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CHN NIP Flashcards

1
Q

What is the National Immunization Program (NIP)?

A

An essential public health service that confers artificial immunity to population groups.

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2
Q

What is the general goal of the NIP?

A

To reduce morbidity and mortality among infants and children caused by childhood immunizable diseases.

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3
Q

What is the FIC?

A

Fully Immunized Child.

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4
Q

What does PD No. 996 of 1976 provide?

A

Compulsory basic immunization for infants and children below 8 years old.

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5
Q

What is the significance of RA 10152 of 2011?

A

It mandates health immunization for children up to 5 years of age and includes new vaccines.

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6
Q

What disease does the Bacillus Calmette Guerin (BCG) vaccine target?

A

Tuberculosis and Leprosy.

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7
Q

What is a normal reaction to the BCG vaccine?

A

Wheal for 30 minutes followed by ulceration within 2 weeks and scar formation within 3 months.

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8
Q

What is Koch’s phenomenon?

A

An acute inflammatory reaction within 2-4 days after vaccination, indicating previous exposure to tuberculosis.

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9
Q

What should be done if a deep abscess occurs at the vaccination site?

A

Refer to the physician for incision and drainage.

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10
Q

What is an indolent ulcer?

A

An ulcer that persists after 12 weeks from vaccination.

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11
Q

How should an indolent ulcer be treated?

A

With Isoniazid Powder (INH).

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12
Q

What does glandular enlargement indicate?

A

Enlargement of the lymph glands draining the injection site.

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13
Q

What should be done if suppuration occurs at the injection site?

A

Treat as a deep abscess with incision and drainage (IND).

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14
Q

What is the age for administering the Hepatitis B vaccine?

A

At birth.

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15
Q

What is the route and site for the Hepatitis B vaccine?

A

IM (Intramuscular) at the Vastus lateralis.

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16
Q

What are common side effects of the Hepatitis B vaccine?

A

Local soreness at the injection site.

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17
Q

What is the age for administering the Pentavalent vaccine?

A

6, 10, and 14 weeks.

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18
Q

What diseases does the Pentavalent vaccine protect against?

A

Diphtheria, Pertussis, Tetanus, Hepatitis B, and Hemophilus Influenza B.

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19
Q

What is a common side effect of the Pentavalent vaccine?

A

Fever that usually lasts for only 1 day.

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20
Q

What should be done if fever lasts beyond 24 hours after the Pentavalent vaccine?

A

It is not due to the vaccine but to other causes.

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21
Q

What is the age for administering the Oral Polio Vaccine (OPV)?

A

6, 10, and 14 weeks.

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22
Q

What type of virus is used in the Oral Polio Vaccine?

A

Live-attenuated virus.

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23
Q

What is the route for administering the Inactivated Polio Vaccine (IPV)?

ROUTE?

A

Intramuscular (IM) at the Vastus Lateralis site.
Route: PO

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24
Q

What age is the Inactivated Polio Vaccine (IPV) administered?

A

At 14 weeks.

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25
Q

What are the side effects of the Measles Mumps Rubella (MMR) vaccine?

A

Local soreness, fever, irritability, and malaise in some children.

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26
Q

What should be given to promote epithelialization and increase immunity after MMR vaccination?

A

200,000 IU of Vitamin A.

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27
Q

What is the recommended age for administering the Pneumococcal Conjugate Vaccine (PCV)?

A

At 6, 10, and 14 weeks, and one dose for 2-5 years old.

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28
Q

What is the nursing management consideration for a child who vomits after vaccination?

A

Administer another dose if the child vomits.

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29
Q

What is the eligible age for Pentavalent vaccines?

A

Up to 5 years.

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30
Q

How should vaccines be administered if multiple vaccines are given in the same leg?

A

They should be at least 2.5-5 cm apart.

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31
Q

What should caregivers be reminded to comply with regarding immunization?

A

The prescribed schedule of routine immunization for every clinic visit.

