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CSA - San Diego > CIS - ITSM (atualizado) > Flashcards

CIS - ITSM (atualizado) Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Given the class structure shown below, which types of CIs will be included in a report run against the cmdb_ci_computer table?
  • cmdb
    – cmdb ci
    — cmdb_ci_hardware
    —- cmdb_ci_computer
    ——– cmdb_ci_server
    ———— cmdb_ci_win_server
    ———— cmdb_ci_linux_server
    ———— cmdb_ci_unix_server
    ——– cmdb_ci_pc_hardware

A. Just CIs defined directly in cmdb_ci_computer
B. CIs defined directly in cmdb_ci_computer and all parent classes
C. CIs defined directly in cmdb_ci_computer and all child classes

A

R. C

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2
Q
  1. Which field from the configuration item will automatically populate in the Assignment group field of an incident record?

A. Managed by
B. Support group
C. Approval group
D. Change group

A

R. B

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3
Q
  1. Which of the following are defined for a given change model? (Choose three.)

A. Phase transitions
B. State model
C. State transition conditions
D. Phase model
E. State transitions

A

R. B, C e E

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4
Q
  1. When is a change task for Post Implementation Review created for an unauthorized change?

A. When the change request moves to Close
B. When a change manager accepts the change
C. When the change request moves to a state of Review
D. When the change request moves to a state of Assess

A

R. C

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5
Q
  1. Which should be used to explore the entire hierarchy and table definitions of the Configuration Management Database Classes?

A. Reports
B. CI Class Manager
C. Application Menus
D. Dependency View

A

R. B

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6
Q
  1. Which of the following cannot be defined or set through a Catalog UI Policy?

A. Setting a variable to mandatory
B. Apply a requirement to all form views
C. Setting a catalog category to visible
D. Setting a variable to read-only

A

R. B

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7
Q
  1. Which type of catalog item should be used to create an incident record from the portal?

A. Incident Template
B. Request Item
C. Order Guide
D. Record Producer

A

R. D

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8
Q
  1. Which incident management roles are activated by installing the ITSM Roles plugin (com.snc.itsm.roles)? (Choose two.)

A. sn_incident_read
B. itsm_incident_read
C. incident_manager
D. sn_incident_write
E. itsm_incident_write

A

R. A e D

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9
Q
  1. A customer requests that when the Service Desk agent clicks on the information icon for the Caller’s name, the quick view frame shows only the following fields:

User name -

Manager name -

Email Address -

Employee ID -
How would you modify the quick view frame?

A. Update the sys_popup view for the user table
B. Update the sys_quick view for the caller table
C. Update the sys_popup view for the caller table
D. Update the sys_quick view for the user table

A

R. A

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10
Q
  1. Your customer has built a mature knowledge base, with articles targeted to internal audiences -which are technical. Other articles are written for end users, with simple instructions. From the Incident form, the agents would like to be able to identify which articles are visible to the callers What feature would you use, to satisfy this requirement?

A. Internal/External Highlighting
B. Search as User
C. Show User Viewable
D. User Only View

A

R. B

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11
Q
  1. Your customer is using the baseline Create Incident Catalog Item and would like to add a few additional input fields. How should you update the catalog item?

A. Edit in Catalog Item Designer
B. Edit in Item Designer
C. Edit in Catalog Builder
D. Edit in Form Designer

A

R. C

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12
Q
  1. Your customer is complaining that Service Desk users keep accidentally assigning Incidents to the Network CAB, instead of Network Support You have confirmed that:
    The Network Support group record has the Group types: Incident and Change
    The Network CAB group record has the Group type: Change
    What could you do on the incident form, for the Assignment Group field, to resolve this issue?

A. Add a UI action to hide the Network CAB group from the list
B. Add a UI action to provide an error message if the Network CAB group is selected
C. Add Dictionary Override to specify the Incident group Reference Qualifier
D. Modify the choice list to include only the appropriate group types

A

R. C

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13
Q
  1. Which Agent workspace feature gives agents automatic search results that show possible solutions for records they open?

