Chemistry Flashcards
Water at room temperature usually has a slightly acidic pH. This is largely attributed to what compound(s)?
a. Sulfuric acid
b. Dissolved metals
c. Carbonic acid
d. Nitric acid
c. Carbonic acid
When benzoic acid dissolves in water, it partially reacts with water and ionizes to form benzoate and hydronium ions. In this reaction, what is the conjugate acid?
a. Benzoate ions
b. Hydronium ions
c. Water
d. Benzoic acid
b. Hydronium ions
Define a salt in terms of acid and base.
a. A salt is a compound that follows Le Chatelier’s Principle in reactions with other compounds.
b. All of these
c. A salt is a compound formed when the nucleus of a hydrogen tom enters a quantity of water.
d. A salt is a compound (other than water) produced by the reaction of an acid and a base.
d. A salt is a compound (other than water) produced by the reaction of an acid and a base.
When a can of soda is opened and CO2 is released to the atmosphere, what is the resultant pH of the soda?
a. Decreases
b. Increases
c. The same
d. All these
b. Increases
Which of the following pairs will form a buffer
solution in the course of a titration?
a. Nitric acid, sodium hydroxide
b. Sulfuric acid, potassium hydroxide
c. Acetic acid, sodium hydroxide
d. Hydrochloric acid, potassium hydroxide
c. Acetic acid, sodium hydroxide
Buffer capacity is maximum when:
a. pH = 0.5pKa
b. pH = pKa
c. pH = 2pKa
d. pH = 0.1pKa
b. pH = pKa
Which of the following acids would be most
suitable for preparing a buffer of pH 3.1?
a. Hydrogen peroxide, pKa = 11.65
b. Propanoic acid, pKa = 4.874
c. Cyanoacetic acid, pKa = 2.472
d. Sulfanilic acid, pKa = 3.232
d. Sulfanilic acid, pKa = 3.232
The distance of the Earth to the most remote known
normal galaxy is calculated to be:
a. 2x10^22m
b. 1.4x10^26m
c. 4x10^16m
d. 9x10^25m
d. 9x1025m
- An antique capillary tube is submitted to the National Museum. The said tube, fixed horizontally in its display case, contains a 10 cm air column, being blocked by an 8 cm column of mercury towards the open end of the tube. What will be the length of the air column when the tube is fixed vertically with the open end down, assuming that the pressure prior to changing its orientation is 1 atm?
A. 9.0 cm
B. 10.1 cm
C. 11.2 cm
D.12.3 cm
C. 11.2 cm
- An antique capillary tube is submitted to the National Museum. The said tube, fixed horizontally in its display case, contains a 10 cm air column, being blocked by an 8 cm column of mercury towards the open end of the tube. What will be the length of the air column when the tube is fixed vertically with the open end up, assuming that the pressure prior to changing its orientation is 1 atm?
A. 9.0 cm
B. 10.1 cm
C. 11.2 cm
D.12.3 cm
A. 9.0 cm
- An antique capillary tube is submitted to the National Museum. The said tube, fixed horizontally in its display case, contains a 10 cm air column, being blocked by an 8 cm column of mercury towards the open end of the tube. What will be the length of the air column when the tube is fixed vertically with the open end up but slanted at a 45° from the horizontal, assuming that the pressure prior to changing its orientation is 1 atm?
A. 9.0 cm
B. 9.31 cm
C. 11.2 cm
D.12.3 cm
B. 9.31 cm
- A certain gas confined in a cylinder by a piston, where the initial pressure in the system is 7 bar and the volume is 0.11 cubic meter. The piston is held in place by latches and the apparatus is in vacuum. Determine the change in energy when the latches are removed suddenly and the gas expands to double its initial volume and the piston strikes the latches at the end of the process.
A: 1.54 kJ
B: 0.77 kJ
C: 0.59 kJ
D: No change
D: No change
- A traveler is exploring various locations in the Philippines. During one of her journeys, she realized that she forgot to boil the eggs beforehand. She knows that the average time to boil an egg, under 1 bar, is 3 minutes. If she can boil all of the eggs at the same time, where should she boil the eggs if she can only stop in each location for no more than 3 minutes?
A: Jaro, Iloilo
B: Mandaluyong, Metro Manila
C: Tagum, Davao
D: Cabanatuan, Nueva Ecija
A: Jaro, Iloilo
- What is the empirical formula of the Human DNA?
A: C31H52O34N18P6
B: C37H46O21N10P7
C: C34H55O36N19P2
D: C39H50O22N15P3
D: C39H50O22N15P3
Which among the following polymers is the most suitable in creating the most effective bulletproof vest?
A: Polymethacrylate Fiber
B: Polyamide Fiber
C: Polycarbonate Fiber
D: Polyethylene Fiber
D: Polyethylene Fiber
Which among the following polymers is the most suitable in creating the most effective bulletproof windows?
A: Polymethacrylate Fiber
B: Polyamide Fiber
C: Polycarbonate Fiber
D: Polyethylene Fiber
C: Polycarbonate Fiber
Which among the following polymers is the most suitable in creating plexiglass and acrylites?
A: Polymethacrylate Fiber
B: Polyamide Fiber
C: Polycarbonate Fiber
D: Polyethylene Fiber
A: Polymethacrylate Fiber
- An unmarked container for an organic compound is meant for waste disposal. To properly dispose the compound, samples of it were tested in various ways to gather data that would divulge its identity. The results of the tests are as follows:
[1] – 0.10 g of the compound gave 0.0756 g of water and 0.2882 g of carbon dioxide
[2] – 0.20 g of the compound was able to produce 21.8 mL of nitrogen at 15 deg C and 760 mmHg
[3] – 0.125 g of platinum remained after
0.40 g of the platinichloride of the compound was ignited Assuming the compound is a monoacid organic base, What is its molecular formula?
A: C2H9N3
B: C5H4N3
C: CH3N2
D: C7H9N
D: C7H9N
Which subatomic particle gives identity of an element?
A: Proton
B: Electron
C: Neutron
D: A and B
A: Proton
To which subatomic particle does each statement refer to:
(a.) Has a positive charge
(b.) Cannot be found inside the nucleus
(c.) Has the smallest mass
(d.) Has a neutral charge
A: Electron, Neutron, Electron, Proton
B: Proton, Electron, Electron, Neutron
C: Neutron, Proton, Neutron, Electron
D: Proton, Electron, Neutron, Proton
B: Proton, Electron, Electron, Neutron
Which among the following statements regarding Classical Physics and Quantum Theory is TRUE?
I – Robert Bunsen proposed that Energy, like matter, is discontinuous.
II – Quantum Theory places no limitation on the amount of energy that a system may possess.
III – The energy of a quantum of electromagnetic radiation is proportional to the frequency of the radiation.
A:I,II
B:II,III
C: II only
D. III only
D. III only
The precision of knowing a particles momentum indicates that its loci would be impossible to determine is one way of interpreting which among the following?
A: Aufbau Principle
B: Pauli Exclusion Principle
C: Compton Effect
D: Heisenberg Principle
D: Heisenberg Principle
Which element constituted the need of a new group in the original design of Dmitri Mendeleev’s Periodic Table?
A: Gallium
B: Argon
C: Mercury
D: Tungsten
B: Argon
Which among the following statements is TRUE?
A: Cadmium and Bromine are both diamagnetic.
B: Cadmium and K^+1 can be affected by an external magnetic force.
C: The potassium and chromium ions are both paramagnetic.
D: Cr^3+ is more affected by an external magnetic force in comparison to Bromine.
D: Cr^3+ is more affected by an external magnetic force in comparison to Bromine.
What intermolecular forces CH3CHOHCH3 does have?
A: Hydrogen Bonding only
B: London Forces and Hydrogen Bonding
C: Dipole-Dipole Forces and Hydrogen Bonding
D: London Forces, Dipole-Dipole Forces, and Hydrogen Bonding
D: London Forces, Dipole-Dipole Forces, and Hydrogen Bonding
How many water molecules can attach to methanol via hydrogen bonding?
A: 2
B: 3
C: 4
D: 5
B: 3
Arrange the following substances in order of increasing magnitude of London Forces: GeCl4, SiCl4, and CCl4.
A: GeCl4 < CCl4 < SiCl4
B: CCl4, GeCl4 <SiCl4
C: CCl4 < SiCl4 < GeCl4
D: SiCl4, GeCl4 < CCl4
C: CCl4 < SiCl4 < GeCl4
Which among the following substances has the highest surface tension?
A:CCl4
B:CH3OH
C:CH3CH2OCH2CH3
D:NOTA
B:CH3OH
Which among the following is the most soluble acid in ethanol?
A: CH3(CH2)14COOH
B: CH3COOH
C: C17H35COOH
D: C18H32O2
B: CH3COOH
- Determine whether the following statements are TRUE or FALSE.