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32
Q

What is the management for local tenderness after Pneumococcal Conjugate Vaccine (PCV) administration?

A

Apply a cold compress.

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33
Q

What should caregivers of children be informed about regarding immunization?

A

Common side effects and how to deal with them.

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34
Q

What are the conditions for reusable vaccines to last a maximum of 4 weeks?

A

Expiry date not passed, cold chain conditions observed, aseptic technique used, VVM not reached discard portion, and septum not submerged in water.

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35
Q

What vaccine is given to children under 9 months during a measles epidemic?

A

Measles Rubella (MR) vaccine.

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36
Q

What is the administration method for the MR vaccine?

A

Reconstituted with 2 ampules of diluent to make 6 ml, then administered 0.5 ml subcutaneously.

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37
Q

What vaccine is given to children aged 9 months to 5 years during a measles epidemic?

A

Measles, Mumps Rubella (MMR) vaccine.

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38
Q

What are absolute contraindications for vaccination?

A

Any serious condition needing hospitalization and immunocompromised conditions such as AIDS.

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39
Q

What conditions are NOT considered contraindications for vaccination?

A

Fever up to 38.5°C, mild acute respiratory infection, simple diarrhea, and malnutrition (considered an indication).

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40
Q

What is the recommended storage temperature for OPV, BCG, and MR vaccines?

A

Between -15°C to -25°C.

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41
Q

What is the recommended storage temperature for Pentavalent, Hepatitis B, Diphtheria, and Tetanus vaccines?

A

2°C to 8°C.

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42
Q

What is the maximum transport period for vaccines with cold packs?

A

5 days.

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43
Q

How should the vaccine vial monitor (VVM) be interpreted?

A

If the square is lighter than the circle and the expiry date is not passed, use the vaccine

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44
Q

What is the goal of the Child Health Services Nutrition Program?

A

To improve quality of life through better nutrition, improve health, and increase productivity.

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45
Q

What are the four components of the Child Health Services Nutrition Program?

A

Complementary feeding, micronutrient supplementation, food fortification, and deworming.

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46
Q

What does the ‘First Expiry, First Out’ (FEFO) principle refer to?

A

A proper vaccine storage method.

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47
Q

What is the purpose of the Vaccine Vial Monitor?

A

To ensure proper vaccine storage and effectiveness.

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48
Q

What law is known as the ‘Asin Law’?

A

RA 8172, which regulates the nutritional program.
An Act for Salt Iodization Nationwide

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49
Q

What does PD No. 491 declare?

A

July as Nutrition Month and creates the National Nutrition Council.

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50
Q

What is the significance of EO 382?

A

It declares December 7 as National Fortification Day.

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51
Q

What does RA 8976 mandate?

A

The mandatory fortification of rice, wheat flour, refined sugar, and cooking oil.

52
Q

When should complementary feeding start for infants?

A

At 6 months of age.

53
Q

What are the key characteristics of complementary foods?

A

They should be timely, adequate, safely prepared, and properly fed.

54
Q

What is the purpose of the deworming program?

A

To help reduce the risk of developing malnutrition among children.

55
Q

What is the aim of the Adolescent Health and Development Program (ADHP)?

A

To improve the health status of adolescents and enable them to fully enjoy their rights to health.

56
Q

What is the mission of the ADHP?

A

To ensure that all adolescents have access to comprehensive health care and services in an adolescent-friendly environment.

57
Q

What trend was observed in adolescent fertility rates in the Philippines?

A

A slight decline was observed in adolescent fertility rates and related metrics.

58
Q

What is the purpose of human papillomavirus (HPV) vaccination for adolescents?

A

To help protect against cervical, vaginal, and vulvar cancers associated with HPV infection.

59
Q

What is the reported trend in violence against women and children in the Philippines?

A

There is a declining trend in reported cases over the past three years.

60
Q

What is the management for mild abdominal pain after deworming?

A

Give antispasmodic.

61
Q

What should be done for erratic worm migration?

A

Pull out worms from the mouth or nose or from other body parts.