A. Chat Bot
B. Related Search Results
C. Knowledge Bases
D. Intelligent Agent
E. Agent Assist

A

R. E

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14
Q
  1. Which capability provides visibility to data joined between multiple tables?

A. Database Views
B. Metric Tables
C. Published Reports
D. Custom Tables
E. Breakdown Sources

A

R. A

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15
Q
  1. What tools are available to the assignee to help resolve an Incident? (Choose two.)

A. Knowledge Articles
B. Workarounds
C. CI Class Manager
D. Incident Overview Dashboard
E. Enterprise CMDB Dashboard

A

R. A e B

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16
Q
  1. When using Inbound Email Actions, what happens if an email is received which has no watermark or reference number?

A. New incident created from the message
B. New interaction is created from the message
C. Email is rejected and auto-reply sent to sender
D. New case is created from the message

A

R. A

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17
Q
  1. Under what circumstances, should you use the Communicate workaround Related Link on the Problem record?

A. The workaround is helpful information for the Callers on the Problem’s related Incidents (open)
B. The workaround should be published to a knowledge article, visible from the portal
C. The workaround is helpful information for the members of the Problem’s Assignment Group
D. The workaround is helpful information for the members of the Problem’s Work notes list

A

R. D

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18
Q
  1. Which interface is designed for tier 1 IT agents who solve internal or external customer issues?

A. ITSM Dashboard
B. IT Service Management Workspace (Agent Workspace)
C. ITIL Homepage
D. Incident Overview

A

R. B

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19
Q
  1. When using Agent assist in the Agent workspace, what are examples of possible solutions can be automatically searched and displayed? (Choose five.)

A. Runbook Actions
B. Knowledge
C. SQL Queries
D. Problems
E. Changes
F. Cases
G. Incidents

A

R. B, D, E, F e G

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20
Q
  1. Which module is a useful starting point for a manager to view current state operational information for Incident management?

A. CMDB Health Dashboard
B. Incident > Overview
C. Manager Workspace
D. Critical Incidents Map

A

R. B

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21
Q
  1. The Problem table is extended from what table?

A. Task
B. Major Incident
C. Outage
D. Problem Task
E. Incident

A

R. A

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22
Q
  1. The Problem Manager wants the Problem Coordinators to be able to Re-analyze a Completed Problem.
    Which module could they use to make this change?

A. Problem > Administration » Problem Properties
B. System UI > UI Action Groups
C. State Management > State Models
D. System UI > Form Actions
E. System UI > UI Actions

A

R. A

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23
Q
  1. Your Problem Manager has a structured problem management process, which includes a final review of the solution implemented and of the data regarding incident reduction. When a problem is resolved, after implementing a fix, they want the Post Fix Review task to be automatically created and assigned to the Problem assignee.
    What feature would you use to meet this requirement?

A. State Model
B. Workflow Dashboard
C. Action Modeler
D. Task Creator
E. Flow Designer

A

R. E

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24
Q
  1. Your customer needs help defining Category values for the Problem records. What approach should you suggest? (Choose two.)

A. Re-use existing categories from legacy systems
B. Define categories based on the customer’s CMDB classes
C. Re-use existing categories from incident management
D. Define categories based on ITIL problem taxonomy

A

R. B e C

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25
Q
  1. When a user clicks on the Communicate fix UI action on the Problem form, what happens?

A. Fix is written to the Comments field on any Incident associated with the problem, which is On Hold, Awaiting Problem
B. Fix is written to the Work notes field on any Incident associated with the problem, which is Active
C. Fix is written to the Comments field on any Incident associated with the problem, which is Active
D. Fix is written to a draft Knowledge article

A

R. B

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26
Q
  1. Users with which role can Communicate a workaround or fix? (Choose two.)

A. itil_admin
B. problem_coordinator
C. problem_task_analyst
D. problem_admin

A

R. B e D

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27
Q
  1. When a user clicks on the Communicate workaround UI action on the Problem form, what happens?

