Updating documentation

250
Q

The collection of all software, hardware, firmware within a system which work in conjunction to provide and enforce the overall security policy

A

Trusted Computing Base

251
Q

Penetration testing will look for vulnerabilities and also do this

A

Exploit them

252
Q

A great framework to keep your organization’s information security management in line with best practices. It is optional, not obligatory.

A

ISO 27001

253
Q

The results of a penetration test should be sent to this group.

A

Senior management

254
Q

There’s only one way to send the findings of a penetration test.

A

Securely

255
Q

The difference between hacking and penetration testing

A

Permission

256
Q

The next thing to implement after issuing organization policies

A

Controls

257
Q

These require constant tests and reviews

A

Policies and BCP/DRP

258
Q

New CAT exam questions may include these terms

A

MOST, LEAST, BEST

259
Q

Two high-level terms to think about constantly during the exam

A

Risk and cost

260
Q

COBIT deals with which concept of the CIA Triad

A

Integrity

261
Q

IAAA

A

Identification, Authorization, Authentication, Accountability

262
Q

What each must bring to the table, otherwise the secret does not open, reveal, or unlock

A

Split-knowledge

263
Q

Everything requires management understanding, support, initiation, and _______

A

approval

264
Q

Anti-virus is a type of ________ security

A

endpoint

265
Q

Backups can provide both availability and _______

A

integrity

266
Q

Man in the middle attacks compromise both confidentiality and _________

A

integrity

267
Q

Virtual private networking technology that allows private data and IP addresses over an insecure medium

A

IPSec

268
Q

The most important component of BCP/DRP

A

Documentation

269
Q

Web encryption techniques

A

SSL/TLS/VPN

270
Q

Defining organization security policies upholds these three concepts

A

Confidentiality, integrity, and availability

271
Q

To meet standards and compliance an organization needs _____

A

audits

272
Q

Outdated software, lack of updates, no patching, misconfigurations all present ________

A

risk

273
Q

OSPF and BGP routing protocols can uphold the concept of _______

A

availability

274
Q

Billions of devices part of a group which can come with default credentials and difficult to patch. Can be used for DDOS

A

Internet of Things

275
Q

Shutting down a computer, releasing all volatile memory, and starting it up again

A

Cold boot

276
Q

In order to prove authenticity of a website on the Internet we use _______

A

SSL certificates

277
Q

An organization can use its own internal certificate for internal vendors or users who are part of a ________ identity

A

federated

278
Q

Security always starts off with _______

A

policy

279
Q

In order to have BCP/DRP in an organization, senior management must be first convinced it would cost _______ to not have one. That is the key.

A

more

280
Q

A CISO must perform __________ in order to verify and check the effects of controls, BCP/DRP, and other pending policies for approval.

A

due diligence

281
Q

Directive, deterrent, preventative, corrective, recovery, and ________ controls

A

compensating

282
Q

A proper change management process should include the necessary procedures in case a change needs to be ______ back

A

rolled

283
Q

Recommended controls should be testable, provide accountability, consistent (integrity), overrides for privileged operators (confidentiality) and measures to be fail-safe (________)

A

availability

284
Q

An organization’s business goals should come ____ and security should come ______.

A

first/second

285
Q

Ultimately responsible for the confidentiality of classified data

A

Data owner

286
Q

Implements the protections and controls for the system and the data. Receives instructions from the data owner.

A

Data custodian

287
Q

Takes into account critical business functions and provides corrective or recovery measures to minimize disruption

A

Business Continuity Planning

288
Q

Management tool which can help identify cost and the effectiveness of implemented controls

A

Metrics

289
Q

Policies are this type of strategy

A

Directive

290
Q

Objects = labels, Subjects = _______

A

clearances

291
Q

Bugs and vulnerabilities found in the original version of software which has not been updated yet due to it not being sold yet.

A

Shrink Wrap Attack

292
Q

Holds all the credentials for users utilizing SAML, and can be a single point of failure.

