Bettelheim Flashcards

1
Q

How was Taxol discovered?

A

Taxol was discovered during a survey of indigenous plants sponsored by the National Cancer Institute with the goal of discovering new chemicals for fighting cancer.

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2
Q

What is the goal of combinatorial chemistry?

A

The goal of combinatorial chemistry is to synthesize large numbers of closely related compounds in one reaction mixture

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3
Q

Silicon is immediately below carbon in Group 4A of the Periodic Table. Predict the C-Si-C bond angles in tetramethylsilane, (CH3)4Si

A

109.5°

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4
Q

Is cis-trans isomerism possible in alkanes?

A

no

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5
Q

What generalizations can you make about the densities of alkanes relative to the density of water?

A

Alkanes are less dense than water. Those that are liquid at room temperature and float on water.

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6
Q

Suppose that you have samples of hexane and octane. Could you tell the difference by looking at them? What color would they be? How could you tell which is which?

A

Both hexane and octane are colorless liquids, and you cannot tell the difference between them by looking at them. One way to tell which compound is which is to determine their boiling points. Hexane has the lower molecular weight, the smaller molecules, and the lower boiling point (69°C). Octane has the higher molecular weight, the larger molecules, and the higher boiling point (126°C).

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7
Q

How are the boiling points of hydrocarbons during petroleum refining related to their molecular weight?

A

The greater the molecular weight, the higher the boiling point.

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8
Q

What are HFCs and HCFCs? How does their use in refrigeration systems avoid the environmental problems associated with the use of Freons?

A

They are hydrofluorocarbons and hydrochlorofluorocarbons, respectively. These compounds are much more chemically reactive in the lower atmosphere than the Freons and are destroyed before they reach the stratosphere.

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9
Q

What is one function of ethylene as a plant growth regulator?

A

Ethylene is a natural ripening agent for fruits.

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10
Q

What different functions are performed by the rods and cones in the eye?

A

Rods are primarily responsible for peripheral and black-and-white vision. Cones are responsible for color vision.

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11
Q

cis-3-Hexene and trans-3-hexene are different compounds and have different physical and chemical properties. Yet, when treated with H2 O/H2 SO4 , each gives the same alcohol. What is this alcohol, and how do you account for the fact that each alkene gives the same one?

A

The alcohol is 3-hexanol. Each alkene gives the same 2° carbocation intermediate and the same alcohol.

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12
Q

How does vitamin E function as an antioxidant?

A

Vitamin E participates in one or the other of the chain propagation steps and forms a stable radical, which breaks the cycle of propagation steps.

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13
Q

From what parts of its common name are the letters DDT derived?

A

The abbreviation DDT is derived from
DichloroDiphenylTrichloroethane.

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14
Q

Would you expect DDT to be soluble or insoluble in water? Explain.

A

Insoluble in water. It is entirely a hydrophobic molecule.

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15
Q

What are the differences in structure between Allura Red and Sunset Yellow?

A

One of the aromatic rings in Allura Red has a CH3 group and an OCH3 group. These groups are not present in Sunset Yellow.

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16
Q

From what types of plants is capsaicin isolated?

A

Capsicum

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17
Q

How many cis-trans isomers are possible for capsaicin?

A

Two cis-trans isomers are possible for capsaicin.

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18
Q

Di-tert-butyl-4-methylphenol (BHT, Section 13.4C) is an antioxidant added to processed foods to “retard spoilage.” How does BHT accomplish this goal?

A

BHT participates in one of the chain propagation steps of autoxidation, forms a stable radical, and thus terminates autoxidation.

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19
Q

Compare the acidity of alcohols and phenols, which are both classes of organic compounds that contain an 3 OH group.

A

Phenols are weak acids, with pKa values approximately equal to 10. Alcohols, which are considerably weaker acids, have about the same acidity as water.

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20
Q

When was nitroglycerin discovered? Is this substance a solid, a liquid, or a gas?

A

Nitroglycerin was discovered in 1847. It is a pale yellow, oily liquid

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21
Q

The legal definition of being under the influence of alcohol is based on blood alcohol content. What is the relationship between breath alcohol content and blood alcohol content?

A

The relationship is that 2100 mL of breath contains the same amount of ethanol as 1.00 mL of blood.

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22
Q

Which of the following objects are chiral (assume that there is no label or other identifying mark)?
(a) Pair of scissors
(b) Tennis ball
(c) Paper Clip
(d) Beaker
(e) The swirl created in water as it drains out of a sink or bathtub

A

(a) chiral (b) achiral (c) achiral (d) achiral (e) chiral

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23
Q

2-Butene exists as a pair of cis-trans isomers. Is cis-2-butene chiral? Is trans-2- butene chiral? Explain.