A. Workaround is written to the Comments field on any open Incident associated with the problem
B. Workaround is written to the Workaround field on any incident associated with the problem
C. Workaround is written to a draft Knowledge article
D. Workaround is written to the Work notes field on any open Incident associated with the problem

A

R. D

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28
Q
  1. A tester wants to submit a bug report, because they are not able to see the Communicate Fix link under the Related Links on the Problem form.
    What do you recommend that they confirm, before submitting the bug report? (Choose two.)

A. Tester is impersonating a user with communications.manager role
B. Tester is impersonating the assignee, which has the problem_coordinator role
C. Tester is impersonating a user with problem_coordinator role
D. The Fix notes field is filled in and saved

A

R. C e D

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29
Q
  1. Problem and Problem Task records, move automatically from New to Assess states, when which fields are filled? (Choose two.)

A. Short Descriptor
B. State
C. Assigned to
D. Configuration Item

A

R. B e C

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30
Q
  1. On a Change Approval Definition record, what does the ‘wait for’ condition define?

A. Whether the change approval is sent to an individual user or a group
B. The state the change must be in before the approval notifications can be sent
C. The number or percentage of users from the approval group that must approve the change
D. The fields that must be populated before the approval can be requested

A

R. C

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31
Q
  1. In what table are Change records stored?

A. Change [change_task]
B. Change Request [rfc]
C. Change Request [change_request]
D. Change [change]
E. Change [task_change]

A

R. C

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32
Q
  1. Risk is configured by default, to calculate Risk = High for a change that is scheduled with only 3 days lead time. Your customer’s change policy requires that changes be requested with 5 days lead time.
    How would you satisfy this requirement?

A. Update the Risk Property for Insufficient lead time
B. Update the Risk Assessment Matrix for Insufficient lead time
C. Update the Calculate Risk UI Action
D. Update the Risk Matrix for insufficient lead time
E. Update the Risk Condition for Insufficient lead time

A

R. E

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33
Q
  1. How are Releases related to Projects?

A. Project tasks and Release tasks are interchangeable
B. Projects can be part of one or more releases
C. Project features are components of a release
D. Projects need to be completed before releases can be defined
E. Projects are used to do root cause analysis for releases

A

R. B

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34
Q
  1. What baseline Change Flows support the baseline Normal Change model?

A. Change - Normal - Assess, Change - Normal - Authorize, Change - Normal - Implement Change - Implementation tasks
B. Change - Normal - New, Change - Normal - Review, Change - Normal - Close, Change - Implementation tasks
C. Change - Normal - New, Change - Normal - Assess, Change - Normal - Implement, Change - Implementation tasks
D. Change - Normal - Assess, Change - Normal - Authorize, Change - Normal - Close, Change - Implementation tasks

A

R. A

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35
Q
  1. Which of the following Change Task Types are available by default? (Choose three.)

A. Planning
B. Testing
C. Review
D. Deployment
E. Verification

A

R. A, B e C

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36
Q
  1. What is the Business Rule that triggers automatic group assignment on Incident, Problem or Change requests?

A. Populate Assignment Group based on CI/SO
B. Auto-populate ITSM Assignment Groups
C. ITSM Assignment Lookup Rule
D. Automatic Assignment for ITSM

A

R. A

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37
Q
  1. In the CAB workbench, what are some ways the CAB manager can identify the Change requests to be added to a particular meeting agenda? (Choose two.)

A. Change requests meeting different conditions, like Risk level or Type
B. Change requests planned within a certain date range
C. Use any of the options on the Agenda Criteria Tab
D. Change requests for a certain Change Flow Definition

A

R. A e B

38
Q
  1. A change user complains that with the new Preapproved tab, they have to search through many options to find the Reboot Windows Server change. Since they use this change several times per day, it is inconvenient. What should you suggest to make it easier for the change user?

A. Use the Pin feature
B. Make a Favorite
C. Use the keyword search
D. Drag the change tile to the Navigation pane

A

R. A

39
Q
  1. Roles control which users can perform which actions on a change record. What are actions, which cannot be performed by anyone, even an administrator? (Choose two.)