62
Q

What is the recommended deworming dosage for children aged 24-59 months?

A

1 tab of Mebendazole 500 mg.

63
Q

What is the purpose of weekly iron and folic acid supplementation?

A

To assess health and nutrition status and identify nutritionally-at-risk adolescent girls.

64
Q

What is the role of the Department of Health (DOH) in adolescent health?

A

To provide guidelines for appropriate immunization and health services.

65
Q

What are noncommunicable diseases (NCDs)?

A

Medical conditions that are noninfectious and nontransmissible, often referred to as chronic or lifestyle-related diseases.

66
Q

What contributes to the development of NCDs?

A

Unhealthy lifestyle choices.

67
Q

What was the leading cause of mortality in the Philippines in 2016?

A

Ischemic Heart Disease.

68
Q

How many deaths were caused by ischemic heart disease in the Philippines in 2016?

A

74,134 deaths.

69
Q

What is the second leading cause of mortality in the Philippines in 2016?

A

Neoplasm.

70
Q

What is the annual global death toll from cardiovascular diseases?

A

17.9 million deaths.

71
Q

What are the general terms used to refer to diseases involving the heart and blood vessels?

A

Cardiovascular diseases.

72
Q

What type of counseling is recommended for managing menstruation irregularities?

A

Counseling on proper nutrition, mental health, and avoidance of risk-taking behaviors.

73
Q

What is the rank of diabetes mellitus among the leading causes of mortality in the Philippines in 2016?

A

6th rank.

74
Q

What is cerebrovascular disease commonly known as?

A

Stroke.

75
Q

What is the primary cause of cerebrovascular diseases?

A

Diseases of the blood vessels supplying the brain.

76
Q

What blood pressure reading is considered hypertension according to WHO?

A

Equal to or above 140 mm Hg systolic or 90 mm Hg diastolic.

77
Q

What is atherosclerosis?

A

A disease characterized by deposits of fats and cholesterol within the artery walls.

78
Q

What is the blood pressure range for Stage 1 Hypertension?

A

130-139 mm Hg systolic and 80-89 mm Hg diastolic.

79
Q

What constitutes a hypertensive crisis?

A

Blood pressure higher than 180 mm Hg systolic and 120 mm Hg diastolic.

80
Q

What is considered optimal LDL cholesterol level?

A

Less than 100 mg/dL.

81
Q

What total cholesterol level is considered desirable?

A

Less than 200 mg/dL.

82
Q

What HDL cholesterol level is considered low?

A

Less than 40 mg/dL.

83
Q

What is the second most common cause of death worldwide?

A

Cancer.

84
Q

How many people die annually due to cancer worldwide?

A

Over 9 million.

85
Q

What was the leading cancer killer in the Philippines in 2015?

A

Lung cancer.

86
Q

What type of cancer ranked 1st among women in the Philippines in 2015?

A

Breast cancer.

87
Q

What is a carcinogen?

A

A substance that causes genetic mutations in cells.

88
Q

List some lifestyle-related factors that contribute to cancer.

A

Cigarette smoking, unhealthy diet, alcohol drinking, physical inactivity, overweight/obesity.

89
Q

What does the acronym CAUTION US stand for in cancer warning signals?

A

Change in bowel or bladder habits, A sore that does not heal, Unusual bleeding or discharge, Thickening or lump in breast, Indigestion or difficulty swallowing, Obvious change in a wart or mole, Nagging cough or hoarseness, Unexplained anemia, Sudden weight loss.

90
Q

What is Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD)?

A

A condition affecting the lungs where the airways narrow over time, including chronic bronchitis, chronic asthma, and emphysema.

91
Q

What is a strong risk factor for developing COPD?

A

Smoking.

92
Q

What is diabetes mellitus characterized by?

A

High levels of blood sugar due to insufficient insulin production or ineffective use of insulin.

93
Q

What is the fasting blood sugar (FBS) level for diagnosing diabetes?

A

≥ 99 mg/dL.