A

Neither cis-2-butene nor trans-2-butene is chiral. Each is superposable on its mirror image.

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24
Q

Compare the basicities of amines with those of alcohols.

A

Nitrogen is less electronegative than oxygen and, therefore, more willing to donate its unshared pair of electrons to H1 in an acid–base reaction to form a salt. Therefore, amines are stronger bases than alcohols.

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25
Q

What structural feature is common to all benzodiazepines?

A

The common structural feature is a benzene ring fused to a seven-membered ring containing two nitrogen atoms. This parent structural feature is named benzodiazepine.

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26
Q

Give two reasons why amine-containing drugs are most commonly administered as their salts.

A

Their salts are more soluble in water and in body fluids, and are more stable (less reactive) toward oxidation by atmospheric oxygen.

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27
Q

Arrange these three compounds in order of decreasing ability to form intermolecular hydrogen bonds: CH3OH, CH3SH, (CH3)2NH.

A

In order of decreasing ability to form intermolecular hydrogen bonds, they are CH3OH > (CH3)2NH > CH3SH. An O-H bond is more polar than an N-H bond, which is in turn, more polar than an S-H bond.

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28
Q

Arrange these compounds in order of increasing boiling point: CH3CH2CH2CH3, CH3CH2CH2OH, CH3CH2CH2NH2.

A

Butane, the least polar molecule, has the lowest boiling point; 1-propanol, the most polar molecule, has the highest boiling point.

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29
Q

If you dissolve CH3CH2CH2OH and CH3CH2CH2NH in the same container of water and lower the pH of the solution to 2.0 by adding HCl, would anything happen to the structures of these compounds?
Write the formula of the species present in solution at pH 2.0.

A

The alcohol will be unchanged. The amine will react with HCl to form a salt

CH3CH2CH2NH3+ Cl-

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30
Q

What is the difference in structure between an aldehyde and a ketone?

A

The carbonyl carbon of an aldehyde is bonded to at least one hydrogen. The carbonyl carbon of a ketone is bonded to two carbon groups

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31
Q

Is it possible for the carbon atom of a carbonyl group to be a stereocenter? Explain.

A

No. To be a carbon stereocenter, the carbon atom must have four different groups bonded to it. The carbon atom of a carbonyl group has only three groups bonded to it.

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32
Q

In each pair of compounds, select the one with the higher boiling point.
(a) Acetaldehyde or ethanol
(b) Acetone or 3-pentanone
(c) Butanal or butane
(d) Butanone or 2-butanol

A

(a) ethanol
(b) 3-pentanone
(c) butanal
(d) 2-butanol

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33
Q

What is the characteristic structural feature of a hemiacetal? Of an acetal?

A

The characteristic structural feature of a hemiacetal is a tetrahedral carbon atom bonded to one OH group and one OR group, where R may be either an alkyl group or aryl group. The characteristic structural feature of an acetal is a tetrahedral carbonyl group bonded to two OR groups.

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34
Q

What is the compound in willow bark that is responsible for its ability to relieve pain? How is this compound related to salicylic acid?

A

The compound is salicin. Removal of the glucose unit and oxidation of the primary alcohol to a carboxyl group gives salicylic acid.

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34
Q

Why do Lactomer stitches dissolve within 2 to 3 weeks following surgery?

A

Lactomer stitches dissolve when the ester groups in the polymer chains are hydrolyzed until only glycolic and lactic acids remain. These small molecules are metabolized and excreted by existing biochemical pathways.

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34
Q

Name the three most abundant hexoses in the biological world. Which are aldohexoses, and which are ketohexoses?

A

The three most abundant hexoses in the biological world are D-glucose, D-galactose, and D-fructose. The first two are aldohexoses. The third is a 2-ketohexose.

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35
Q

What is an amino sugar? Name the three amino sugars most commonly found in nature.

A

In an amino sugar, one or more OH groups are replaced by NH2 groups. The three most abundant amino sugars in the biological world are D-glucosamine, D-galactosamine, and N-acetyl-D-glucosamine

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36
Q

Define the terms glycoside and glycosidic bond.

A

A glycoside is a cyclic acetal of a monosaccharide. A glycosidic bond is the bond from the anomeric carbon to the OR group of the glycoside

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37
Q

What is the difference in structure between oligosaccharides and polysaccharides?