A. Update Change Type on an existing change record
B. Delete a Change record
C. Delete a Standard Change Template
D. Delete CAB Definition

A

R. A e C

40
Q
  1. In the baseline Change - Normal model how can Change Tasks be added? (Choose two.)

A. Automatically via the Change - Implementation subflow
B. Manually by the user during New, Assess, and Authorized states
C. Automatically depending on the category selected on the Change Request
D. Manually by the user during all states, except Closed or Canceled

A

R. A e D

41
Q
  1. In the baseline Change - Normal model, when the Change request goes to the Review state, what happens to the implementation and testing tasks, if they have not been closed.

A. They are automatically canceled
B. They are automatically closed
C. They are automatically assigned to the Change assignee and closed
D. An error displays, requiring that the Tasks be closed before moving to Review

A

R. A

42
Q
  1. On the Unauthorized Change Properties module what can you configure? (Choose two.)

A. Enable/Disable creation of Unauthorized changes
B. Maximum number of unauthorized change records for a CI
C. Unauthorized Change Dashboard
D. CI classes to monitor

A

R. A e D

43
Q
  1. How do you describe the relationship between a Knowledge article and a Knowledge base category?

A. Articles can only be published to one category
B. Articles must be published to at least one category
C. Articles must be approved by the selected category owner
D. Articles can be published to a category and subcategory

A

R. A

44
Q
  1. What are the different ways a user can provide feedback on a knowledge article? (Choose four.)

A. 10 Star scale
B. Comment on Article
C. Helpful?
D. Flag Article
E. 5 Star scale
F. Pin Article

A

R. B, C, D e E

45
Q
  1. When using the Knowledge - instant Retire workflow, how does the Valid to date enact a Knowledge article?

A. On Valid to date, article is automatically retired
B. On Valid to date, retire notification is sent to the Knowledge article author
C. On Valid to date, retire notification is sent to the Knowledge base owner
D. On Valid to date, the article is archived

A

R. A

46
Q
  1. In the ServiceNow native platform, the service catalog can be accessed via the Self-Service > Service Catalog module. Your customer wants to make modifications to this home page, to add, remove and re-arrange the categories.
    Users with what roles can make these edits? (Choose two.)

A. catalog_admin
B. sc_catalog_admin
C. catalog_editor
D. sn_catalog_homepage_write
E. admin

A

R. A e E

47
Q
  1. What would you use to create a New Hire Employee request which would allow you to order your workstation and company mobile?

A. Knowledge item
B. Record Producer
C. Catalog Item
D. Order Guide
E. Content Item

A

R. D

48
Q
  1. Which tool allows process owners to use natural language to automate approvals, tasks, notifications and other record operations with little to no code?

A. Workflow Mapper
B. Workflow Manager
C. Flow Designer
D. Flow Dashboard
E. Process Designer

A

R. C

49
Q
  1. What process is responsible for defining and managing the lifecycle of all catalog items, by producing and maintaining the services in the catalog and ensuring that a central, accurate, and consistent source of data is provided?

A. Service portfolio management
B. Catalog item management
C. Service mapping
D. Service catalog management

A

R. D

50
Q
  1. Your customer needs different catalogs for:
    Human Resources - employee facing - for submitting requests to HR
    Customer - external customer facing - for ordering company products and services
    When these catalogs are created, in which table would the definition be stored?

A. Business Services Catalog [bs_catalog]
B. Catalog [sc_catalog]
C. Service Portfolio Catalog [sc_portfolio]
D. Service Offering Catalog [sn_offering]

A

R. B

51
Q
  1. When creating a catalog, which field specifies who can edit, update, and delete catalogs, categories, and catalog items?

A. Manager
B. Contributors
C. Owner
D. Editors

A

R. A

52
Q
  1. Which type of catalog item may be found in a Service Catalog?

A. Requested Items
B. Record Producers
C. Categories
D. Execution Plans

A

R. B

53
Q
  1. Which of the following are users able to do when configuring stages in Flow Designer? (Choose two.)

A. Display the stages to the requester
B. Create any number of stages
C. Import a copy of a pre-defined stage set
D. Define the stage set in a subflow

A

R. B e C

54
Q
  1. When creating a catalog, which field specifies who is able to create, modify, and publish items in the catalog?