(a.) The internal energy of a system comprises that of the energy of every single microscopic particle that makes up that system
(b.) Heat and work can be conserved in a system by distributing it evenly amongst the systems constituents
(c.) delta U being equal to the summation of heat and work is an interpretation of the First Law of Thermodynamics
(d.) delta H can be interpreted as the heat transferred under constant volume conditions.
A: False, False, True, True
B: True, True, True, True
C: False, True, True, False
D: True, False, True, False
D: True, False, True, False
When methane is combusted with an excess amount of air, carbon dioxide and water vapor is produced. What is the temperature of the product mixture if both reactants were at an initial temperature of 0 deg C?
A: 1530 deg C
B: 1874 deg C
C: 2238 deg C
D: 2516 deg C
C: 2238 deg C
- A 58 kg diabetic chemical engineer was given a project that will be conducted at a summit point with an elevation of 1450 m in Mount Katanglad. Conscious of his glucose levels, he decided to determine the amount of it that will be metabolized in the climb. For this purpose, he assumed that the work performed is about four times that required in lifting an equal weight body up the entire elevation. If 70% of the heat from the metabolism of glucose was efficiently converted to work, how much of it was metabolized?
A: 146 grams
B: 302 grams
C: 582 grams
D: 795 grams
B: 302 grams
Determine whether the following statements are TRUE or FALSE:
(a.) Ludwig Boltzmann introduced the concept of entropy and elucidated its behavior in order to explain the direction of spontaneous change
(b.) When the temperature of a system is increased, the number of feasible microstates decrease, effectively leading to an increase in entropy
(c.) A process wherein two ideal gases in separate bulbs, both at a pressure of 1 bar, are connected and allowed to expand into the total volume, exhibits a positive change in entropy
A: True, False, True
B: False, False, True
C: True, True, False
D: False, True, False
B: False, False, True
Which among the following relationships fully encapsulates the idea of the Second Law of Thermodynamics
A: delta S_system < 0
B: delta S_universe > delta S_system + delta S_surrounding
C: delta S_universe > 0
D: delta S_system < delta S_surrounding
C: delta S_universe > 0
- For each of the following processes, determine the trend of the enthalpy and entropy
(A.) Ethyl Alcohol evaporating from a glass container
(B.) A diatomic molecule dissociates into atoms
(C.) Charcoal is burned to form carbon dioxide and water
A: delta H > 0, delta S < 0; delta H > 0, delta S < 0; delta H < 0, delta S > 0
B: delta H > 0, delta S > 0; delta H < 0, delta S > 0; delta H > 0, delta S < 0
C: delta H > 0, delta S > 0; delta H > 0, delta S > 0; delta H < 0, delta S > 0
D: delta H < 0, delta S < 0; delta H > 0, delta S < 0; delta H > 0, delta S > 0
C: delta H > 0, delta S > 0; delta H > 0, delta S > 0; delta H < 0, delta S > 0
Make an educated guess! Which among the following substances would closely obey Trouton’s Rule?
A: Water
B: Toluene
C: Hydrogen Fluoride
D: Butanol
A: Water
For the combustion of liquid acetylene in the presence of oxygen, liquid water and carbon dioxide gas is produced. Given this reaction, which among the following statements is TRUE?
A: Since delta S is positive, delta G is more negative than delta H
B: Since delta S is negative, delta G is more negative than delta H
C: Since delta S is positive, delta G is less negative than delta H
D: Since delta S is negative, delta G is less negative than delta H
D: Since delta S is negative, delta G is less negative than delta H
For the following pairs, determine which system has the greater chemical potential
[1] (1A): One mole of liquid water at 100 deg C or (1B): One mole of water vapor at 100 deg C
[2] (2A): 10.0 g of Fe at 2 deg C or (2B): 10.0 g of Fe at 35 deg C
[3] (3A): 25 L of air at 1 atm pressure or (3B): 25 L of air compressed isothermally to 100 atm pressure
A: 1A, 2A, 3A
B: 1B, 2A, 3B
C: 1A, 2B, 3A
D: 1B, 2B, 3B
D: 1B, 2B, 3B
An aqueous solution of mannitol in water has a vapor pressure of 17.504 mmHg at 20oC, at which temperature, the vapor pressure of pure water is 17.535 mmHg. What is the freezing point depression of the solution?
A: 0.186°C
B: 0.194°C
C: 0.211°C
D: 0.237°C
A: 0.186°C
A solution of 3.795 g of sulfur in 100 g of carbon disulfide (Boiling Point = 46.3 deg C) boils at 46.66 deg C. What is the formula of the sulfur molecule in the solution? Use an ebullioscopic constant of 2.42 for carbon disulfide.
A: S2
B: S4
C: S6
D: S8
D: S8
1000 g of a 1 molal aqueous solution of sucrose is cooled and maintained at a temperature of -3.534 deg C. How much ice, do you approximate, will separate out from the solution?
A: Less than 200 g
B: Between 300 to 500 g
C: greater than 700 g
D: Inefficient amount of information
B: Between 300 to 500 g
A chef from Makati specializing in molecular gastronomy decided to perform an experiment for fun. He bought a red balloon filled with air and poured liquid nitrogen over it. What will happen to the pressure inside the balloon?
A: It increases
B: It decreases
C: Remains the same
D: Not enough info
B: It decreases
A laboratory analysis requires mixing a variety of solutions. One solution requires mixing 3.00 L of 0.92 M Copper (II) Nitrate with 7.00 L of an unknown concentration of Sodium Hydroxide while a separate solution is prepared by mixing 2.00 M of Potassium Hydroxide and 12.0 M Oxalic Acid. What are the states of the Copper(II) Hydroxide and Potassium Oxalate produced?
A: Cu(OH)2 and K2C2O4 are both solids.
B: Cu(OH)2 is a liquid while K2C2O4 is a gas.
C: Cu(OH)2 is a gas while K2C2O4 is a solid.
D: Cu(OH)2 is a solid while K2C2O4 is a liquid.
D: Cu(OH)2 is a solid while K2C2O4 is a liquid.
Several pints of blood were collected during a Red Cross Program across several universities in Manila. From those collected, a peroxidase enzyme was isolated from a human red blood cell. Performing a quick analysis shows that it contained 0.29% of Selenium. What is the minimum molecular weight of the enzyme?
A: 2.31x10^5
B: 2.75x10^4
C: 3.10x10^6
D: 5.88x10^8
B: 2.75x10^4
Which among the following third gas that William Ramsay with Morris Travers?
A: Argon
B: Neon
C: Krypton
D: Xenon
D: Xenon
1st Neon, 2nd Krypton
How many carbon atoms are there in one molecule of “buckyball”?
A: 20
B: 40
C: 60
D: 80
C: 60
Determine which particles are being described by each of the following statements:
[a.] Has the greatest penetrative capability
[b.] Sometimes called as the positive electron
[c] Contact with it can cause the greatest biological destruction
[d] Cannot be affected by a magnetic field
A: Alpha Particles, Beta Particles, Gamma Rays, Positron
B: Gamma Rays, Positron, Alpha Particles, Gamma Rays
C: Beta Particles, Neutrino, Alpha Particles, Beta Particles
D: Neutrino, Positron, Gamma Rays, Beta Particles
B: Gamma Rays, Positron, Alpha Particles, Gamma Rays
Which among the following scientists discovered radioactivity?
A: Marie Curie
B: Henri Becquerel
C: Otto Hahn
D: Ernest Rutherford
B: Henri Becquerel
For a criminal case, two men are interrogated in regards to an attempted poisoning of a police officer. During the investigation, it was found out that both men had traces of Polonium-210 on their hands while a third accomplice of theirs had Po-210 on his clothes. Through analysis of the police officers stomach content, it was confirmed that he had ingested Po-210. Which among them is/are bound to die if not properly treated?
A: The police officer only
B: The two men and the third accomplice
C: The police officer and the two men
D: All four of them
A: The police officer only
Fill in the blank: Protium is a/an ______ of Hydrogen while Protium, Deuterium, and Tritium comprise the Hydrogen _______.
A: Isotope, Isotopes
B: Nuclide, Nuclides
C: Nuclide, Isotopes
D: Isotope, Nuclides
C: Nuclide, Isotopes
Which among the following radioactive decay series does not occur naturally?
A: Actinium Series
B: Uranium Series
C: Neptunium Series
D: Thorium Series
C: Neptunium Series
Also artificial: Plutonium Series
To which decay series does Rn-219 and Ac-225 belong to respectively?
A: Actinium Series and Plutonium Series
B: Uranium Series and Actinium Series
C: Thorium Series and Uranium Series
D: Plutonium Series and Thorium Series
A: Actinium Series and Plutonium Series
Which among the following statements regarding Sb-122 and Xe-136 is TRUE?
