Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Pharmacology I JK > Choice of drug (final exam) > Flashcards

Choice of drug (final exam) Flashcards

1
Q

Reversal of competitive neuromuscular blockers

A

Neostigmine
Parasympathomimetic
Indirect (Reversible)
Anticholinesterases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Myasthenia gravis

A

Pyridostigmine
Parasympathomimetics
Indirect (Reversible)
Anticholinesterases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Tensilon test. Fast acting.

A

Edrophonium
Parasympathomimetics
Indirect (Reversible)
Anticholinesterases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Differentiate myathenic crisis from cholinergic crisis.

A

Edrophonium
Parasympathomimetic
Indirect (reversible)
Anticholinesterases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

DUMBELLS. Muscarinic effects, nicotinic effects, CNS effect.

A

Organophosphate toxicity
Parasympathomimetics
Indirect (irreversible)
Anticholinerasterase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Muscarinic effect

A

Salivation, urination, defecation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Cholinergic effects

A

Bradycardia, bronchospasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Nicotinic effects

A

Muscle tremors, muscle weakness, muscle paralysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Preferred over atropine in rabbits

A

Glycopyrrolate
Parasympatholytics
Direct acting
Muscarinic antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Treat cycloplegia (horses) and bradycardia

A

Atropine
Parasympatholytics
Direct acting
Muscarinic antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Relaxes detrusor muscle.

A

Oxybutynin and Propantheline
Parasympatholytics
Direct acting
Muscarinic antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

All adrenergic receptors. Treat cardiac arrest, local anesthestia.

A

Epinephrine
Sympathomimetics
Direct acting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Alpha-1,2, beta-1 agonist. Cardiac arrest. No bronchodilation.

A

Norepinephrine
Sympathomimetics
Direct acting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Alpha-1 and beta-1 agonist. Effects depend on dose. Cardiac arrest.

A

Dopamine
Sympathomimetics
Direct acting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Beta-1 agonist. Positive inotropic/chronotropic. Short 1/2 life.

A

Dobutamine
Sympathomimetics
Direct acting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Beta-1 agonist. Positive inotropic/chronotropic effect. Bronchodilation.

A

Isoproterenol
Sympathomimetics
Direct acting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Alpha-1 agonist. Treat hypotension in cats and dogs. Increase peripheral vascular resistance.

A

Phenylephrine
sympathomimetics
Direct acting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Poke yourself with xylazine.

A

HYPOtension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Effect of alpha-2 agonist

A

Inhibition of NE release

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Alpha-2 agonist. Least selective. An emetic drug in cats (used more in large animals).

A

Xylazine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Alpha-2 agonist. Most selective. Commonly used for small animals. More potent vasoconstriction.

A

Dexmedetomidine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Initial (peripheral) phase: vasoconstriction

Later (central) phase: vasodilation > hypotension.

A

Alpha-2 agonists

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Effects on lungs leading to pulmonary edema in sheep.

A

Alpha-2 agonists.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Alpha-2 agonists. Standing procedures. Sublingual gel.

A

Detomidine (sublingual gel), Romifidine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Sedative, muscle relaxation, mild analgesia, biphasic repsonse.

A

Alpha-2 agonists

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Alpha-2 antagonists (Reverse all effects, including any analgsia). IM.
Which drug is the least selective? Which drug is the most selective?

A

Least selective: Yohimbine and tolazoline

Most selective: Atipamezole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Partitioning agent. Leanness in food animals.

A

Ractopamine and Zilpaterol
Non-selective beta agonists
Sympathomimetics
Direct acting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Equine dystocia. Bronchodilation.

A

Clenbuterol
Sympathomimetics
Direct acting
Beta-2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Used more in small animals. Uterine relaxation.

A

Terbutaline
Sympathomimetics
Direct acting
Beta-2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Bronchodilators, C-section in cattle, navicular disease in horses.

A

Isoxsuprine
Sympathomimetics
Direct acting
Beta-2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Aerosol inhaler in horses and cats. Salmeterol (Serevent, Advair).