A. Editors
B. Item Admins
C. Item Owners
D. Authors

A

R. A

55
Q
  1. When defining catalog categories and subcategories, what are some good practices to follow? (Choose two.)

A. Align categories with CMDB classes where possible
B. Keep the number of top-level categories to 8-10
C. Remember that items can only be assigned to one category
D. Do not go to deep with subcategories: go only 1-2 levels deep

A

R. B e D

56
Q
  1. In request fulfillment, approvals can be required before a request can be fulfilled. Your customer is worried about requests getting stuck in the process flow, if the approver is on extended absence from the office.
    What can you suggest to alleviate this concern? (Choose two.)

A. The approver can use the Delegate module to assign a person to approve on their behalf, while they are away from the office
B. The approver can set their approval notifications to forward to their personal email address
C. The approval can be defined as a group approval, where any member of the group can approve
D. The approver can set their approval notifications to auto-reply with “approved” in the subject line

A

R. A e C

57
Q
  1. Released in Quebec, what tool enables you to delegate the creation and maintenance of common and simple use case Catalog Items to business users?

A. Catalog Wizard
B. Catalog Designer
C. Catalog Item Builder
D. Catalog Builder

A

R. D

58
Q
  1. Request fulfillment relies on three record types, Requests, Requested Items, and Catalog Tasks. The lifecycle status of these records is reflected in a combination of state and stage fields. Which status field is set by the flow?

A. Stage on Requested item
B. Status on Request
C. State on Catalog Task
D. State on Requested Item

A

R. A

59
Q
  1. Your implementation team has a new Business Analyst. They will be attending their first Service Catalog workshop and will be responsible for capturing notes and decisions from the workshop.
    What Now Create assets do you recommend they review, to prepare? (Choose two.)

A. Service Catalog and Request Mgmt - Workshop Preparation Guide
B. Service Catalog and Request Mgmt - Process Guide
C. IT Service Management - Typical Challenges and Remediation
D. ITSM - Business Outcomes and Corresponding KPIs

A

R. A e B

60
Q
  1. Which role would give you access to the CI Class Manager?

A. ecmdb_admin
B. ecmdb
C. class_manager
D. sn_class_manager

A

R. A

61
Q
  1. What module do you use to change the setting for the time between incident Resolution and Closure?

A. ITSM Properties
B. System Settings
C. Incident Settings
D. Incident Properties
E. Resolution Properties

A

R. D

62
Q
  1. By default, when using Inbound actions, what happens if an email is received which has an Incident watermark?

A. Incident SLA clock is un-paused
B. Incident record is updated, per the action’s script
C. Auto-reply sent to sender, recommending they use Portal chat
D. Incident record is re-set to state = attention required

A

R. B

63
Q
  1. When using the Email Client, what is the difference between an Email Template and a Quick Message?

A. Email Templates are like forms that can be sent to the caller for completion; Quick Messages are primarily used by the Chat Bot
B. Email Template is defined and automatically applied when the email form launches; Quick Messages are defined and then can be manually applied by the user
C. Email Templates are included with ITSM; Quick Messages are new with Machine Learning
D. Email templates are defined by users with admin role; Quick Messages are defined by users with quick_message_admin role

A

R. B

64
Q
  1. Your customer wants incidents to close automatically 7 days after the incident is resolved. How do you meet this requirement? (Choose two.)

A. Modify the Incident Lifecycle flow to trigger from the Resolved date instead of the Updated date
B. Update the incident_close UI action script
C. From the Incident Properties application, set Enable auto closure of incidents based on Resolution date to Yes
D. Modify the Incident Lifecycle flow to expire after 7 days

A

R. A e C

65
Q
  1. What tools are available to the assignee to help resolve an Incident? (Choose two.)

A. Known Errors
B. Resolutions from similar incidents
C. CI Class Manager
D. Incident Overview Dashboard
E. Enterprise CMDB Dashboard

A

R. A e B

66
Q
  1. Your customer wants to use the Service Catalog to generate task-based records for end-user inquiries. What Service Catalog capability can you use to generate these records?

A. Execution Plans
B. Content Items
C. Catalog Items
D. Record Producers

A

R. D

67
Q
  1. Which type of catalog item may be found in a Service Catalog?

A. Requested Items
B. Order guides
C. Categories
D. Execution Plans

A

R. B

68
Q
  1. From which table, is the Incident table extended?

A. Task [task]
B. Task [sn_task]
C. Ticket [ticket]
D. Work [sn_work]

A

R. A

69
Q
  1. What optional Incident table is extended from the Task table?

A. Child Incident [incident_child]
B. Major Incident [major_incident]
C. Incident Task [incident task]
D. Parent Incident [incident_parent]

A

R. C

70
Q
  1. Category and Subcategory values can be set manually on the Incident form. What are disadvantages of this approach? (Choose two.)

A. Too many options may confuse users and increase mis-categorization
B. Choices have no additional metadata to drive process
C. It is difficult to implement
D. It is not part of the baseline instance

A

R. A e B

71
Q
  1. When using the baseline business rule, Populate Assignment Group based on CI/SO, what behavior would you expect on an Incident form? (Choose two.)

A. If selected CI does not have an Owner group, write the Support group from the Service Offering to the Assignment group field
B. If selected CI has a Support group, write that group to the Assignment group field
C. If selected CI has an Owner group, write that group to the Assignment group field
D. If selected CI does not have a Support group, write the Support group from the Service Offering to the Assignment group field

A

R. B e D

72
Q
  1. On an incident record, where are the fields that appear on the caller lookup select box defined?

A. The Caller lookup field on the [user] table
B. The ref_ac_column attribute from the dictionary entry
C. The ref_contributions attribute on the caller lookup form
D. The form design of the caller lookup form

A

R. B

73
Q
  1. Where do you enable the Search as feature for an incident?

A. incident.deflection system property
B. Incident Properties application
C. Related Search Results table configuration
D. Incident form design

A

R. C

74
Q
  1. If the Assignment group is empty on an incident record, what happens when an agent that is a member of a single user groups clicks the Assign to me UI action?

A. The agent is prompted to select the Assignment group
B. The Assignment group field is populated with agent’s user group
C. An error is displayed indicating the Assignment group field must be populated before executing the Assign to me UI action
D. The Assignment group field remains empty

A

R. B

75
Q
  1. When you create a problem from an incident, impact, urgency and priority are automatically populated, from the incident record. Your problem management process owner wants the problem manager to be responsible for assessing the impact and urgency on the problem, so they don’t want the values from incident to be copied over.
    What module would you use to make this adjustment?

A. System Policy > Rules > Priority Lookup Rules
B. Problem > Administration > Problem Properties
C. ITSM > Administration > Properties
D. Incident > Administration > Incident Properties

A

R. B

75
Q
  1. A problem record is the Parent to what record?

A. Known Error
B. Workaround
C. Major Incident
D. Problem Task
E. Related Incidents

A

R. D

75
Q
  1. A new problem manager wants to know how to create reports for monitoring problem management activities. What do you recommend they do before creating new reports?

A. Submit a New Report Request via the service catalog
B. Take the Performance Analytics fundamentals course
C. Go to Reports > View/Run > All, then search for Problem reports
D. Submit a request for the sn_report_creator role
E. Turn on data collection jobs

A

R. C

76
Q
  1. As of Quebec, Problem task records will move automatically from one state, to another state, provided the required fields are filled. What are those states?

A. Assess to Work in Progress
B. On Hold to Work in Progress
C. New to Assess
D. Draft to Assess
E. Work in Progress to Closed

A

R. C

77
Q
  1. Your customer wants to know why users with the problem_coordinator role can Communicate workarounds, and fixes; but users with problem_task_analyst cannot. How do you explain this?

A. The technical resources working on the problem investigation are focused on the technical details, and may provide information that is not useful for the callers
B. The problem coordinator is the only role with the ability to recall a message
C. The problem coordinator is responsible for approving or rejecting the proposed message
D. The message will be automatically displayed on the Portal

A

R. A

78
Q
  1. A user wants to know what makes the Known Error knowledge base in ServiceNow different from all other knowledge bases. How should you respond?

