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Anatomy and Physiology 2 > Circulatory System: Blood > Flashcards

Circulatory System: Blood Flashcards

1
Q

What are the three main components of the circulatory system?

A

heart, blood vessels, and the blood

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2
Q

What cardiovascular system only refers to ____

A

the heart and the blood vessels

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3
Q

Hematology is the study of ___

A

blood

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4
Q

What are the three main functions of the circulatory system?

A

Transport
protection
regulation

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5
Q

What does the Circulatory system transport?

A

Oxygen, CO2, nutrients, wastes, hormones and stem cells

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6
Q

How does the Circulatory system protect?

A

Limits the spread of infection, causes inflammation, destroys microbes and cancer, neutralizes toxins, and initiates clotting

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7
Q

What does the Circulatory system regulate?

A

Fluid balance, pH, Temperature control

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8
Q

How much blood do adults have?

A

4-6L

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9
Q

What is blood?

A

A liquid connective tissue consisting of cells and extracellular matrix.

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10
Q

What is the extracellular matrix of blood?

A

Plasma

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11
Q

What are the formed elements of blood?

A

RBC’s, WBC’s, and platelets

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12
Q

What are erythrocytes and leukocytes?

A

red blood cells and white blood cells

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13
Q

What are the two categories of leukocytes?

A

Granulocytes and Agranulocytes

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14
Q

What are the three Granulocytes?

BEN

A

Neutrophils
Eosinophils
Basophils

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15
Q

What are the two Agranulocytes?

LM

A

Lympocytes

Monocytes

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16
Q

How many types of formed elements are there?

A

7

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17
Q

Plasma makes up ____ of blood
Erythrocytes make up ___
and WBC’s and platelets make up ___

A

55
45
<1%

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18
Q

What is the Buffy coat when blood is separated?

A

WBC’s and platelets

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19
Q

What is serum and how is it different from plasma?

A

Serum is the remaining liquid after blood clots

it is identical apart from the absence of fibrinogen which was used during clot formation

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20
Q

What are the three major types of plasma proteins?

A

Albumin’s
Globulin’s
Fibrinogen

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21
Q

What are Albumins?

A
  • The smallest and most abundant plasma proteins
  • They contribute to blood viscosity and osmolarity
  • influence blood pressure, flow, and fluid balance
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22
Q

What are Golbulins?

A
  • Antibodies
  • Provide immune function
  • 3 types Alpha, Beta, Gamma
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23
Q

What is Fibrinogen?

A

The precursor to fibrin. involved in clotting

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24
Q

Where are plasma proteins formed?

A

the liver except gamma globulin’s (produced by plasma cells)

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25
Q

What are the Nitrogenous compounds that are found in plasma?

A
  • Free amino acids from dietary protein and tissue breakdown

- Nitrogenous wastes (urea)

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26
Q

What is urea as product of and how is it removed from the body?

A

it is a product of catabolism and is removed by the kidneys

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27
Q

What are the 3 main gasses that are found dissovled in plasma

A

02, C02, nitrogen.

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28
Q

What is the main electrolyte found in blood plasma?

A

Na+ makes up 90% of all plasma cations

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29
Q

What is viscosity?

A

The resistance of fluid to flow resulting from the cohesion of the particles

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30
Q

Whole blood is ___ times as viscous as water

Plasma is ___

A
  1. 5 to 5.5

2. 0

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31
Q

What is osmolarity of blood?

A

the total number of those dissolved particles that cannot pass through the blood vessel wall

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32
Q

What occurs if the blood osmolarity is too high?

A

the blood will absorb too much water increasing blood pressure

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33
Q

What occurs if the blood osmolarity is too low?

A

too much water stays in the tissues droping blood pressure ad causing edema

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34
Q

How is optimum osmolarity regulated?

A

Regulation of sodium ions, proteins, and RBC’s

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35
Q

What is hemopoiesis?

A

the production of blood especially its formed elements

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36
Q

What are hemopoietic tissues?

A

tissues the perform hemopoiesis

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37
Q

What is the yolk sacs role in hemopoesis ?

A

Produces the stemcells that produce the first blood cells and they colonize fetal bone marrow, livers, spleens, and the thymus

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38
Q

What is the Livers role in hemopoesis?

A

Produces only in fetus stops after birth

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39
Q

What is the spleens role in hemopoesis ?

A

continues to Produces lympocytes

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40
Q

What is the main producer of all 7 formed elements of blood?

A

Red bone marrow

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41
Q

What are pluripotent stem cells? (PPSC)

A

-Formally called hemocytoblasts and hemopoietic stem cells

Stem cells that produce formed elements of blood

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42
Q

What is a Colony-forming unit?

A

A specialized stem cell that only produces one class of formed element of blood

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43
Q

What is Myeloid hemopoiesis?

A

blood formation in the bone marrow most common

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44
Q

What is Lymphoid Hemopoiesis?

A

blood formation in the lymphatic organs only lymphocyte’s after infancy

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45
Q

What are the two primary functions of erythrocytes?

A
  • Carry oxygen from lungs to cell tissues

- Pick up CO2 from tissues and bring to lungs

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46
Q

Erythrocytes discard what two organelles during development?

A

Mitochondria

Nucleus

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47
Q

How to erythrocytes produce ATP?

A

Via anaerobic fermentation

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48
Q

How is blood type determined?

A

By surface glycoproteins and glycolipids

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49
Q

What two cytoskeletal proteins give erythrocytes durability and resilience? What does this allow erythrocytes to do?

A

Spectrin and Actin

Allows them the strech and bend to squeeze through small capillaries

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50
Q

What % of the cytoplasm of erythrocytes is hemoglobin?

A

33%

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51
Q

What is the function of Carbonic anhydrase in the cytoplasm of erythrocytes?

A

It converts CO2 into carbonic acid which allows for easy transport to the lungs and wells as helps maintain pH balance

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52
Q

What is the importance of the four globins (protein chains) that are present in Hemoglobin?

A

They bind CO2

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53
Q

What is the importance of the Heme groups in hemoglobin?

A

That are non-proteins that bind O2 to ferrous ions at their center.

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54
Q

What is hematocrit?

A

Packed cell volume

% of whole blood volume composed of RBC’s

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55
Q

Why do women have lower Hematocrit levels?

A

Less androgens
menstrual loss
inversely proportional to percentage of body fat

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56
Q

What is Erythropoiesis?

A

The production of RBC’s

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57
Q

How long is the development and What is the average lifespan of erythrocytes?

A

3-5 days to develop

120 day lifespan

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58
Q

What is the first committed cell in the development of RBC’s?

A

A hemopoietic stem cell differentiates into a colony-forming unit (CFU)

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59
Q

What hormone is released from the kidneys that in involved in erythropoiesis?

A

erythropoietin

EPO

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60
Q

What do CFU cells become in the process of erythropoiesis?

A

They become Erythroblasts

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61
Q

What do erythroblasts begin to synthesize?

Critical component of RBC’s

A

Hemoglobin

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62
Q

What do erythroblasts become? What event is part of this transformation

A

They become reticulocytes once the nucleus is discarded from the erythroblast

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63
Q

Why are reticulocyte’s named as such?

A

because of their fine network of endoplasmic reticulum

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64
Q

What percentage of circulating blood consists of still developing reticulocytes?

A

0.5-1.5%

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65
Q

Explain the process of erythropoesis and all of the cells involved. also what hormone regulates the process and where does it come from?

A
  • Erythropoietin(EPO) from the kidneys regulates the process
  • Hemopoietic stem cell differentiates into a colony-forming unit
  • CFU becomes a Erythroblast the begin to synthesize hemoglobin
  • Erythroblasts eject their nuclei and become reticulocytes
  • Reticulocytes mature to become erythrocytes * some may enter the bloodstream prematurely
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66
Q

How many steps in the process of iron metabolism?

A

8

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67
Q

What two main bodies are involved in iron metabolism?

A

Stomach and Liver

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68
Q

What is the general process of iron metabolism in the stomach?

A

Ingested iron is converted into its bio available form and binds to gastroferritin and is transported to the small intestine for absorption

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69
Q

What is the general process of iron metabolism in the liver?

A
  • Iron from the blood stream is transported via transferrin
  • some iron is released for storage
  • the remaining iron is sent to other organs
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70
Q

What protein does iron bind to in the liver when it is being stored? What is it stored as?

A

apoferritin

to be stored as ferritin

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71
Q

What is the bioavailable form of iron? What two types are ingested normally and what converts it into the Bioavailable type?

A
  • Fe2+ is the bioavailable form
  • Fe2+ and Fe3+ is ingested
  • Stomach acid converts Fe3+ into Fe2+
72
Q

What is the role of Vit B12 and Folic acid in the process of erythropoiesis?

A

They allow for the rapid cell division and DNA synthesis needed during erythropoiesis

73
Q

What is the role of Vit C and copper acid in the process of erythropoiesis?

A

They are cofactors for enzymes that synthesize hemoglobin

74
Q

What is the name of the alpha globulin that transports copper in the blood?

A

ceruloplasmin

75
Q

Explain the negative feedback loop that controls erythrocyte homeostasis

A
  • Low blood count causes hypoxemia
  • The low O2 levels are detected by the kidneys
  • the kidneys produce more erythropoietin (EPO) to stimulate the bone marrow
  • RBC increases in 3-4 days
76
Q

What are four main causes of increased erythropoiesis?

A
  • Hypoxemia
  • High altitude
  • Increased exercise
  • Loss of lung tissue in emphysema
77
Q

Where do expired erythrocytes begin the process of death and disposal?

A

Liver and spleen

78
Q

What is the first stage of Death and disposal of Erythrocytes?

A

Hemolysis in narrow channels of spleen and liver

79
Q

What happens to the erythrocytes after they go through hemolysis?

A
  • Heme is separated from Globin
  • Globin’s are hydrolyzed into amino acids
  • iron is removed from heme
  • Macrophages digest leftover bits
80
Q

What happens to the iron after it is removed fro heme?

A

It is stored and reused

81
Q

What are the four steps in the breakdown of Heme after iron is removed?
GYKL

A
  • Heme Pigment is converted into biliverdin
  • Biliverdin is converted into Bilirubin
  • Bilirubin is released into blood plasma(kidneys-yellow urine)
  • Liver removes bilirubin and secretes it into bile and is the excreted
82
Q

What do bacteria create in the small intestine to help digest bilirubin?

A

urobilinogen

makes feces brown

83
Q

What is polycythemia?

What are the two types and their differences?

A
  • It is an excess of RBC’s
  • Primary is caused by a cancer of erythropoietic cell lines in red bone marrow
  • Secondary is caused by environmental factors such as dehydration, emphysema, high altitude, or physical conditioning.
84
Q

What are the dangers of polycythemia?

A

Increased blood volume leads to increased blood pressure, viscosity can lead to embolism, stroke, or heart failure

85
Q

What are the three categories of anemia?

A
  • Inadequate erythropoiesis or hemoglobin synthesis
  • Hemorrhagic anemia’s from bleeding
  • Hemolytic anemia’s from RBC destruction
86
Q

What type of anemia does kidney failure cause?

A

Inadequate erythropoiesis due to insufficient production of (EPO) erythropoietin

87
Q

What is Pernicious anemia?

A

Autoimmune attack on stomach tissue that leads to inadequate absorption of Vit B12

88
Q

What is hypoplastic anemia?

A

The slowing of erythropoiesis

89
Q

What is aplastic anemia?

A

Complete cessation of erythropoiesis

90
Q

What are the three potential consequences of anemia?

A
  • Tissue hypoxia and necrosis
  • Blood osmolarity is reduced, producing edema
  • Blood viscosity is low causing low pressure and possible cardiac failure
91
Q

What is sickle-cell anemia

general overview

A
  • Genetic defect effects the 6th amino acid of the beta chain changing the structure of Hb to HbS
  • RBC’s become sticky and rigid
  • RBC’s stic together and are pulled into a sickle shape.
92
Q

What is sickle cell anemia’s relationship with the malaria parasite?

A

Causes resistance to malaria

93
Q

Who discovered the ABO blood types? What year?

A

Karl Landsteiner

1900

94
Q

Blood types are based on interactions between _____ and _____

A

Antigens and antibodies

95
Q

What are antigens?

A

Complex molecules on the surface of cell membranes that activate immune response

96
Q

What are agglutinogens?

A

Antigens on RBCs that are the basis of blood typing

97
Q

What are antibodies? what do they do?

A
  • Proteins (gamma globulins) secreted by plasma cells
  • Part of imune response
  • binds to foreign antigens to mark them for destruction
98
Q

What are agglutinins?

A

antibodies in the blood plasma that bring about transfusion mismatch

99
Q

What is agglutination?

A

The clumping of RBC’s due to an antibody molecule binding to antigens

100
Q

What are the names of the two RBC agglutinogens? What determines them?

A

Antigen A
Antigen B
determined by glycolipids on RBC surfaces

101
Q

Blood type is determined by the presence or absence of ___ on RBC’s

A

antigens

102
Q

What is the most common ABO type? Least common?

A

most common is O

Least is AB

103
Q

Why is mismatched blood type transfusion a bad thing?

A
  • your body’s antibodies attach to the antigens of the foreign blood and cause it to clump (agglutination)
  • These agglutinated RBC’s can block small blood vessels and release their Hb
  • the released Hb can block kidney tubules and cause renal failure
104
Q

What is Rh?

A

an agglutinogen that was discovered in rhesus monkeys accounts for the positive or negative factor of ABO blood types

105
Q

What is the most reactive Rh antigen? What does its presence determine?

A

Rh D

Determines whether or not the patient is Rh positive or not

106
Q

What is hemolytic disease of newborns? (HDN)

What causes it how can it be prevented?

A

If an Rh- mother produces antibodies against an Rh+ fetus they will travel across the placenta and cause a loss of blood in the fetus.

due to second Rh+ child, Rh+ transfusion before pregnancy,

prevented using the drug RhoGAM that binds to fetal agglutinogens so the mother doesnt form Rh D antibodies

107
Q

What is the least abundant formed element in blood?

A

leukocytes

108
Q

What is the general function of leukocytes?

A

They protect against infectious microorganisms and other pathogens

109
Q

How long do Leukocytes spend in the blood stream?

A

few hours until they migrate to connective tissue

110
Q

What are granules in leukocytes?

A

Lysosomes can azurophillic granules

111
Q

What are granulocytes?

A

Leukocytes that have specific granules that contain enzymes and other chemicals that are defensive

112
Q

What are the three Granulocytes?

Most to least common

A

Neutrophils
Eosinophils
Eosinophils

113
Q

What are the two agranulocytes?

A

Lymphocytes

Monocytes

114
Q

What is the function of neutrophils?

A

they are aggressive antibacterial WBC’s

115
Q

What is neutrophila?

A

A increase in the number of neutrophil due to bacterial infection

116
Q

When do the numbers of eosinophils increase?

A

When there is a parasitic infection, collagen diseases, allergies, and dieases of the spleen and CNS

117
Q

What is the function of eosinophils?

A

The phagocytosis of antigen-antibody complexes, allergens, and inflammatory chemicals

the release of enzymes to destroy large parasites

118
Q

What are the two substances the basophils release?

A

Histamine

Heparin

119
Q

What does histamine do?

A

It acts as a vasoconstrictor and speeds up the flow of blood to an injured area

120
Q

What does Heparin do?

A

Acts as an anticoagulant

promotes the mobility of other WBC’s in the area

121
Q

What are the functions of lymphocytes?

A
  • They destroy cells
  • present antigens to activate other immune cells
  • Coordinate actions of other immune cells
  • secrete antibodies and provide immune memory
122
Q

What are the functions of monocytes?

A

-They leave the bloodstream to become macrophages

123
Q

What is leukopoiesis?

A

the production of white blood cells?

124
Q

What are the leukocyte cell types that differentiate from Hemopoietic stem cells? (HPC’s)

A

Myeloblasts
Monoblasts
Lymphoblasts

125
Q

What do meyloblasts give rise to?

A
  • Neutrophils
  • eosinophils
  • basophils
126
Q

What do monoblasts give rise to?

A

monocytes

127
Q

What do lymphoblasts give rise to?

A

All forms of lymphocytes

128
Q

Where do T-lymphocytes go to complete their develoment?

A

The thymus

129
Q

Red bone marrow stores and releases what types of WBCs?

A

Granulocytes and Monocytes

130
Q

DO circulating WBC’s stay in the blood stream?

A

no

131
Q

How long do granulocytes stay in the bloodstream?

A

8hrs

132
Q

How long do monocytes stay in the blood stream?

A

20 hrs

133
Q

What is leukopenia?

A

low WBC count

134
Q

What is leukocytosis?

A

High WBC count

135
Q

What is leukemia?

A

Cancer of the Hemopoietic tissue that causes the high production of circulating leukocytes

136
Q

What are the 5 values in a complete blood count?

HHTDR

A
  • Hematocrit
  • Hemoblobin concentration
  • Total count for RBC’s reticulocytes, WBC’s, and platelets
  • Differential WBC count
  • RBC size and Hemoglobin concentration per RBC
137
Q

What is hemostasis?

A

the sessation of bleeding

138
Q

What is a hemorrhage?

A

excessive bleeding

139
Q

What are the three hemostatic mechanisms?

VPB

A

Vascular spasm
PLatelet plug formation
Blood clotting

140
Q

What cell forms platelets?

A

Megakaryocytes

141
Q

What are some functions of platelets

A

– Secrete vasoconstrictors that help reduce blood loss
– Stick together to form platelet plugs to seal small breaks
– Secrete procoagulants or clotting factors to promote
clotting
– Initiate formation of clot-dissolving enzyme
– Chemically attract neutrophils and monocytes to sites of
inflammation
– Phagocytize and destroy bacteria
– Secrete growth factors that stimulate mitosis to repair
blood vessels

142
Q

Explain the process of platelet formation

A
  • Thrombopoiesis occurs as stem cells with thrombopoietan become megakaryoblasts
  • megakaryoblasts grow very large to become megakaryocytes that live in bone marrow
  • Megakaryocytes release fragments of their cytoplasm into the blood to become platelets
143
Q

Where are most platelets stored?

A

the spleen

144
Q

What is a vascular spasm?

A

Prompt constriction of a broken blood vessel to protect against further blood loss

145
Q

What are the 3 causes of a vascular spasm?

A
  • Pain receptors activate
  • Smooth muscle is inured
  • Platelets release vasoconstrictiors (serotonin)
146
Q

What are the effects of Vascular spasms?

A

Prompt constriction of the broken vessels to provide time for the other clotting pathways

147
Q

What is prostacyclin?

A

A platelet repellent that coats the endothelium of blood vessels
prevents unnecessary clot formation

148
Q

Explain the process of platelet formation

A
  • a broken vessel exposes its collagen
  • platelets attach to the collagen and other platelets
  • The platelets pseudopods contract drawing the platelets together and forming a plug
  • The platelets release vasoconstrictors, ADP, and thromboxane A2
149
Q

What is the function of the ADP released by platelets during plug formation?

A

to attract and degranulate more platelets

150
Q

What is the function of the thromboxane A2 released by platelets during plug formation?

A

To promote platlet aggregation, degranultion, and vasoconstriction

151
Q

How is the platelet plug process perpetuated?

A

via a positive feedback loop

152
Q

What is coagulation? Give a brief overview of its process

A

Clotting caused by the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin threads forming the framework of the clot

153
Q

WHat are procoaguants?

A

Clotting factors produced by the liver that are present in the plasma

154
Q

What are the three clotting pathways

A

the intrinsic and extrinsic that lead to the common

155
Q

What is the extrinsic pathway initiated by? What is its cascade order?

A

Initated by thromboplastin (factor III)

cascades VII, V, X

156
Q

What is the intrinsic pathway initiated by? What is its cascade order?

A

Initated by platlets reeasing Hageman factor (XII)

cascades XI, IX, VIII, X

157
Q

What ion is required in all clotting pathways?

A

Calcium

158
Q

After the X factor is activated by either pathway what is the brief sequence of events that complete the clotting?

A

-Factor X leads to the production of prothrombin
-prothrombin is converted into thrombin via prothrombin activator
-thrombin converts fibrinogen to fibrin
Fibrin creates a polymer and is cross-linked by XIII to create a framework

159
Q

What is the positive feedback in the common clotting pathway?

A

Thrombin speeds up formation of prothrombin activator

160
Q

How is clotting efficiency measured?

A

bleeding time after a 1mm deep incision

161
Q

Clot retraction occurs within ___ minutes

A

30

162
Q

What is the function of Kallikrein and what factor speeds up its production?

A

Converts plasminogen into plasmin (A fibrin-dissolving enzyme)
Factor XII

163
Q

What is hemophila?

A

A hereditary disease that causes a deficiency in a clotting factor

164
Q

What clotting factor is missing in Hemophillia A?

A

Factor VIII

165
Q

What clotting factor is missing in Hemophillia B?

A

Factor IX

166
Q

What clotting factor is missing in Hemophillia C?

A

Factor XI

167
Q

What is a thrombosis?

A

An abnromal clott in an unbroken vesses

168
Q

What is a thrombus?

A

a clot

169
Q

What is a pulmonary embolism?

A

when a clot breaks free and travels to the lungs causing blockage

170
Q

What is an infarction

A

tissue death due to clot blockage

171
Q

What vitamin is required for clotting?

A

K

172
Q

What class of drugs are warfarin, and cumarin?

A

Vit K antagonists

173
Q

What does aspirin suppress what can reduce clotting?

A

Thromboxane A2

174
Q

What is streptokinase?

A

an enzyme produced by streptococci bacteria that dissolves clots

175
Q

WHat is TPA?

A

Tissue plasminogen activator

Anatomy and Physiology 2 (7 decks)

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