A

Albuterol/Salbutamol
Sympathomimetics
Direct acting
Beta-2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Tricyclic antidepressants, selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor, monamine oxidase inhibitor.

A

Sympathomimetics

Indirect acting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Treat urinary incontinence.

A

Phenylpropanolamine (PPA)
Sympathomimetics
Indirect: increase NE (primary) and direct: alpha-1 agonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Increase BP. Urinary sphincter contraction.

A

Ephedrine
Sympathomimetics
Indirect: increase NE (primary) and direcT: alpha-1, beta agonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Urinary retention due to urethral hypertonicity. Pheochromocytoma.

A

Phenoxybenzamine
Sympatholytic
Direct (Irreversible)
Alpha antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Vasodilation. Urinary retention due to urethral hypertonicity.

A

Prazosin
Sympatholytics
Direct acting
Alpha-1 antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Treat tachyarrhythmias. Feline hyperthyroidism.

A

Propanolol
Sympatholytics
Beta-antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Better choice than propanolol with asthma patients.

A

Atenolol
Sympatholytics
Beta-1 antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Chocolate (Methylxanthine) toxicity.

A

Metoprolol
Sympatholytics
Beta-1 antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Class III anti-arrythmic.

A

Sotalol
Sympatholytic
Beta-antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Calming equines (long term stall rest)

A

Reserpine
Sympatholytics
Indirect acting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Face/tail > limbs > swallowing > abdominal muscles > respiratory muscles

A

Succinylcholine

Depolarizing neuromuscular blocker (non-competitive)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q 
Phase I (Ach receptors, prevents complete repolarization).
Phase II (Nicotinic receptors, paralysis)
IV!
A

Succinylcholine

Depolarizing neuromuscular blocker (non-competitive)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Competitive neuromuscular blocker (non-depolarizing) that is unchaged in urine.

A

Pancuronium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Competitive neuromuscular blocker that spontaneously degrades in plasma.

A

Atracurium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Competitive neuromuscular blockers that are metabolized by the liver and excreted in bile and urine.

A

Vecuronium and Rocuronium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Competitive neuromuscular blocker that has a fast onset of action.

A

Rocuronium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Terminated by sugammadex

A

Rocuronium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Increase bladder contractility (treat detrusor atopy)

A

Bethanechol
Parasympathomimetics
Direct acting
Muscarinic agonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Drug of choice (DOC) for tachyarrhythmias in cats?

A

Beta-blockers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Treatment of Incomplete AV block.

A

Atropine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Treatment of myocardial hypertrophy in cats.

A

Diltiazam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Treatment of hypertension in dogs (indirect vasodilation).

A

ACE inhibitors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Drug of choice for central diabetes insipidus?

A

Desmopressin (DDAVP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Drug of choice for ventricular tachycardia in dogs

A

Lidocaine

56
Q

Drug of choice for atrial fibrillation in horses

A

Quinidine

57
Q

Drug of choice for hypertension in cats

A

Amlodipine

58
Q

Drug of choice for nephrogenic diabetes insipidus

A

Thiazide diuretics

59
Q

Drug of choice for supraventricular tachyarrhythmias in dogs

A

Digoxin

60
Q

Moderate effect. PCT and descending limb. Diuretics.

A

Osmotic diuretics (mannitol)

61
Q

Moderate effect. Act on PCT. Treat open angle-glaucoma.

A

Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors (Acetazolamide, dorzolamide)

62
Q

Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors.

A

Acetazolamide, dorzolamide

63
Q

Weak diuretics. Late distal tubules and collecting duct.

A

K-sparing diuretics

64
Q

Aldosterone antagonist. Combine with loop/thiazide (prevent heart failure).

A

Spironolactone (K-sparing diuretics)

65
Q

Cause hypokalemia. Diuretics.

A

Osmotic, CA inhibitors, Loop, Thiazide

66
Q

Cause hyperkalemia. Diuretics.

A

K-sparing diuretics

67
Q

Cause acidosis. Diuretics.