A

IDP - Identity Provider

293
Q

Can disrupt communications over the wire and even mask or scramble an attack

A

Crosstalk

294
Q

A primary concern in implementing biometrics is user ________

A

acceptance

295
Q

An attack with the same source and destination IP addresses

A

Land Attack

296
Q

The primary result of a Land Attack is a _____-

A

denial of service

297
Q

Unplugging the power cable to a server is a form of ________

A

denial of service

298
Q

Network security device which can hide the identity of internal network clients

A

Proxy

299
Q

Networking technique which can hide the identity of internal network clients

A

Network Address Translation

300
Q

Injection using

A

Cross-site scripting

301
Q

Instead of mathematics, quantum cryptography uses _______ for key exchange

A

photons

302
Q

When two entities come together with their own partial secret to open a master secret, it is known as _________

A

split-knowledge

303
Q

Encryption turns plaintext secrets into ______

A

ciphertext

304
Q

Batman uses _______ bit encryption for his communications with the Batcave, allies, and vehicle communication

A

4096

305
Q

Technique which rearranges the plaintext message

A

transposition

306
Q

Security guards and dogs are this type of control

A

Physical deterrent (and can also be the most expensive control i.e. salaries, dog training, and dog treats :) )

307
Q

Physical limitation of the Internet of Things devices

A

Lack of CPU or RAM power to provide encryption calculations

308
Q

The 10.x private IP range

A

10.0.0.0 to 10.255.255.255.255

309
Q

Sender cannot deny sending the message

A

Nonrepudiation

310
Q

QKD

A

Quantum Key Distribution

311
Q

Hashing and encryption are a part of ________

A

cryptography

312
Q

variable length message converted to fixed length message

A

hashing

313
Q

The Caesar Cipher used this block cipher technique

A

Substitution

314
Q

Type of memory that temporarily holds data

A

RAM

315
Q

Type of memory that can permanently store data

A

ROM

316
Q

Creating a preset scenario and environment in which a victim has an increased chance of handing over confidential information

A

Pretexting Attack (ISC2 Fourth Edition book)

317
Q

CDs and USB flash drives are left at a location to conduct this type of attack

A

Baiting Attack

318
Q

Three types of cloud solutions

A

IaaS, PaaS, SaaS

319
Q

Provides bare metal or the very basic infrastructure resources to a cloud tenant

A

Infrastructure as a Service

320
Q

A security professional may need to perform inspection, review and assessment to confirm ______

A

assurance

321
Q

The most important question to ask when studying for the CISSP exam and while taking the exam itself

A

Why?

322
Q

Rests on the belief of these three concepts: technology, analysis, mythology

A

Big Data

323
Q

The sharing of computing resources across a network in which multiple machines function as one large computer

A

Grid computing

324
Q

The ability for cloud tenants to spin up new virtual machines if their organization is increasing in size, or shut down previous virtual machines if their organization is decreasing their infrastructure.

A

Elasticity

325
Q

Type of cloud in which a tenant is confident they are not sharing a pool of resources with other tenants

A

Private cloud

326
Q

Risky issue when different encryption keys used to encrypt plaintext also produces the same ciphertext. This is not good.

A

Key clustering

327
Q

Type of cloud most used by military or governments

A

Private cloud

328
Q

When different hashed plaintext produces the same ciphertext

A

Collision

329
Q

Venom Snake discovered his true identity from an ______________ cassette tape

A

encoded

330
Q

Substitution exchanges characters, while transposition ______ letters

A

scrambles

331
Q

The amount of time and effort it takes to crack an encryption key. The time and effort to decide if it’s worth it or not.

A

Work factor

332
Q

Another term for ciphertext

A

Cryptogram

333
Q

CBC depends on each previous block for encryption. But what does it do to encrypt the very first block?

A

Initialization Vector

334
Q

Bit-by-bit encryption

A

Stream cipher (RC4, WEP)

335
Q

Block-by-block encryption

A

Block cipher

336
Q

Variable-length message turned into a fixed-length message

A

Hashing

337
Q

Variable-length message turned into another variable-length message

A

Encryption

338
Q

Was the Caesar cipher mono or poly alphabetic?

A

Mono (It was just 1 alphabet)

339
Q

The Vernam cipher is used for this unbreakable style of encryption

A

One-Time Pad

340
Q

Symmetric ciphers can use ___________ key distribution

A

out of band

341
Q

This block cipher mode requires an initialization vector because of its chaining process

A

Cipher Block Chaining

342
Q

This symmetric algorithm was broken using a known-plaintext attack, the simplest of cryptographic attacks.

