Chemotherapy Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 4 types of chemotherapy

A

Neo-adjuvant - given before surgery to reduce tumour size
Adjuvant - Chemotherapy given to destroy left-over (microscopic) cells that may be present after the known tumor is removed by surgery.
Palliative
Immunotherapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Why is chemotherapy given in 3 week cycles

A

To allow bone marrow cells to recover - they are also targeted as they are rapidly dividing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Antimetabolites - describe their action , give an example

A

Interfere with metabolic pathways in DNA synthesis

Folate antagonist - prevent synthesis of nucleotides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

False substrates mechanism of action

A

Pyrimidine analogues
Inhibits thymidylate synthase
Incorporated into DNA leading to damage of DNA = cell dies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Alkylating agents - mechanism of action

A

More side effects

Causing cross linking of DNA via alkylation = DNA cannot unwind = defective DNA replication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Platinum chemotherapy - mechanism of action; main side effect

A

Inhibition of DNA synthesis by cross-linking guanine residues (prevent helix from unwinding )

Nausea with use is very common

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Anthracycline antibiotics - mechanism of action; adverse effect

A

intercalation (slotting between) DNA strands –> inhibition of topoisomerase (involved in uncoiling of DNA) + free radical generation –> inhibition of DNA synthesis

Cardio toxicity is a side effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Topoisomerase II inhibitors

A

Inhibition of topoisomerase II presents ligation of DNA leading to breaks in DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Microtubule inhibitors

A

Vinca alkaloids block the formation of mitotic spindle - required for mitosis
Taxanes stabilise spindle fibres - this prevents the migration of chromosomes during anaphase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Side effects of chemotherapy

A

Inhibit growth of gut epithelia and hair loss

Myelosuppression can lead to anaemia and low neutrophil counts (neutropenic sepsis due to decreased resistance to infection)

Infertility

Cardio toxicity - damage to heart muscle resulting in impaired heart activity (SoB, chest pain, peripheral oedema, palpitations and dizziness)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Treating side effects if chemotherapy

A

Colony stimulating factors to increase WBC count

Prevent infections with antibiotics and anti fungal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Describe the principle of targeted anticancer therapy.

A

Exploits faulty genes/signalling pathways/tumour growth/angiogenesis
Hormonal targets
Molecular testing to determine receptor expression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Describe the relevance of human epidermal growth factor receptor-2 as a target in anti-cancer treatment.

A

Naturally present in low levels but over expressed in some cancers, breast cancer most commonly

Due to oncogene activation

Affects gene transcription and cell cycle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Describe the role of tyrosine kinase inhibitors in anticancer treatment. identify the two cancer they usually used for

A

Tyrosine kinase leads to uncontrolled cell proliferation
Imatinib inhibits TK activity
Selective inhibitor very effective for Chronic Myeloid Leukaemia
Also used for gastro-intestinal stroma tumours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Describe the role of proteasome inhibitors in anticancer treatment.

A

Proteosomes: cellular structures which degrade proteins
Some proteins kill cancer cells: pro-apoptotic factors
Inhibition of intracellular proteasomes alters the regulation of intracellular proteins
eg bortezomib used in multiple myeloma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Describe the role of anti-VEGF based drugs in anticancer treatment.

A

Vascular Endothelial Growth Factor
VEGF secreted to promote angiogenesis
Angiogenesis: blood vessel growth to support metastasis
Bevacizumab: monoclonal antibody
Advanced colonic and breast cancer
Sunitinib: inhibits VEGF-associated receptor tyrosine kinase
Advanced renal carcinoma

17
Q

Symptoms of ovarian cancer

A
Abdominal pain 
Persistent indigestion/nausea
Bloating
Pain during sex
Altered bowel habits
Back pain
Vaginal bleeding
Tired all of the time
Unintentional weight loss
18
Q

Tamoxifen - describe its mechanism of action

A

Blocks oestrogen as a selective estogen-receptor modulator (SERM)

Prevents breast cancer /reduces growth of breast cancer (must be ER +)

Also prevents bone loss

19
Q

Aromatase inhibitors

A

Androgens converted to oestrogens via aromatase in post-menopausal women
Oestrogens promote tumour growth in ER+ breast cancers

20
Q

what is the philadelphia chromosome? which cancer is it associated with?

A

An abnormality of chromosome 22 in which part of chromosome 9 is transferred to it; associated with Chronic Myeloid Leukaemia
produces bcr-abl protein which promotes tyrosine kinase activity

21
Q

Describe the epidermal growth factor (EGF receptor) kinase

A

they are a type of tyrosine kinase receptors

epidermal growth proteins are needed for cell signaling pathways that control cell division and survival

22
Q

PARP inhibitors - mechanism of action; which cancers are treated with them?

A

PARP is a DNA-repairing enzyme (single-strand break)
BRCA genes important in DNA repairs - if mutation occurs here = PARP inhibition = inability of cancer cells to repair double strand breaks=cell death
used for breast, prostate and ovarian cancer