A

K-sparing diuretics, CA inhibitors

68
Q

Cause alkalosis. Diuretics.

A

Loop, Thiazide

69
Q

Sodium Channel blockers. K-sparing diuretics.

A

Triamterene and Amiloride

70
Q

Most effective diuretic. High ceiling diuretic. Act on transporters.

A

Loop diuretics

71
Q

Treat drug overdose.

A

Mannitol

72
Q

Loop diuretics.

A

Furosemide

Bumetanide, Ethacrynic acid.

73
Q

K- sparing diuretics.

A

Spironolactone, Trameterene, Amilordie

74
Q

2nd most effective diuretic. Increase reabsorption of Ca2+.

A

Thiazide diuretics

75
Q

Thiazide diuretics

A

Hydrocholorothiazide and Chlorothiazide

76
Q

Treat dilated cardiomyopathy.

A

Inodilators (Pimobendan)
DON’T GET CONFUSED WITH HYPERTROPHIC CARDIOMYOPATHY (Because this drug should not be used for hypertrophic cardiomyopathy)
Early treatment: Carvedilol (beta-blocker)

77
Q

ACE inhibitors (Vasodilators, treat hypertension)

A

Enalapril, benazepril

78
Q

Diuretics. Cardiac stimulants.

A

Loop, thiazide, K-sparing.

79
Q

Drug of choice for cardiac resuscitation

A

Epinephrine

80
Q

Hydralazine

A

Arteriolar vasodilator

81
Q

Treat ANGINA

A

Nitrate

Calcium channel blockers (better than beta blockers)

82
Q

Calcium channel blockers (vasodilators and antihypertensive)

A

Verapamil, dilitizem, amlodipine

83
Q

Beta-blockers (indirect vasodilation)

A

Carvedilol, Metroprolol, Atenolol

84
Q

Decrease musculoskeletal tone. Alleviate muscle spasms, pain. Adjunct to anesthesia.

A

Peripherally acting muscle relaxants.

85
Q

Peripherally acting muscle relaxants

A

Dantrolene, Guaifenesin, Methocarbamol

86
Q

Muscle cells (muscle relaxant). Ryanodine receptor antagonist. Treat malignant hyperthermia. IV.

A

Dantrolene

87
Q

Spinal Cord (muscle relaxant). Used for equine (hypotension) and cattle (off label). May cause thrombophlebitis and hemolysis.

A

Guaifenesin

88
Q

Spinal cord (muscle relaxant). IVDD and urethral obstruction. Approved for dogs, cat,s horses.

A

Methocarbamol

89
Q

Behavioral change. Patient is relaxed. Aware of the surroundings.

A

Tranquilizer (neurokpetic, anxiolytic)

90
Q

Induces sleep

A

Hypnotic

91
Q

CNS depression and drowsiness, decreased awareness of surroundings.

A

Sedative

92
Q

Stupor bordering on anesthesia

A

Narcotic

93
Q

Catatonic state.

A

Dissociative anesthesia

94
Q

Non-painful procedures

A

Sedation and muscle relaxants

95
Q

Excitatory neurotransmitters

A

Glutamate (NMDA receptor), acetylcholine, 5-HT3

96
Q

Inhibitory neurotransmitters

A

GABA, glycine

97
Q

Sustained rise in body temp. Anesthetic halothane. Rhabdomyolysis

A

Malignant hyperthermia

98
Q

Involuntary muscle activity (postural tone), opisthotonos

A

Extrapyramidal signs

99
Q

Dopamine receptor antagonist.
Sedative, pre-med, antiemetic, antihistamine, antipsychotic (human).
NO analgesia.
Hypotension side effect.

A

Phenothiazines

100
Q

Dopamine receptor antagonist. Boxers sensitive. Aggressive dogs become more aggressive. Hypotension side effect.

A

Acepromazine

101
Q

Butyrophenone (similar effects as phenothiazines)

A

Azaperone and Haloperidol

102
Q

Feather picking behavior in birds.

A

haloperidol

103
Q

Reducing aggression in pigs.