A: Sb-122 is more stable than Xe-136 because of its atomic number
B: Xe-136 and Sb-122 are radioactive
C: Xe-136 is more stable than Sb-122 because of the amount of its neutrons
D: Sb-122 and Xe-136 are both stable
C: Xe-136 is more stable than Sb-122 because of the amount of its neutrons
Determine whether each of the following statements is True or False
[a]: Calcium-42 is more abundant in natural sources in comparison to Calcium40
[b.] Phosphorus-29 undergoes beta particle emission in order to become more stable
[c.] Potassium-45, a radioactive nuclide, undergoes positron emission in order to reach a new level of stability
A: True,True,True
B: False,True,True
C: True,False,False
D: False,False,False
D: False,False,False
Which among the following can detect the neutrons produced by U-235 undergoing nuclear fission?
A. A Geiger Counter containing Fluorine Gas
B. A Scintillation Counter containing Zinc Sulfide and Xenon
C: A Geiger Counter containing Argon and Boron trifluoride
D: A Scintillation Counter containing Tungsten Carbide
C: A Geiger Counter containing Argon and Boron trifluoride
Which among the following is the phosphor of a scintillation counter intended for the detection of gamma radiation?
A: Zinc Sulfide
B: Metastable Technetium-99
C: NaI Crystals containing Thallium (II) Iodide
D: Buckminsterfullerene
C: NaI Crystals containing Thallium (II) Iodide
A sample of Pitchblende from Bataan is being analyzed for its age. For this analysis, the amounts of Uranium-238 and Lead-206 were determined. If the results show that nuclides mass ratio is 0.2:1 for the U-238:Pb-206. What is the age of the mineral? Assume a half-life of 4.5x10^9 years for the process.
A: 1.35x10^9 yrs
B: 1.62x10^9 yrs
C: 1.73x10^9 yrs
D: 1.89x10^9 yrs
A: 1.35x10^9 yrs
Determine the age of a mineral sample which contains 50.05 mg of 238-Uranium and 14.05 mg of 206-Lead. Assume a half life for the process of 238-U and 206-Pb at 4.52x10^9 years.
A: K = 1.50x10^-10 per year; 75.2 mg 238 U; 2.20x10^9 years old
B: K = 1.80x10^-9 per year; 66.2 mg 238 U; 1.80x10^9 years old
C: K = 0.90X10^-8 per year; 56.1 mg 238 U; 1.30X10^9 years old
C: K = 2.10X10^-9 per year; 87.1 mg 238 U; 2.80X10^9 years old
B: K = 1.80x10^-9 per year; 66.2 mg 238 U; 1.80x10^9 years old
Define atomic mass unit.
A: The mass of one Carbon-12 atom
B: One half the mass of a carbon-14 mole
C: One-twelfth the mass of a Carbon-12 atom
D: One-twelfth the mass of 6.022x10^23 atoms of Carbon-14
C: One-twelfth the mass of a Carbon-12 atom
Determine the binding energy per nucleon involved in the formation of a single silver-107 atom. The measured mass of the nuclide in question is 106.879289 atomic mass units.
A: 4.51 MeV/nucleon
B: 6.33 MeV/nucleon
C: 8.58 MeV/nucleon
D: 9.61 MeV/nucleon
C: 8.58 MeV/nucleon
Based on the units commonly used in Nuclear Chemistry, which among the following measures the amount of energy acquired by an electron when it falls through an electric potential difference of 1 volt?
A: Ci
B: Bq
C: eV
D: Gy
C: eV
Which among the following can cause the greatest damage to a material assuming that all of them can penetrate it equally?
A: 100 rad Gamma rays
B: 100 rad Beta Emission
C: 100 rad Neutron Emission
D: 100 rad Alpha Emission
D: 100 rad Alpha Emission
Which among the following statements regarding Nuclear Fusion and Nuclear Fission is False?
A: Nuclear fusion involves the amalgamation of lighter nuclei in order to form heavier, stabler nuclei
B: The maximum binding energy per nucleon can be achieved at a mass number of 60
C: Nuclear fusion releases more energy than Nuclear fission on a per nucleon basis
D: The fragmentation of heavier nuclides displays a relatively plateau decrease in binding energy when compared to the reverse
C: Nuclear fusion releases more energy than Nuclear fission on a per nucleon basis
In which among the following can a Cherenkov Radiation be observed?
A: In the Water surrounding the core of a Nuclear Reactor
B: In the Mushroom Cloud produced after a Hydrogen Bomb Explosion
C: In a particle accelerator after the bombardment of two nuclides
D: In the Sun’s Corona during a Solar Eclipse
A: In the Water surrounding the core of a Nuclear Reactor
The Bataan Nuclear Power Plant is planned to be retrofitted in hopes of using it for the first time. One point of concern is the material that would be used in the outer portions of the room housing the fuel rods. If the radiation coming from the fuel rods would be a strong beta emission, which material among the following should be utilized?
A: 1.00 cm of Aluminum
B: 7.50 m of Concrete
C: 8.0 mm of Lucite
D: 35.0 m of Lead
C: 8.0 mm of Lucite
Across the three most notorious accidents regarding nuclear power plants: Three Mile Island, Chernobyl, and Fukushima, what is the most common cause for their failure that led to several environmental problems?
A: A leak in the fuel rods initiating an explosion
B: Bursting of reactor due to uncontrolled pressurized steam
C: Loss of proper cooling and/or moderator
D: Run-off chain reactions of the fissile material
C: Loss of proper cooling and/or moderator
Which among the following statements regarding Nuclear Fission is FALSE?
A: Nuclear Fission is a nuclear reaction in which a heavy nucleus splits into lighter nucleus and energy is released
B: A series of self-sustaining nuclear fissions is called a nuclear chain reaction
C: Nuclear Fission is the main proponent of nuclear power plants, atomic bombs, and hydrogen bombs
D: Critical mass is the minimum amount of a fissionable material that can cause a nuclear chain reaction
C: Nuclear Fission is the main proponent of nuclear power plants, atomic bombs, and hydrogen bombs
Hydrogen bombs are nuclear fusion
Which among the following radioactive nuclides is often attributed as the greatest source of radiation that affects most of the population?
A: Strontium-90
B: Americium-241
C: Polonium-218
D: Radon-222
D: Radon-222
Which among the following radioactive nuclides is used as a radioactive tracer for agricultural crops and eye disease treatments
A: Strontium-90
B: Americium-241
C: Polonium-218
D: Radon-222
A: Strontium-90
Which among the following radioactive nuclides is used in smoke detectors
A: Strontium-90
B: Americium-241
C: Polonium-218
D: Radon-222
B: Americium-241
A nuclear chemist from the Philippine Nuclear Research Institute is dissolving a sample of NaCl, that contains the radioactive sodium-24, in 100 mL aliquot of aqueous sodium nitrate. The mixture was subsequently cooled in order to recrystallize the sodium nitrate salt. Which among the following is true?
A: The chloride anions will selectively reform an ionic bond with the sodium-24 cation
B: The sodium nitrate crystals should be non-radioactive
C: All of the sodium-24 cations would specifically bond with the nitrate ion due to its electron-distribution capability
D: Some of the anions will randomly bond with the sodium-24 nuclide
D: Some of the anions will randomly bond with the sodium-24 nuclide
Actinium-227 can decay into two nuclides. One forming Thorium-227 and the other as Francium-223. With respect to radioactive decay, the half life of Ac227 is 21.8 years. If the fractional yield of Th-227 and Fr-223 is 0.012 and 0.988 respectively, what is the decay rate constant for each of the respective paths leading to the daughter nuclides?
A: 3.82x10^-4 per year; 0.0314 per year
B: 4.12x10^-4 per year; 0.0172 per year
C: 2.75x10^-5 per year; 0.1221 per year
D: 6.92x10^-5 per year; 0.0719 per year
A: 3.82x10^-4 per year; 0.0314 per year
A 1.0 g sample of microline (KAlSi3O8), containing K-40, was allowed to undergo radioactive decay. Based on literature data, 89% of the nuclide undergoes beta particle emission while the remainder undergoes electron capture and positron emission. How many beta particles are produced per second if the percent natural abundance of the concerned nuclide is 0.0117%. The half life of K-40 is 1.26x10^9 years.
A: 4.0 B: 8.0 C: 12.0 D: 16.0
A: 4.0
Friedrich Wohlers work on isomerism was able to curb the growth of vitalism by disproving the old notion that organic compounds can only come from organic sources. Which among the following was the product produced in Wohler’s synthesis?
A: Ammonium Cyanate
B: Urea
C: Carbon Disulfide
D: Acetic Acid
B: Urea
What did Jons Jacob Berzelius contribute?
A. Synthesis of Urea
B. Experiment on Isomerism
C. Conversion of Acetic Acid
D. Production of Ammonium Cyanate
B. Experiment on Isomerism
Who first converted carbon disulfide into acetic acid?
A. Jons Jacob Berzelius
B. Friedrich Wohler
C. Adolph Wilhelm Hermann Kolbe
D. August Kukule
C. Adolph Wilhelm Hermann Kolbe
Who among the following constituted the concept of resonance in order to take explain the structures of molecules or ions that are not accounted for by the octet rule?
A: August Kekule
B: Linus Pauling
C: Gilbert Lewis
D: Robert Robinson
B: Linus Pauling
Which among the following statements highlights the actual difference between Lewis Structures and Resonance
A: Lewis structures shows how the atoms of a molecule are bonded to one another while the resonance represents the different substituent combinations
B: Lewis structures focuses on the localization of electrons while resonance features the electrons capacity of being delocalized among the atoms
C: Resonance structures represent the various ways in which a molecule can be drawn while the Lewis structure represents the accepted “True” structure of the molecule
D: A resonance structure and Lewis structure are virtually indistinguishable from one another
B: Lewis structures focuses on the localization of electrons while resonance features the electrons capacity of being delocalized among the atoms
Determine whether each of the following statements pertaining to constitutional isomers is TRUE or FALSE.
[a.] They have the same molecular formula
[b.] They have the same molecular weight
[c.] They have the same connectivity to their atoms
[d.] They have the same physical properties
A: T, F, F, F
B: T, T, F, F
C: F, T, T, T
D: T, F, T, F
B: T, T, F, F
Explain the difference in structure between a saturated hydrocarbon from an unsaturated hydrocarbon.
A: Any of these
B: A saturated hydrocarbon only contains carbon-carbon single bonds while an unsaturated hydrocarbon contains one or more carbon-carbon double or triple bonds
C: A saturated hydrocarbon is used mainly in cheaper forms of gasolines for vehicle use while unsaturated hydrocarbons compose most of the gasoline formulae used by current gasoline manufacturers
D: A saturated hydrocarbon can no longer accept any hydrocarbon or inorganic element, and compound while an unsaturated hydrocarbon is more flexible in reaction mechanisms
B: A saturated hydrocarbon only contains carbon-carbon single bonds while an unsaturated hydrocarbon contains one or more carbon-carbon double or triple bonds
Which among the following can be the possible structures of a molecule that has the molecular formula C5H8?
A: Alkane and Alkene with a single double bond
B: Alkene with a single double bond and Alkyne with a single triple bond
C: Cycloalkane and an Alkene with two double bonds
D: Cycloalkene with a single double bond and two rings
B: Alkene with a single double bond and Alkyne with a single triple bond
An entomologist extracted pheromone samples from a moth captured in the wilds of Maguindanao. Based on a spectroscopic analysis, the molecule is a 2-methyl branched alkane. If it has a molecular weight of 254, what is the IUPAC name of the alkane?
A: 2,3-dimethylhexadecane
B: 2-methylheptadecane
C: 2,2,4-trimethylpentadecane
D: 2-methyloctadecane
B: 2-methylheptadecane
For each of the following organic molecules, determine which one is more stable relative to the other.
[a] Hexane or Octane
[b] 2-methylpentane or 2,2-dimethylpropane
[c] 3-methylpentane or 3,3-dimethylpentane
A: Hexane, 2,2-dimethylpropane, 3-methylpentane
B: Octane, 2-methylpentane, 3-methylpentane
C: Octane, 2,2-dimethylpropane,
3,3-dimethylpentane
D: Hexane, 2-methylpentane, 3,3-dimethylpentane
A: Hexane, 2,2-dimethylpropane, 3-methylpentane
Which among the following molecules is an improperly named consitutional isomer of the compound: 2,3-dimethylpentane?
A: 3-ethylpentane
B: 3,4-dimenthlypentane
C: heptane
D: 2,2,3-trimethylbutane
B: 3,4-dimenthlypentane
Which has a higher absolute entropy at a temperature of 25 deg C, cyclopropane or propylene? Why?
A: Both have the same absolute entropy at normal temperature
B: Propylene due to the free rotation around the carbon-carbon single bond
C: Cyclopropane due to the free rotation around the carbon-carbon double bond
D: None of these
B: Propylene due to the free rotation around the carbon-carbon single bond
Fatty acid such as lauric acid, palmitic acid, and oleic acid are long unbranched carboxylic acids consisting of 12 to 20 carbon atoms. Which type of fatty acid should people avoid ingesting, saturated or unsaturated and why?
A. Saturated, because the risk of cardiovascular disease is increased
B. Fatty Acids are safe to ingest
C. Unsaturated because the risk of cardiovascular disease is increased
D. Both fatty acids because the risk of cardiovascular disease is increased
A. Saturated, because the risk of cardiovascular disease is increased
Which among the following statements is true regarding the boiling point and density of an unsubstituted alkane and a halogen-substituted alkane?
A:Both the boiling point and density of a halogen-substituted alkane is larger than that of its unsubstituted alkane counterpart.
B: Both the boiling point and density of an unsubstituted alkane is larger than that of its halogen-substituted alkane counterpart.
C: The boiling point of an unsubstituted alkane is larger than its halogen substituted counterpart but their density are equal.
D: The density of a halogen substituted alkane is larger than that of its unsubstituted alkane counterpart but their boiling points are the same.
A:Both the boiling point and density of a halogen-substituted alkane is larger than that of its unsubstituted alkane counterpart.
Which among the following compounds will rapidly react with hydrogen bromide in order to form its corresponding alkyl bromide?
A: 2-methylbutane
B: 2-butanol
C: Cyclohexanol
D: 1-ethylcyclopentanol
D: 1-ethylcyclopentanol
How is a carbocation stabilized by the alkyl groups attached to it?
A: The alkyl groups release an electron density on the positively charged carbon in order to disperse the positive charge
B: The electrons that are sigma to the positively charged carbon has its orbital overlap with the vacant p orbital of the positively charged carbon
C: The leaving group transfers some of its electrons to the carbocation in order to disperse the positive charge
D: The electrons in the alpha-Carbon hydrogen bonds greatly distributes the positive charge as opposed to the betacarbon hydrogen bonds
A: The alkyl groups release an electron density on the positively charged carbon in order to disperse the positive charge
Rearrange the following alkenes the order of increasing stability:
[a] 2,4-dimethyl-1-pentene
[b] 2,4,4-trimethyl-2-pentene
[c] 2,4-dimethyl-2-pentene
[d] (Z)-4,4-dimethyl-2-pentene
A: B < D < A < C
B: C < B < D < A
C: D < A < C < B
D: A < D < B < C
A: B < D < A < C
Which among the following organic compounds will be produced when 2,4-dimethyl-3-pentanol is heated to 120 deg C in the presence of sulfuric acid?
A: 2,4-dimethyl-1 pentene
B: 2,4-dimethyl-2-pentene
C: Both A and B
D: Neither A and B
C: Both A and B
Which among the following reagents will not synthesize cyclohexanol if the starting material is cyclohexene?
A: [1] Diborane, [2] Hydrogen Peroxide, Sodium Hydroxide
B: Bromine and Water
C: Water with Sulfuric Acid
D: [1] 9-BBN, [2] Basic Hydrogen Peroxide
B: Bromine and Water
- A chemical engineering student is studying the reaction mechanism of a certain compound V. In one of the runs, compound V was dissolved in methanol and subsequently reacted with ozone, forming compound W. Compound W later underwent reduction through a reaction with dimethyl sulfide forming Acetone and Acetaldehyde. Identify Compound V.
A: 3-methyl-2-butene
B: 2-methyl-1-butene
C: 3-methyl-1-butene
D: 2-methyl-2-butene
D: 2-methyl-2-butene
Who among the following proposed the idea correlating Molecular Geometry and Valence Electron Pairs that would later become the Valence Shell Electron Pair Repulsion (VSEPR) Theory?
A: Nevil Sidgwick
B: Ronald Nyholm
C: Herbert Powell
D: Ryutaro Tsuchida
B: Ronald Nyholm
What is the electron-group geometry of CO2, H2S, and XeF4?
A: Linear, Tetrahedral, Octahedral
B: Tetrahedral, Octahedral, Trigonal bipyramidal
C: Linear, Trigonal Planar, Octahedral
D: Octahedral, Trigonal bipyramidal, Tetrahedral
A: Linear, Tetrahedral, Octahedral
What is the molecular geometry of CO2, H2S, and XeF4?
A: Linear, Seesaw, Square Pyramidal
B: Bent, Tetrahedral, T-shaped
C: Linear, Bent, Square Planar
D: Octahedral, Square Planar, Seesaw
C: Linear, Bent, Square Planar
What is the hybridization scheme for the central atom of NO3^-1?
A: sp2 B: sp3 C: sp3d D: sp3d2
A: sp2
Linus Pauling introduced the concept of hybridization of orbitals in order to take into account the known geometries of certain compounds, which did not include ____.
A: H2O B: NH3 C: CH4 D: H2S
D: H2S
What is the Nujol Mull in organic chemical reactions?
A: It is a mass spectrum technique and is obtained by grinding up a solid which is mixed with mineral oil to form a suspension for IR spectroscopy
B: It is the name of a type of paraffin oil from India and most often used in gas chromatography to enhance the mass transfer properties of compounds
C: It is a process applied for inorganic compounds to determine the effervescence of the compound under study
D: It is suspension in mineral oil which is placed in between HgCl, AgI, and KCl, or stainless-steel plates to obtain a good spectrum.
A: It is a mass spectrum technique and is obtained by grinding up a solid which is mixed with mineral oil to form a suspension for IR spectroscopy
What are sigmatropic rearrangements in organic reactions?
A: They are similar to the (3,3) cope rearrangement where the beta ring of a steroid undergoes photon activated retroelectrocyclization
B: They are thermal reactions which do not allow the formation of six membered benzene ring with a cis or trans alkene such as in the formation of Vitamin D3
C: They are different from electrolytic reactions wherein movement of a sigma bond with a simultaneous rearrangement of the pi-system does not occur
D: They are not the same to the (3,3) cope arrangement and the beta ring does not undergo photon activated retro electrocyclization
A: They are similar to the (3,3) cope rearrangement where the beta ring of a steroid undergoes photon activated retroelectrocyclization
An ideal gas will only be considered in the following operating parameters:
a. High Temperature, High Pressure
b. High Temperature, Low Pressure
c. Low Temperature, High Pressure
d. Low Temperature, Low Pressure
b. High Temperature, Low Pressure
Which ofthe following isfalse regarding absolute
zero?
a. All molecules will stop moving
b. Absolute zero can be achieved
c. Temperature is 0K
d. Temperature is 0R
b. Absolute zero can be achieved
For a real gas, what causes the deviation from
the ideal pressure at a molecular level?
a. Energy is lost for each collision against the sides of the container
b. Energy is lost due to the collision of molecules with one another
c. Intermolecular forces of attraction of the molecules with one another
d. Molecules randomly hit the sides of the wall with less force than usual
c. Intermolecular forces of attraction of the molecules with one another
When gas molecules collide, they experience ____ collision.
a. Perfectly elastic
b. Imperfect elastic
c. Perfectly inelastic
d. Imperfect inelastic
a. Perfectly elastic
Which of the following is false with KMT?
a. Gas molecules move in random motion
b. Due to collision of gas molecules with each other, some kinetic energy is lost
c. The temperature of the whole system does not change with time
d. The size of the molecules are negligible
b. Due to collision of gas molecules with each other, some kinetic energy is lost
This is the pressure exerted by the gas molecules that are in equilibrium with the liquid.
a. Partial pressure
b. Atmospheric pressure
c. Total pressure
d. Vapor pressure
d. Vapor pressure
The internal energy of an ideal gas depends on:
a. Volume
b. Absolute temperature
c. Pressure
d. Number of moles
b. Absolute temperature
The state of an ideal gas is changed in a closed path 1→2→3→4→1. Which of the following is true about the work done on the gas?
a. W12>0, W23=0, W34<0, W41=0
b. W12<0, W23=0, W34=0, W41>0
c. W12=0, W23>0, W34=0, W41<0
d. W12=0, W23<0, W34=0, W41>0
d. W12=0, W23<0, W34=0, W41>0
Which of the following is a characteristic of an adiabatic process?
a. ΔU=0
b. W=0
c. Q=0
d. ΔV=0
c. Q=0
A sample of an ideal gas has an internal energy of U and is then compressed to 1⁄2 of its original volume while the temperature stays the same. What is the new internal energy of the ideal gas in terms of U?
a. U
b. U/2
c. U/4
d. 2U
a. U
Which of the following is not conserved in any process?
a. Mass
b. Energy
c. Momentum
d. Entropy
d. Entropy
An isentropic process is:
a. Isothermal and adiabatic
b. Reversible and isothermal
c. Reversible and adiabatic
d. Reversible and isochoric
c. Reversible and adiabatic
Increasing the temperature of the cold reservoir _____ the Carnot efficiency.
a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. Does not change
d. NOTA
b. Decreases
If the entropy of a system decreases, the entropy of its surroundings
a. Must always increase
b. Must always decrease
c. May increase or decrease
d. Not enough information to answer the question
a. Must always increase
Which of the following is not true?
A. (∂G/∂P)_T = V
B. (∂H/∂P)_T = V
C. (∂G/∂T)_P = -S
D. (∂H/∂V)_T = -S
D. (∂H/∂V)_T = -S
Which of the following is not true?
A. (∂G/∂P)_T = V
B. (∂G/∂T)_P = -S
C. (∂H/∂P)_S = V
D. (∂A/∂V)_T = -S
D. (∂A/∂V)_T = -S
should be (∂A/∂V)_T = P
Which of the following is true?
A. (∂T/∂V)_S = (∂P/∂S)_V
B. (∂P/∂T)_V = -(∂S/∂V)_T
C. (∂T/∂P)_S = (∂V/∂S)_P
D. (∂V/∂T)_S = (∂D/∂P)_T
C. (∂T/∂P)_S = (∂V/∂S)_P
Enthalpy can be expressed as a function of T and P. This relationship is shown by:
A. dH = CpdT + [V - T(∂V/∂T)_P]dP
B. dH = CpdT + [P - T(∂P/∂T)_V]dP
C. dH = CpdT + [T(∂V/∂T)_P - V]dP
C. dH = CpdT + [T(∂P/∂T)_V - P]dP
A. dH = CpdT + [V - T(∂V/∂T)_P]dP
The amount of heat absorbed when CO2 gas reacts with a solid CaO to form solid CaCO3 is measured in a bomb calorimeter. The data obtained give a direct measure of:
a. ΔU
b. VΔP
c. ΔH
d. CP
a. ΔU
Heat required to raise the temperature of 1lbm of
water by 1 ̊F.
a. Calorie
b. BTU
c. Specific heat
d. Heat capacity
b. BTU
Which of the following statements is/are true?
1. The criterion of equilibrium at constant temperature and pressure is dG=0.
2. For a reversible process, dS=dQ/T.
a. 1 only
b. Both 1 and 2
c. 2 only
d. None of the above
b. Both 1 and 2
The general statement of the Third Law of Thermodynamics is attributed to:
a. Nikolaus Otto
b. Jacobus Clapeyron
c. William Clausius
d. Walther Nernst
d. Walther Nernst
The general statement of the Zeroth Law of Thermodynamics is attributed to:
a. Ralph Howard Fowler
b. Walther Nernst
c. Rudolf Emmanuel Clausius
d. William Clausius
a. Ralph Howard Fowler
The general statement of the First and Second Law of Thermodynamics is attributed to:
a. Ralph Howard Fowler
b. Walther Nernst
c. Rudolf Emmanuel Clausius
d. William Clausius
c. Rudolf Emmanuel Clausius
The equilibrium intensive state of a system is described by specifying the temperature, pressure, and:
a. Mole fractions
b. Number of moles
c. Volume
d. Chemical potential
a. Mole fractions
The fugacity of a real gas is equal to:
a. The pressure of an ideal gas which has the same chemical potential as the real gas
b. The pressure of a real gas which has the same chemical potential as the ideal gas
c. The chemical potential of an ideal gas which has the same pressure as the real gas
d. The chemical potential of a real gas which has the same pressure as the ideal gas
a. The pressure of an ideal gas which has the same chemical potential as the real gas
An adiabatic process is one in which the system under investigation is thermally isolated so that there is no exchange of heat with the surroundings. Thus, the work done on a closed system in an adiabatic process is _____.
a. Equal to zero
b. Not equal to the exchange of heat with surroundings
c. Equal to the increase in internal energy of the system
d. Not equal to the increase in internal energy of the system
c. Equal to the increase in internal energy of the system
If enthalpy is defined as present in a constant pressure process change of state, using the relationship of ΔH=ΔU+ΔPV, where H is enthalpy, U is the energy change in the system and PV represents pressure and volume states, determine the ΔU and ΔH of 1kg of water when vaporized at constant temperature of 100 ̊C and constant pressure of 101.35kPa. The specific volumes of liquid and vapor water are 0.001041 and 1.67m3/kg. An amount of 2257kJ of heat is added to the water.
a. ΔU=2087kJ; ΔH=2257kJ
b. ΔU=2378kJ; ΔH=2221kJ
c. ΔU=2226kJ, ΔH=2378kJ
d. None of these
a. ΔU=2087kJ; ΔH=2257kJ
A certain gas confined in a cylinder by a piston, where the initial pressure in the system is 7 bar and the volume is 0.11 cubic meter. The piston is held in place by latches and the apparatus is in vacuum. Determine the change in energy when the latches are removed suddenly and the gas expands to double its initial volume and the piston strikes the latches at the end of the process.
a. 11.54kJ
b. 0.77kJ
c. 0.59kJ
d. No change
d. No change
State Le Chatelier’s Principle.
a. Le Chatelier’s principle states that when a stress is placed on a system in equilibrium, the system tends to change in a way that relieves the stress.
b. All of these
c. Examples of the application of Le Chatelier’s principle are blowing your breath through a straw and dissolving alka seltzer tablet in a glass of water.
d. Le Chatelier’s principle explains both the formation and decomposition of acids, where anything that might act to increase the concentration of an acid would produce an increase in the other components so as to keep the numerical
a. Le Chatelier’s principle states that when a stress is placed on a system in equilibrium, the system tends to change in a way that relieves the stress.
Determine which of the following occurrences tells us what happens when Le Chatelier’s principle is applied whether these are true or false.
1. The addition of a component causes the equilibrium to shift to the opposite side
2. The removal of a component causes the equilibrium to the side from which the component is removed
3. Increasing the temperature drives an exothermic reaction to the side of the reactants, an endothermic equilibrium to the side of the products
4. The addition of a catalyst has NO effect on the position of the equilibrium
a. T, F, T, F
b. T, T, T, T
c. F, T, F, T
d. F, F, F, F
b. T, T, T, T
Define entropy.
a. Entropy is a function of the state of the system and determines whether a physical change or chemical reaction can occur simultaneously in a closed system
b. Entropy is the opposite of enthalpy
c. Entropy determines the time required for a reaction to proceed and complete
d. All of these
d. All of these
Determine whether the changes in entropy (ΔS) and enthalpy (ΔH) are positive, negative, or near zero.
- Ethyl alcohol evaporating from glass container
- A diatomic molecule dissociates into atoms
- Charcoal is burned to form CO2 and water
a. 1. ΔH>0, ΔS>0; 2. ΔH>0, ΔS>0; 3. ΔH>0, ΔS>0
b. 1. ΔH<0, ΔS<0; 2. ΔH>0, ΔS<0; 3. ΔH>0, ΔS<0
c. 1. ΔH>0, ΔS<0; 2. ΔH<0, ΔS>0; 3. ΔH>0, ΔS>0
d. 1. ΔH<0, ΔS>0; 2. ΔH<0, ΔS<0; 3. ΔH<0, ΔS<0
a. 1. ΔH>0, ΔS>0; 2. ΔH>0, ΔS>0; 3. ΔH>0, ΔS>0
Choose the process that occurs with a decrease in entropy.
a. Freezing of water
b. Boiling of water
c. Dissolving salt in water
d. Sublimation of dry ice
a. Freezing of water
A vessel of volume 22.4dm3 contains 2mol H2 and 1mol N2 at 273.15K. What is the total pressure inside the vessel? Assume ideal gas.
a. 1atm
b. 2atm
c. 3atm
d. 4atm
c. 3atm
Applying the combined gas laws, determine the volume of 1mol of Ne(g) in a flask at the temperature of 25 ̊C and a pressure of 1atm.
a. 12.2L
b. 18.6L
c. 32.21L
d. 24.51L
d. 24.51L
In the combustion of 25g of methane gas, what is the volume of oxygen required at 25 ̊C and 0.21atm?
a. 411
b. 298
c. 363
d. 521
c. 363
Determine the volume of carbon dioxide in cubic feet occupied by 120lb at a pressure of 1.5atm. (T=40 ̊C)
a. 750
b. 490
c. 560
d. 680
a. 750
If 1mol of an ideal gas is kept at 0 ̊C, during an expansion from 3.0 to 10.0L, examine and calculate how much work is done as the gas during expansion.
a. -2.2x10^4J
b. -5.4x10^3J
c. -7.8x10^4J
d. -2.7x10^3J
d. -2.7x10^3J
In a gas mixture containing 100mg/L of H2S gas at 25 ̊C and 1atm, determine the partial pressure exerted by the gas.
a. 0.071
b. 0.003
c. 0.101
d. 0.006
a. 0.071
Which of the following does not have a zero enthalpy of formation at 298.15K?
a. Li(g)
b. He(g)
c. Hg(l)
d. Br2(l)
a. Li(g)
Calculate the net and the gross heats of
combustion for methane gas.
a.-491kJ; -998kJ/mol
b.-362kJ; -731kJ/mol
c.-891kJ/mol; -802kJ/mol
d.-598kJ; -1120kJ/mol
c.-891kJ/mol; -802kJ/mol
Perry’s T-179
If 5g of methane gas is burned at constant pressure, determine the heat released in kJ if the change in entropy that accompanied the reaction is -890kJ.
a. -360.00K
b. -250.01K
c. -278.12K
d. -192.00K
c. -278.12K
The standard molar enthalpy change is -905kJ for the oxidation of ammonia, 4NH3(g)+5O2→4NO(g)+6H2O(g). Analyze and calculate the standard molar enthalpy of formation for ammonia based on the following standard enthalpies of formation:
HF[NO(g)]=+90kJ/mol; and HF[H2O(g)]=-240kJ/mol
a. -227kJ/mol
b. -500kJ/mol
c. -406kJ/mol
d. -692kJ/mol
a. -227kJ/mol
It is the property of a fluid that is caused by
shearing effect of a fluid layer moving past
another layer.
a. Density
b. Viscosity
c. Flow
d. Compressibility
b. Viscosity
The Clapeyron Equation gives the slope:
a.dV/dT
b.dT/dP
c.dT/dV
d.dP/dT
d.dP/dT
The Clausius-Clapeyron Equation does NOT
apply to:
a. S-V equilibrium
b. L-V equilibrium
c. S-L equilibrium
d. None of these
c. S-L equilibrium
What is the Clapeyron Equation?
a. Any of these
b. It postulates that the colligative properties, freezing point depression, boiling point elevation, osmotic pressure, and vapor pressures are all dependent on the number f particles in the solution and any change thereof is described.
c. It postulates that if two components systems consisting of solid and liquid phases are miscible in the liquid state and immiscible in the solid state, only the pure solid systems will separate out on cooling solutions.
d. It postulates that if the temperature and pressure are both change in such a way as to keep the chemical potentials of two phases equal to each other, the rates of change are given by the equation.
d. It postulates that if the temperature and pressure are both change in such a way as to keep the chemical potentials of two phases equal to each other, the rates of change are given by the equation.
The coexistence curve where the plot of pressure versus temperature along which the two phases coexist was shown by Clausius-Clapeyron. What did Clausius postulate?
a. The Clapeyron equation was simplified by assuming that the vapor obeys the ideal gas law and by neglecting the molar volume of the liquid VL in comparison with the molar volume of the gas VG
b. The Clausius-Clapeyron equation does not apply to this situation
c. The Clausius-Clapeyron theory is applicable only for vaporization and sublimation condition
d. Both scientists apply their postulates to linear and curvilinear representation
a. The Clapeyron equation was simplified by assuming that the vapor obeys the ideal gas law and by neglecting the molar volume of the liquid VL in comparison with the molar volume of the gas VG
For miscible systems, the boiling point of the solution is:
a. Lower than the boiling point of the liquid with the lower boiling point
b. Between the boiling points of the two liquids
c. Above the boiling point of the liquid with the higher boiling point
d. Cannot be determined
b. Between the boiling points of the two liquids
All colligative properties stem from the _____ of the chemical potential of the liquid solvent as a result of the presence of the solute.
a. Reduction
b. Change
c. Enlargement
d. A or B or C, depending on the identities of the solute and solvent
a. Reduction
In a process involving osmosis, at equilibrium, the chemical potential of the pure solvent side should be _____ the chemical potential of the side with solute.
a. Less than
b. More than
c. Equal to
d. Can’t be determined
c. Equal to
When a solute is introduced to a liquid system, the entropy of the said system:
a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. Stays the same
d. Can’t be determined
a. Increases
Among the following, which compound will
produce the least lowering of the vapor pressure of a solution?
a. sucrose, C12H22O11
b. Aluminum chloride, AlCl3
c. Table salt, NaCl
d. Sodium sulfate, Na2SO4
a. sucrose, C12H22O11
Which of the following statements is true?
a. Trouton’s rule fails for highly polar liquids
b. It is impossible to go from vapor phase to liquid phase without condensation
c. For C compounds and P phases, there are a total of CP intensive variables to be specified
d. At high pressures, the latent heat of vaporization is a measure of the strength of the intermolecular forces of the liquid
a. Trouton’s rule fails for highly polar liquids
What is the significance of colligative property in physical chemistry?
a. It refers to the freezing point depression, boiling point elevation, osmotic pressure and lowering of the vapor pressure by a nonvolatile solute
b. It refers to the temperature, pressure and energy of fusion of volatile solutes in phase equilibrium
c. It refers to the non-existence of pressure among molecules within the solute
d. It refers to the temperature differentials exhibited by non-volatile solutes in reactions
a. It refers to the freezing point depression, boiling point elevation, osmotic pressure and lowering of the vapor pressure by a nonvolatile solute
Are galvanic cells and electrolytic cells the same? Why?
a. No. because galvanic cells are electrochemical cells in which chemical cells occur simultaneously; while in electrolytic cells, the chemical reaction is caused by an externally applied potential difference.
b. No, because galvanic cells need a constant supply of electricity while electrolytic cells depend on intermittent source of power.
c. Yes, because they are both electrochemical cells and their uses are common to each other
d. Yes, because galvanic cells and electrolytic cells are both electrochemical cells.
a. No. because galvanic cells are electrochemical cells in which chemical cells occur simultaneously; while in electrolytic cells, the chemical reaction is caused by an externally applied potential difference.
Determine the final volume of 0.51M KBr when the starter volume is 100mL. From a 50mL solution of 0.25M alanine, what volume will be required using 0.11M alanine?
a. 196mL; 114mL
b. 51mL; 33mL
c. 179mL; 102mL
d. 201mL; 120mL
a. 196mL; 114mL
If one gallon of blood was added in three gallons of water, and one ounce of that dilution was added to 9 ounces of water, what is the final dilution when 7mL of
that dilution was added to 563mL of water?
a. 5.65x10-3
b. 2.24x10-2
c. 1.72x10-4
d. 3.11x10-4
d. 3.11x10-4
In a titration experiment, 15.02mL of an HCl
solution required 26.1mL of 0.32M sodium
hydroxide. Determine the concentration of HCl.
a. 2.15M
b. 0.52M
c. 1.12M
d. 0.64M
b. 0.52M
Determine the:
1. Moles of analyte
2. Volume of titrant to reach end point
3. pH at the start, halfway and at the endpoint for each of the titrations performed.
For the titration shown as follows: 50mL of a weak base (pKb=5), 0.072M with 0.153M HCl.
a. 3x10-3mol; 24mL; 10.84, 8.82, 5.06
b. 11.25x10-4mol; 12.22mL; 7.34, 2.11, 12.23
c. 10.35x10-1mol; 16mL; 5.32, 4.23, 8.45
d. 7.24x10-2mol; 11.25mL; 11.23, 5.31, 9.56
a. 3x10-3mol; 24mL; 10.84, 8.82, 5.06
Determine the pH of a 0.21M solution of sodium benzoate in water at room temperature.
(KA=6.3x10-5)
a.6.35
b.4.37
c.0.74
d.2
c.0.74
Determine the pH of a 0.05M solution of each salt:
1. Potassium acetate (KA=1.8x10-5)
2. Sodium benzoate
3. Potassium carbonate
4. Sodium dihydrogen phosphate
5. Ammonium nitrate
a. 11.5, 8.45, 4.56, 4.26, 1.23
b. 10.65, 3.22, 11, 8.45, 5.27
c. 8.45, 4.26, 7, 11.5, 8.73
d. 8.73, 5.99, 8.45, 7.33, 7
d. 8.73, 5.99, 8.45, 7.33, 7
When formic acid is 4.6% ionized in 0.105M of aqueous solution at room temperature, determine the ionization constant of the acid. If the solution containing 0.25N of 25mL acid is diluted to 202mL and titrated with 0.35 NaOH, calculate the pH value and the concentration of the hydrogen ion at the equivolume part.
a. 2.2x10-4; 8.06; 8.7x10-9
b. 1.8x10-5; 9.1; 7.2x10-10
c. 4.1x10-4; 7.21; 6.4x10-10
d. 3.4x10-4; 6.32; 5.23x10-11
a. 2.2x10-4; 8.06; 8.7x10-9
A solution of HCl and a monobaric acid is titrated with NaOH. If the initial volume of the solution is 100mL and the concentration of each moment is 0.011M and the ionization constant is 1.01x105 and the concentration of the titrant base is 0.1M, estimate the pH of the solution when 5mL and 15mL of the titrate has been added and the optimum pKa of a weak acid indicator to allow determination of the HCl present.
a. 2.3, 5.0, 3.5
b. 3.7, 6.0, 4.5
c. 3.4, 4.5, 5.2
d. 4.2, 7.0, 6.2
a. 2.3, 5.0, 3.5
If the normality of HCl is greater by 10% compared to KOH, estimate the normality of the HCl solution when 0.67g of (NH4)2SO4 is dissolved in water, treated with excess NaOH and the ammonia released is passed through a solution of 20mL of HCl. The excess acid solution is titrated using 15.01mL of KOH solution.
a. 0.275N
b. 3.17x10-3N
c. 0.152N
d. 2.32x10-2N
c. 0.152N
Analyze and calculate the percentage of nickel in a 1.201g sample of nickel ore which was analyzed by the volumetric method. A solution of 48mL containing 1.4x10-2g of KCN/mL and the excess cyanide required half a milliliter of silver nitrate solution with 1.25x10-2g AgNO3 per milliliter.
a. 9.36%
b. 15.21%
c. 12.5%
d. 8.22%
c. 12.5%
A certain volume of a solution of KMnO4 will oxidize sufficient potassium tetraoxalate that requires half of that volume using 0.201N of KOH solution for neutralization. Determine the quantity of KMnO4 in a liter of its solution.
a. 4.213g
b. 2.01g
c. 8.621g
d. 5.02g
b. 2.01g
If aspirin is made using the raw materials salicylic acid and acetic anhydride with a yield of 75%, how many grams of aspirin will be produced
A. 25
B. 15
C. 30
D. 1
A. 25
Classify each of the following as homogeneous or heterogeneous:
I. A door
II. The air you breathe
III. a cup of coffee (black)
IV. The water you drink
V. Salsa
VI. Your lab partner
A. hetero, homo, homo, homo, hetero, hetero
B. hetero, hetero, homo, homo, homo, hetero
C. homo, homo, homo, homo, hetero, homo
D. homo, homo, hetero, hetero, homo, hetero
A. hetero, homo, homo, homo, hetero, hetero
How many beta particles are emitted in the decomposition of 238U92 to 206Pb82?
A. 4
B. 2
C. 6
D. 8
C. 6
The decomposition of iodoethane in the gas phase proceeds according to the following reactions:
C2H5I (g) → C2H4 (g) + HI (g)
At 660 K, k = 7.2x10^-4 /s and at 720 K, k = 1.70x10^-2 /s. If the initial pressure of iodoethane is 894 torr at 245°C, what is the pressure of iodoethane after three half-lives?
A. 429 torr
B. 112 torr
C. 356 torr
D. 508 torr
B. 112 torr
Where in the body does fatty acid synthesis occur?
A. Mitochondrion
B. Cytoplasm
C. Ribosomes
D. Golgi apparatus
B. Cytoplasm
Suppose you have a phosphate buffer of pH 7.21. If you add more solid NaH2 PO 4 to this buffer, would you expect the pH of the buffer to increase, decrease, or remain unchanged?
A. increase
B. decrease
C. remain the same
D. either increase or decrease
B. decrease
What structural characteristics do citric acid and malic acid have in common?
A. They are heterocyclic compounds
B. Both has three moieties of carboxylic acid
C. They contain an alkene bridge
D. They are both hydroxy acids
D. They are both hydroxy acids
What is the difference between a coenzyme and a cofactor?
A. Coenzyme activator is inorganic while cofactor is organic
B. Coenzyme needs allosteric activator while cofactor requires conformational induction
C. Cofactor contains heme groups, coenzyme has disulfide bridge
D. Cofactor is more generic; it means a nonprotein part of an enzyme. A coenzyme is an organic factor.
D. Cofactor is more generic; it means a nonprotein part of an enzyme. A coenzyme is an organic factor.
Who discovered phenolphthalein?
A. Adolf von Baeyer
B. Louis-Jacques Thenard
C. Joseph Louis Gay-Lussac
D. Albert Hofmann
A. Adolf von Baeyer
How many high-energy phosphate bonds are in the ATP molecule?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 0
B. 2
Classify each of the following as an element, a compound, or a mixture.
a) diamond
b) sea water
c) gasoline
d) wine
e) a pebble
f) bronze
A. element, mixture, mixture, mixture, mixture, mixture
B. compound, mixture, compound, mixture, mixture, element
C. element, compound, compound, element, compound, compound
D. compound, compound, mixture, compound, compound, mixture
A. element, mixture, mixture, mixture, mixture, mixture
Applying the Octet Rule, determine how many electrons each must each atom gain or loss to acquire an electron configuration identical to the noble gas nearest to it in atomic number; Sr, S and Si.
A. krypton; argon, argon and krypton
B. neon; argon and krypton; krypton
C. none of these
D. argon; krypton, krypton and argon
A. krypton; argon, argon and krypton
A large stream has a reoxygenation constant of 0.4 day −1and a velocity of 0.85 m/s. At the point at which an organic pollutant is discharged, it is saturated with oxygen at 10 mg/L (DO = 0). Below the outfall the ultimate demand for oxygen is found to be 20 mg/L, and the deoxygenation constant is 0.2 day−1 . What is the dissolved oxygen 48.3 km downstream?