A

DES

343
Q

Ron Rivest, Adi Shamir, Len Adleman

A

RSA

344
Q

Has the highest strength key length of all the asymmetric encryption algorithms

A

Elliptic Curve Cryprography (ECC)

345
Q

Allows the exchange of assertions between identity management systems between federated identity web environments

A

Security Assertion Markup Language (SAML)

346
Q

These are more commonly hashed and salted on a system and not encrypted, lacking decryption keys

A

Password files

347
Q

This is used to prevent a user from changing a message and state the altered message came from the sender

A

Digital signatures

348
Q

When data packets are decrypted and re-encrypted at each node along a communications channel

A

Link encryption

349
Q

The architecture of a system which distributes public certificates, verifies public keys are tied to a certain organization, and verify the public keys

A

Public Key Infrastructure (PKI)

350
Q

Requires actual collusion to complete the process

A

Dual Control

351
Q

Approves data release or disclosure

A

Data owner

352
Q

Regulation, data mapping, data classification

A

Data retention policies in the cloud

353
Q

The first step of the cyber kill chain

A

Reconnaissance

354
Q

Eavesdropping without affecting the communications medium, system, or protocol

A

Passive attack

355
Q

Message alteration, system file modification, masquerading

A

Active attacks

356
Q

Responsible for implementing RAID to maintain the data

A

Data custodian

357
Q

Scope, classification, assurance, marking and labeling

A

Data classification requirements

358
Q

DEP, ASLR, ACL

A

Memory Protection

359
Q

Fence jumping, badge cloning, lock bypass, lockpicking, dumpster diving

A

Physical security facility attacks

360
Q

The last stage of the penetration testing process

A

Reporting

361
Q

Backup method which ensures no single point of failure with parity written to all drives

A

RAID5

362
Q

Not a cost-efficient backup method involving RAID mirroring

A

RAID1

363
Q

Detailed actions for personnel to follow

A

Procedures

364
Q

A commonality or pattern within an organization

A

Standards

365
Q

Mark Zuckerberg testifying in front of Congress

A

Senior management is ultimately responsible

366
Q

Proving a system does what it is supposed to do

A

Certification

367
Q

Making sure a system provides high-level testing, inspection, analysis and reviews.

A

Assurance

368
Q

The formal approval to introduce a system into an organization

A

Accreditation

369
Q

Responsible for the security elements within an enterprise which work to uphold business processes

A

The security professional

370
Q

Develops disaster recovery plans which could impact the organization

A

Business Continuity Planner

371
Q

Not collecting any private information in the first place

A

Rejecting the risk

372
Q

Not installing your Windows Updates even though you know you should

A

Accepting the risk

373
Q

The only time it might be a good idea to share your password with someone else

A

Under investigation by law enforcement

374
Q

Code which requires a trigger to be executed

A

Logic bomb

375
Q

The weakest component of an organization

A

People

376
Q

Everything in an organization begins with this

A

Policy

377
Q

Type of cloud where resources are shared with other tenants

A

Public cloud

378
Q

Company that sells books and cloud computing space

A

Amazon

379
Q

Currently the best way to detect man in the middle attacks

A

Quantum cryptography

380
Q

Fourth canon of the CISSP Code of Ethics

A

Advance and protect the profession

381
Q

Bringing in a crime scene investigator is this type of control

A

Physical detective

382
Q

Exit interviews are this type of control

A

Administrative detective

383
Q

Firewalls are this type of control

A

Technical preventative

384
Q

Tenant takes full responsbility in this type of cloud service model

A

Infrastructure as a Service

385
Q

Public, Private, Hybrid, Community

A

Cloud deployment models

386
Q

One of security’s biggest enemies

A

Complexity

387
Q

Security compromises of projects, but is part of an overall ______

A

program

388
Q

Group that doesn’t understand DDOS, but only the numbers, figures, and risks behind it

A

Senior management

389
Q

Overrules the rules of the organization

A

Law of the land

390
Q

Group which is part of the overall part of the security program

A

Everyone

391
Q

Data not to be decrypted by an organization

A

Employee financial and health data

392
Q

Release date of AIO CISSP study guide by Shon Harris 8th Edition

A

22-Oct-18

393
Q

Renting or leasing Windows Server 2012 from the cloud

A

Software as a Service

394
Q

How the cloud exists and why it is utilized

A

Concepts to know for the exam

395
Q

Best way to get rid of CD-ROM data

A

Physical destruction

396
Q

Data left over even after erasure

A

Data remanence

397
Q

Testing which takes place after an update or change

A

Regression testing

398
Q

Investing in a test case before committing full financial resources to software code

A

Prototyping

399
Q

Software model which allows risk analysis and feedback per iteration

A

Spiral Model

400
Q

Used in databases to restrict access to only authorized users. Also a Drake album.

A

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