94
Q

What was the prevalence of diabetes among adults in the Philippines in 2017?

A

6.2% or 3,721,900 people.

95
Q

List some symptoms of diabetes mellitus.

A

Increased urination, increased thirst, constant hunger, weight loss, vision changes, fatigue.

96
Q

What are some complications of diabetes mellitus?

A

Heart diseases, neuropathies, amputation, kidney disease.

97
Q

What are some risk factors for noncommunicable diseases?

A

Physical activity, cigarette smoking.

98
Q

What is the best way to protect the public against noncommunicable diseases (NCDs)?

A

By learning how to prevent them or delay their onset.

99
Q

What are the recommended practices for a healthy lifestyle?

A

Promote physical activity and exercise, healthy diet and nutrition, a smoke-free environment, and stress management.

100
Q

What is physical activity?

A

Any bodily movement produced by skeletal muscles that results in energy expenditure.

101
Q

How is exercise defined in relation to physical activity?

A

A planned, structured, repetitive activity aimed at improving or maintaining physical fitness or health.

102
Q

What does physical fitness measure?

A

A person’s ability to perform physical activities with vigor and alertness without undue fatigue.

103
Q

What defines an ‘insufficiently active’ individual?

A

Not getting any moderate or vigorous intensity physical activity beyond basic daily movements.

104
Q

What is considered ‘active’ in terms of physical activity?

A

Doing the equivalent of 150 to 300 minutes of moderate-intensity physical activity a week.

105
Q

Why is good nutrition important?

A

It is a primary determinant of good health and a cornerstone in preventing NCDs.

106
Q

What is a key practice for building a healthy base of nutrition?

A

Choose foods sensibly.

107
Q

What classification system is used for overweight and obesity?

A

International Classification of Overweight and Obesity by BMI, Waist Circumference, and Associated Disease Risk.

108
Q

What is the BMI range for normal weight?

A

18.50 - 24.99.

109
Q

What waist circumference indicates increased disease risk for men?

A

40 inches (102 cm) or more.

110
Q

What waist circumference indicates increased disease risk for women?

A

35 inches (88 cm) or more.

111
Q

What is the BMI classification for obesity class I?

A

30.0 - 34.99.

112
Q

What is a major risk factor for developing cardiovascular and cerebrovascular diseases?

A

Smoking.

113
Q

What is the BMI classification for overweight?

A

25.0 - 29.9.

114
Q

What is the classification for severe underweight?

A

< 16.

115
Q

What is the first step in the Quick Reference Guide for Treating Tobacco Use and Dependence?

A

Systematically identify all tobacco users at every visit.

116
Q

What does the ‘Advise’ step entail in tobacco cessation?

A

Strongly urge all tobacco users to quit.

117
Q

What is the purpose of the ‘Assess’ step in tobacco cessation?

A

Determine willingness to make a quit attempt.

118
Q

What does the ‘Assist’ step involve in the tobacco cessation process?

A

Aid the client in quitting.

119
Q

What is the definition of stress according to Selye (1936)?

A

The nonspecific response of the body to any demand on it.

120
Q

What is the Philippine Package of Essential Noncommunicable Disease (PhilPEN)?

A

A prioritized set of cost-effective interventions for early detection and management of NCDs.

121
Q

What role does a physician play in the Primary Health Care Center?

A

Receives NCD referrals, examines patients, prescribes medications, and promotes adherence.

122
Q

What responsibilities does a nurse have in the Primary Health Care Center?

A

Conduct risk assessment, screening, measure vital signs, and provide healthy lifestyle counseling.

123
Q

What role does a dietitian play in the healthcare team?

A

Provides dietary advice and support.

124
Q

What is the role of a smoking cessation specialist?

A

To assist individuals in quitting smoking.

125
Q

essential public health service and is the process of conferring artificial immunity to population groups

A

Immunization

126
Q

resistance and protection from disease attributed to the presence of antibodies in the blood

A

Immunity

CHN (6 decks)

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