A

Azaperone

Butorphanol - Azaperone - Medetomidine for darting wild ungulates.

104
Q

Sedation/anxiolytic, muscle relaxant, anticonvulsant, appetite stimulant, minimal cardio/resps.
NO analgesia.

A

Benzodiazepines

105
Q

Potentiate GABA receptors.

More effective in ruminants.

A

Benzodiazepines

106
Q

Benzodiazepines

A

Diazepam, midazolam, alprazolam, flumazenil

107
Q

Control prevent of a cluster seizures. IV.

A

Diazepam

108
Q

IM version of diazepam.

A

Midazolam

109
Q

Outpatient management for non-acute seizures.

A

Alprazolam

110
Q

Reversal agent for benzodiazepines (inverse agonists and antagonists)

A

Flumazenil

111
Q

Schedule II drug. Full mu agonists.

Analgesia, preanesthetic, neuroleptanalgesia, antitussive, emesis.

A

Morphine, hydromorphone, oxymorphone, fentanyl, carfentanil

112
Q

Full mu agonist. Most histamine release. Higher incidence of vomiting. Combined with BUPIVACAINE for epidurals.

A

Morphine

113
Q

Full mu agonists. Less histamine release than morphine.

A

Hydromorphone and Oxymorphone (more expensive)

114
Q

Full mu agonist. Transdermal solution. More portent and lipophilic than morphine.

A

Fentanyl

115
Q

Full mu agonist. Very potent. Darting wild animals.

A

Carfentanil

116
Q

Full mu agonist. Mixed agonist at mu, kappa, delta. Darting wild animals.

A

Etrophine.

117
Q

Partial mu agonist. Beneficial for cats. More potent than morphine. NO ANALGESIA.

A

Buprenorphine

118
Q

Mixed mu agonist/antagonist. Analgesia. Visceral pain in animals.

A

Butorphanol

119
Q

Respiratory suppression but analgesia will be reversed. Block full mu agonists.

A

Full mu antagonists

120
Q

Reversal of Carfentanil and Etorphine. Long duration.

A

Naltrexone and Diprenorphine.

121
Q

Full mu antagonists.

A

Naloxone, Naltrexone, Diprenorphine, Metylnaltrexone

122
Q

To reverse opioid induced resp or cardio depression in patients that received a full mu agonist.

A

Naloxone

123
Q

Often formulated with homatrpine or acetaminophen. Orally in dogs as an antitussive. Schedule II drug.

A

Hydrocodone (opioid)

124
Q

Analgesia. Excitement. Surgical anesthesia. Medullary paralysis. Death.

A

General anesthesia

125
Q

Potentiate GABA receptors. Dose Dependent CNS depression.

A

General anesthesia

126
Q

Barbiturates

A

Phenobarbital, pentobarbital, thiopental

127
Q

Euthanasia barbiturate

A

Pentobarbital

128
Q

Barbiturate used to control seizures

A

Phenobarbital

129
Q

Cause myoclonic movements, epilepticus, CNS excitatory toxicant.
Cats: Heinz body, Horses: Excitement at induction.
IV slowly

A

Propofol (Propoflo, Propoflo28)

130
Q

Neurosteroid analog of progesterone. Less cardiovascular effect than propofol. IV and IM.

A

Alfaxalone

131
Q

Avoid in Addison’s, fewer cardiovascular effects (no cardio depression)

A

Etomidate

132
Q

Burbiturate that does not completely relax abdominal muscle. NO CRI. Cats more sensitive.

A

Thiopental

133
Q

Catalepsy, amnesia, and anesthesia. NMDA receptor block. IV, IM (painful). Resp. stimulation at low and suppression at high. NO MUSCLE TONE (reflexes preserved).

A

Dissociative agents

134
Q

Dissociative agents

A

Ketamine and Tiletamine

135
Q

Class III controlled substance. SPECIAL K (Street drug). Anesthesia.

A

Ketamine

136
Q

Combination with Zolazepam (benzodiazepine). Rough recovery for dogs. Anesthesia.

A

Dissociative agents

Pharmacology I JK (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions