Chp 6 Civil Procedure and Trail Practice Flashcards

1
Q

pleading

A

of a case are the written statements of fact and law filed with a court by the parties to a lawsuit

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2
Q

complaint

A

is the first pleading filed by a plaintiff that initiates a lawsuit

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3
Q

demurrer

A

is a pleading filed by a defendant challenging the legal sufficiency of a complaint

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4
Q

answer to a complaint

A

is pleading that admits or denies the specific allegations set forth in a complaint and constitutes a general appearance by a defendant

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5
Q

bill of particulars

A

is a request for a written itemization of the claims, which a defendant can demand from the plaintiff to determine what the details of a claim are

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6
Q

cross-complaint

A

defendant bring other parties into a lawsuit by the process

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7
Q

plaintiff

A

is the person who initiates an action by filing a complaint

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8
Q

defendant

A

is the person against whom a lawsuit is brought

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9
Q

complaint

A

first pleading filed with the court in a negligence action, it identifies the parties to a suit, states a cause of action, and includes a demand for damages, it is filed by the plaintiff and is first statement of a case by the plaintiff by the defendant

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10
Q

demurrer

A

can be filed by one of the parties to a lawsuit claiming that the evidence presented by the other party is insufficient to sustain an issue or case

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11
Q

pleading includes

A

papers as a complaint, demurrer, answer, and bill of the particulars

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12
Q

elements in complaint

A
  1. a short statement of the grounds on which the court’s jurisdiction depends ( the court authority to hear the case)
  2. a statement of the claim demonstrating that the pleader is entitled to relief
  3. a demand for judgement for the relief to which the plaintiff deems him or herself entitled
    * all elements apply to any counterclaim, cross claim or third-party claim
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13
Q

discovery

A

is the process of investigating the facts of a case before trial

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14
Q

objectives of discovery

A
  1. obtain evidence that might not be obtained at the time of trial
  2. isolate and narrow the issues for trial
  3. gather knowledge of the existence of additional evidence that might be admissible at trial
  4. obtain leads to enable the discovering party to gather further evidence
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15
Q

examination before trial (EBT)

A

is one of several discovery techniques used to enable the parties of a lawsuit to learn more regarding the nature and substance of each other’s case

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16
Q

examination before trail (EBT) consist of

A

*oral testimony under oath and includes cross-examination.
*deposition, is the testimony of a witness that has been recorded in a written format
*

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17
Q

attorney-client privilege

A

is intended to ensure that a client remains free form apprehension that consultations with a legal advisor will be disclosed

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18
Q

motions is made

A

the court will examine the entire case and decide whether to enter judgement according to the merits of the case as indicated in the pleadings.

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19
Q

pretrial conference

A

is a informal discussion during which the judge and the attorneys eliminate matters not in dispute, agree on the issues, and settle procedural matters relating to the trial

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20
Q

prima facie case

A

that the plaintiff has failed to establish the minimum elements necessary to justify a verdict even if no contrary evidence is presented by the defendant

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21
Q

subpoena

A

is a legal order requiring the appearance of a person and/or the presentation of documents to a court or administrative body

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22
Q

subpoena ad testificandum

A

orders the appearance of a person at a trial or other investigative proceeding to give testimony

23
Q

subpoena for records ( subpoena duces tecum)

A

is a written command to bring records, documents or other evidence described in the subpoena to a trial or other investigative proceeding.

24
Q

burden of proof in a criminal case

A

requires the evidence presented against the defendant must be beyond a reasonable doubt

25
Q

burden of proof in a civil case

A

is the obligation of the plaintiff to persuade the jury regarding the truth of his or her case

26
Q

credible evidence

A

is evidence that in the light of reason and common sense, is worthy of belief

27
Q

burden of proof in negligence case

A

requires that the plaintiff’s attorney show that the defendant violated a legal duty by not following an acceptable standard of care and that the plaintiff suffered injury because of the defendant’s breach.

28
Q

violation of a statute

A

can constitute direct evidence of negligence, or it simply can voice a duty that is owed to a particular class of persons who are protected by the statute or regulation.

29
Q

res ipsa loquitur ( “the thing speaks for itself” or “circumstances speak for themselves”)

A

legal doctrine that shifts the burden of proof from the plaintiff to the defendant.

30
Q

element under the doctrine of res ipsa loquitur

A

shift burden of proof from plaintiff to defendant

  1. the event would not normally have occurred in the absence of negligence
  2. the defendant must have had exclusive control over the instrumentality that caused the injury
  3. the plaintiff must not have contributed to the injury
31
Q

opening statement

A

the plaintiff’s attorney attempts to prove the wrongdoing of the defendant by presenting credible evidence favorable to his or her client

32
Q

open statement summary provides

A
  1. the facts of the case
  2. what the attorney intends to prove by means of a summary of the evidence to be presented
  3. a description of the damages to his or her client
33
Q

evidence

A

consists of the facts proved or disproved during a lawsuit

34
Q

law of evidence

A
  • is a body of rules under which facts are proved

* govern the admission of items of proof in a lawsuit

35
Q

direct evidence

A

is proof offered through direct testimony

36
Q

demonstrative evidence

A

is proof furnished by things themselves.

*consist of tangible objects to which testimony refers ( medial supplies, instrument, equipment )

37
Q

documentary evidence

A

is written information that is capable of making a truthful statement ( drug manufacturer inserts, autopsy reports, birth certificates, and medical records)

38
Q

judicial notice rule

A

prescribes that well known facts need not be proven, but rather they are recognized by the court as fact.

39
Q

hearsay evidence

A

is based on what another has said or done and is not the result of the personal knowledge of the witness.

  • consist of written or oral statements
  • medical books are not admissible as evidence and are considered hearsay b/c the authors are not generally available for cross-examination,
40
Q

assumption of a risk

A

is knowing that a danger exists and voluntarily accepting the risk by exposing oneself to it, aware that harm might occur.
* not entitled to recover from patient from damages suffered

41
Q

defendant assumption of risk defense requires

A
  1. the plaintiff must know and understand the risk that is being incurred
  2. the choice to incur the risk must be free and voluntary
42
Q

contributory negligence occurs

A

when a person does not exercise reasonable care for his or her own safety

43
Q

to establish contributory negligence

A
  1. the plaintiff’s conduct fell below the required standard of personal care
  2. there is a causal connection between the plaintiff’s careless conduct and the plaintiff’s injury
44
Q

Good Samaritan law

A

relieve physician, nurses, dentists and other health care professionals and in some instance laypersons, from liability in certain emergency situation
* statue does not extend immunity to physicians who have preexisting duty to render emergency care

45
Q

borrowed servant doctrine

A

is a special application of the doctrine of respondeat superior and applies when an employer lends an employee to another for a particular employment

46
Q

comparative negligence

A

provides that the degree of negligence or carelessness of each party to a lawsuit must be established by the finder of fact and that each party then is responsible for his or her proportional share of any damages awarded

47
Q

statue of limitations

A

refer to legislatively imposed time constraints that restrict the period of time after the occurrence of an injury during which a legal action must be commenced.

48
Q

intervening cause

A

arises when the act of a third party, independent of the defendant’s original negligent conduct, is the proximate cause of an injury

49
Q

sovereign immunity

A

refers to the common-law doctrine by which federal and state governments historically have been immune from liability for harm suffered from the tortious conduct of employees
* federal and state have abolished sovereign immunity

50
Q

nominal damages

A

awarded as a mere token in recognition that wrong has been committed when actual amount of compensation is insignificant

51
Q

compensatory damages

A

are estimated reparation in money for detriment or injury sustained ( including loss of earnings, medical costs, and loss of financial support)

52
Q

hedonic damages

A

are those damages awarded to compensate an individual for the loss of enjoyment of life, such damage are awarded because of the failure of compensatory damages to compensate an individual adequately for the pain and suffering that he or she has endured as a result of a negligent wrong

53
Q

punitive damages

A

are additional money awards authorized when an injury is caused by gross carelessness or disregard for the safety of others

54
Q

joint and several liability doctrine

A

permits the plaintiff to bring suit against all persons who share responsibility for his or her injury.