A. 7.8 mg/L
B. 5.0 mg/L
C. 2.2 mg/L
D. 6.5 mg/L
A. 7.8 mg/L
Glucose is the only carbohydrate compound that the brain can use for energy. Which pathway is mobilized to supply the need of the brain during starvation?
A. gluconeogenesis
B. glycolysis
C. glycogenesis
D. none of these
A. gluconeogenesis
Predict whether each of the following nuclides is stable or unstable (radioactive). If the nuclide is unstable, predict the type of radioactivity you would expect it to exhibit. 45-K, 56-Fe, 11-Na, 194-Tl.
A. unstable-alpha production, unstable-positron production, stable, unstable-electron capture
B. unstable-beta production, stable, unstable-positron production, unstable-alpha production
C. stable, stable, stable, stable
D. stable, unstable-alpha production, unstable-electron capture, unstable-alpha production
B. unstable-beta production, stable, unstable-positron production, unstable-alpha production
Crystals of a material are suspended in the middle of a cup of water at 2 deg C. How might you enable the crystals to rise to the surface of the water so that you can harvest them?
a. Add more crystals
b. Add more water
c. Decrease the temperature of water to 0 deg C
d. Increase the temperature of water to 4 deg C
d. Increase the temperature of water to 4 deg C
What is the organic formula of lindane, chlorinated pesticide which has been banned? It is composed of 24.781% carbon, 2.082% hydrogen, 73.142% chlorine and has a molecular mass of 290.834.
A. C3H6Cl6
B. C3H6Cl12
C. C6H12Cl6
D. (CHCl)6
D. (CHCl)6
Predict the order of the melting points of triglycerides containing fatty acids, as follows:
I. Palmitic, palmitic, stearic
II. Oleic, stearic, palmitic
III. Oleic, linoleic, oleic
A. III < II < I
B. II < I < III
C. I < III < II
D. II < III < I
A. III < II < I
A reported synthesis of the transuranium element bohrium (Bh) involved the bombardment of berkelium-249 with neon-22 to produce bohrium-267. The half-life of bohrium-267 is 15.0 seconds. If 199 atoms of bohrium-267 could be synthesized, how much time would elapse before only 11 atoms of bohrium267 remain?
A. 50 s
B. 79 s
C. 63 s
D. 44 s
C. 63 s
How many molecules are in one drop of water?
A. 1.0x10^21
B. 1.0x10^24
C. 1.7x10^24
D. 1.7x10^21
D. 1.7x10^21
Which of the following objects are chiral (assume that there is no label or other identifying mark)?
a) Pair of scissors
b) Tennis ball
c) Paper clip
d) Beaker
e) The swirl created in water as it drains out of a sink or bathtub
A. chiral, chiral, chiral, chiral, chiral
B. achiral, chiral, chiral, achiral, chiral
C. chiral, achiral, chiral, chiral, achiral
D. chiral, achiral, achiral, achiral, chiral
D. chiral, achiral, achiral, achiral, chiral
Consider the reaction 2O(g) à O 2(g). Predict the signs of deltaH and deltaS. Would the reaction more spontaneous at high or low temperatures?
A. deltaH = -, deltaS = +, high
B. deltaH = +, deltaS = +, high
C. deltaH = -, delta S = -, low
D. deltaH = +, deltaS = -, low
C. deltaH = -, delta S = -, low
A sample of municipal sewage is diluted to 1% by volume prior to running a BOD 5 analysis. After 5 days the oxygen consumption is determined to be 2.00 mg · L−1 . What is the BOD 5 of the sewage?
A. 150 mg/L
B. 300 mg/L
C. 250 mg/L
D. 200 mg/L
D. 200 mg/L
In each case, tell whether the bond is ionic, polar covalent, or nonpolar covalent: Br2, BrCl, HCl, SrF2, SiH4, CO, N2 , CsCl
A. nonpolar covalent, nonpolar covalent, polar covalent, ionic, nonpolar covalent, polar covalent, nonpolar covalent, ionic
B. polar covalent, ionic, polar covalent, nonpolar covalent, nonpolar covalent, nonpolar covalent, polar covalent, polar covalent
C. nonpolar covalent, nonpolar covalent, ionic, nonpolar covalent, polar covalent, nonpolar covalent, ionic
D. nonpolar covalent, polar covalent, nonpolar covalent, nonpolar covalent, polar covalent, polar covalent, ionic, polar covalent
A. nonpolar covalent, nonpolar covalent, polar covalent, ionic, nonpolar covalent, polar covalent, nonpolar covalent, ionic
When ΔE > 0.4 - it is polar
How to differentiate alkane alkene and alkyne?
A. combustion on an empty beaker
B. nature of carbon and its branching
C. reaction with Br2
D. all of these
C. reaction with Br2
How many carbon atoms in olvanil?
A. 40
B. 38
C. 15
D. 26
D. 26
These compounds are formed by the reaction of acids with alcohol.
A. Ethers
B. Esters
C. Bases
D. Enzymes
B. Esters
The Tanay Rizal Stone Works employs six workers who produce uncompacted waste from the products formed for building decors. If the density of the uncompacted waste is 40 kilograms per cubic meters, determine the annual volume of solid waste produced by the factory assuming a waste generation volume rate of one kilogram per capita per day.
A. 3.22 cubic meters
B. 5.56 cubic meters
C. 8.01 cubic meters
D. 4.65 cubic meters
D. 4.65 cubic meters
Choose the process that occurs with a decrease in entropy
A. freezing of water
B. boiling of water
C. dissolving salt in water
D. sublimation of dry ice
A. freezing of water
Why is it accurate to assume that the carbon-14 to carbon-12 ratio in a living plant remains constant over the lifetime of the plant?
I. Carbon 14 is continually generated in the upper atmosphere by the production and decay of nitrogen 14.
II. Carbon 14 incorporated into carbon dioxide and the other compounds are distributed worldwide as part of the carbon cycle.
III. The continual formation of carbon-14; transfer of isotope within the oceans, atmospheres and biosphere; and the decay of living matter keep the supply constant.
A. T, F, T
B. F, F, F
C. T, T, T
D. F, F, T
C. T, T, T
Consider the Earth to be a blackbody with average temperature 15degC and surface area equal to 5.1x10^14 m^2. Find the rate at which energy is radiated by the Earth and the wavelength at which maximum power is radiated. Compare this peak wavelength with that for a 5800-K blackbody (the sun.
A. 1x10^19 W, 12.9x10^6 m (earth, 0.33x10^6 m (sun)
B. 2x10^17 W, 10.1x10^6 m (earth, 0.48x10^6 m (sun)
C. 4x10^16 W, 15.5x10^6 m (earth, 0.57x10^6 m (sun)
D. 3x10^15 W, 13.6x10^6 m (earth, 0.20x10^6 m (sun)
B. 2x10^17 W, 10.1x10^6 m (earth, 0.48x10^6 m (sun)
The density of acetylene gas, in a 4-L container at 0 degC and 2 atm pressure is 0.02 g/mL. What would be the density of the gas under identical temperature and pressure if the container were partitioned into two 2-L compartments?
A. 0.03 g/mL
B. 0.04 g/mL
C. 0.01 g/mL
D. 0.02 g/mL
D. 0.02 g/mL
Determine which of the following will float or sink in water: balsa wood, ethylene, glycol, table salt, ethanol
A. float, float, float. float
B. float, sink, sink. float
C. sink, float, sink. float
D. sink, sink, sink. sink
B. float, sink, sink. float
Chlorine gas was first prepared in 1774 by C. W. Scheele by oxidizing sodium chloride with manganese(IV) oxide. The reaction is
NaCl(aq) + H2SO4(aq) + MnO2(s)
–> Na2SO4(aq) + MnCl2(aq) + H2O(l) + Cl2(g)
A. 4, 2, 1, 2, 1, 1, 2
B. 3, 3, 2, 1, 1, 2, 3
C. 1, 4, 2, 3, 2, 2, 1
D. 2, 3, 4, 1, 1, 2, 2
A. 4, 2, 1, 2, 1, 1, 2
Boron-10, an effective absorber of neutrons, is used in control rods of uranium-235 fission reactors to absorb neutrons and thereby control the rate of reaction. Boron-10 absorbs a neutron and then emits an a particle. Write a balanced equation for this nuclear reaction and identify the nucleus formed as an intermediate between boron-10 and the final nuclear product.
A. Li
B. Be
C. Ca
D. Na
A. Li
The mass of a proton is 1.67 3 10224 g. The mass of a grain of salt is 1.0 3 1022 g. How many protons would it take to have the same mass as a grain of salt?
A. 7x10^22 protons
B. 1x10^21 protons
C. 5x10^21 protons
D. 6x10^21 protons
D. 6x10^21 protons