A. The Known Error knowledge base documents problems that are under investigation, but not yet have a root cause
B. Only users with sn_known_error_write can create Known Error articles
C. Users with sn_problem_write can create known error articles, but not articles for other knowledge bases
D. The Known Error knowledge articles use a template, which includes the Workaround and the Cause

A

R. D

79
Q
  1. Problem management provides what benefits for Incident management? (Choose two.)

A. Solutions implemented reduce future incidents
B. Published workarounds help quickly resolve incidents
C. Problem investigations automatically triggered for multiple user incidents
D. Incident managers authorize problem investigations

A

R. A e B

80
Q
  1. A tester reports a bug, because they submitted a Known Error article from a Problem record, but it is not visible from the Known Error database. What could cause this?

A. The article is in draft state, but has not been published
B. The Problem Management Best Practice - Madrid - Knowledge Integration plugin has not been activated
C. The user criteria on the knowledge base is incorrect
D. The tester is not impersonating an itil user

A

R. A

81
Q
  1. Where can a change manager define the conditions that must be met before a change request can move from one state to another?

A. Model State Transition Conditions
B. Dictionary Overrides
C. State choices
D. State conditions

A

R. A

82
Q
  1. Where can a change manager define the interval frequency for unauthorized change detection?

A. The ci.change.unplanned business rule
B. Event Processing Properties module
C. Unauthorized Change Properties module
D. Unauthorized change flow

A

R. C

83
Q
  1. Prior to Quebec, when you click Change > Create New, which page is displayed?

A. Change Landing Page
B. Change Form
C. Change Catalog
D. Change Wizard
E. Change Interceptor

A

R. E

84
Q
  1. Inside a change flow, you can automate a task with a sequence of related steps, like looking up a record, creating a record, or applying a policy. What is this component of the flow called?

A. Flow Actions
B. Flow Activities
C. Flow Steps
D. Action Pills
E. Flow Tasks

A

R. A

85
Q
  1. On the Release record, what are the available options on the Release phase list?

A. Requirement Gathering, Design, Build, Roll-out, Unit Testing, User Acceptance, Pilot
B. Scoping, Design, Develop, Deployment, Unit Testing, Integration, Pilot
C. Analyze, Design, Development, Build, Roll-out, QA, User Acceptance
D. Requirement Gathering, Design, Development, Build, Deployment, QA, User Acceptance

A

R. D

86
Q
  1. You have created a new Change model and added a new Approval Policy for that model. But the newly defined approval is not triggering. What could cause this issue?

A. The business rule “Apply approval policy” on the change_request table has not been updated to include the new Approval Policy.
B. The “Apply Change Approval Policy” action in the flow created for the new change model does not reference the new Approval Policy.
C. The workflow that triggers the Approval Policy for the new model has not been created using the workflow editor.
D. The system property “glide.ui.approval.policies” has not been updated to include the new Approval Policy.

A

R. B

87
Q
  1. In the Quebec release of Change management, what new architectural features were added?

A. Catalog builder and Change Designer
B. Change Flows, Change Designer and Change Approval Matrix
C. Change Models, Change Flows and State Transition Models
D. Change PIR Assessments, Change Designer and Change Approval Policies

A

R. C

88
Q
  1. In the baseline implementation, what are key relationships between Change and Configuration Item (CI) records? (Choose three.)

A. The CI Manager is part of the change approval workflow
B. One Change can be submitted for multiple CIs
C. Changes should reference at least one CI
D. The CI Support Group is responsible for change implementations
E. A CI can be affected by a change, even if it is not the CI being changed

A

R. B, C e E

89
Q
  1. In Change management, what allows customers to define condition based flows for a fit for purpose model?

A. State Transition Models
B. State Flows
C. Workflows 2.0
D. Conditional Change Models

A

R. A

90
Q
  1. By default, a business rule, causes the Assignment group to be automatically set. How is the group identified?

A. Change group on CI record, or if empty, the Change group on the Service offering
B. Support group on CI record, or the default assignment group for the user
C. Support group on CI record, or if empty, the Support group on the Service
D. Support group on CI record, or if empty, the Support group on the Service offering

A

R. D

CSA - San Diego (4 decks)

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