A

Oligosaccharide - 6-10 monosaccharides
Polysaccharide - >10 monosaccharides

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38
Q

Starch can be separated into two principal polysaccharides, amylose and amylopectin. What is the major difference in structure between the two?

A

The difference lies in the degree of chain branching. Amylose is composed of unbranched chains, whereas amylopectin is a branched network with the branches started by β-1,6-glycosidic bonds

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39
Q

Why is cellulose insoluble in water?

A

Cellulose fibers are insoluble in water because the strength of hydrogen bonding of a cellulose molecule in the fiber with surface water molecules is not sufficient to overcome the intermolecular forces that hold it in the fiber

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40
Q

Hyaluronic acid acts as a lubricant in the synovial fluid of joints. In rheumatoid arthritis, inflammation breaks hyaluronic acid down to smaller molecules. Under these conditions, what happens to the lubricating power of the synovial fluid?

A

Its lubricating power decreases.

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41
Q

Why does congenital galactosemia appear only in infants? Why can galactosemia be relieved by feeding an affected infant a formula containing sucrose as the only carbohydrate?

A

With maturation, children develop an enzyme capable of metabolizing galactose. Thus they are able to tolerate galactose as they mature.

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42
Q

When L-ascorbic acid participates in a redox reaction, it is converted to L-dehydroascorbic acid. In this reaction, is L-ascorbic acid oxidized or reduced? Is L-ascorbic acid a biological oxidizing agent or a biological reducing agent?

A

L-Ascorbic acid is oxidized (there is loss of two hydrogen atoms) when it is converted to L-dehydroascorbic acid. L-Ascorbic acid is a biological reducing agent.

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43
Q

Why can’t a person with type A blood donate to a person with type B blood?

A

Mixing types A and B blood will result in coagulation.

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44
Q

Oleic acid has a melting point of 16°C. If you converted the cis double bond into a trans double bond, what would happen to the melting point? Explain.

A

The melting point would increase. The trans double bonds would fit more in the packing of the long hydrophobic tails, creating more order and therefore more interaction between chains. This would require more energy to disrupt, and hence a higher melting point.

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45
Q

Which has the higher melting point: (a) a triglyceride containing only lauric acid and glycerol or (b) a triglyceride containing only stearic acid and glycerol?

A

(b), because its molecular weight is higher

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46
Q

Predict the order of the melting points of triglycerides containing fatty acids, as follows:
(a) Palmitic, palmitic, stearic
(b) Oleic, stearic, palmitic
(c) Oleic, linoleic, oleic

A

Melting points in ascending order.
c < b < a

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47
Q

Rank the following in order of increasing solubility in water (assuming that all are made with the same fatty acids): (a) triglycerides, (b) diglycerides, and (c) monoglycerides. Explain your answer.

A

The more long-chain groups, the lower the solubility; lowest (a); then (b); highest (c).

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48
Q

How do the unsaturated fatty acids of the complex lipids contribute to the fluidity of a membrane?

A

The presence of cis double bonds in fatty acids produces greater fluidity because they cannot pack together as
closely as saturated fatty acids.

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49
Q

What is the difference between an integral and a peripheral membrane protein?

A

Integral membrane proteins are embedded in the membrane. Peripheral membrane proteins are found on membrane surfaces.

50
Q

Where can pure cholesterol crystals be found in the body?

A

Cholesterol crystals may be found in (1) gallstones, which are sometimes pure cholesterol, and (2) joints of people suffering from bursitis.

51
Q

How does the anion transporter provide a suitable environment for the passage of hydrated chloride ions?

A

The transporter is a helical transmembrane protein. The hydrophobic groups on the helices are turned outward and interact with the membrane. The hydrophilic groups of the helices are on the inside and interact with the hydrated chloride ions.

52
Q

Identify the monosaccharides in the accumulating glycolipid of Fabry’s disease.

A

⍺-D-galactose, β-D-glucose, β-D-glucose

53
Q

Which substances would you expect to consist primarily of carbohydrates and which primarily of lipids: olive oil, butter, cotton, cotton candy?

A

primarily lipid: olive oil and butter; primarily carbohydrate: cotton and cotton candy

54
Q

The ester bonds in lipids do not give rise to macromolecules, but the amide bonds in proteins do. Comment on the underlying reason for this difference.

A

The other ends of the molecules involved in the ester linkages in lipids, such as fatty acids, tend not to form long chains of bonds with other molecules.

55
Q

Some of the lipid molecules that occur in membranes are bulkier than others. Are the bulkier molecules more or less likely to be found on the cytoplasmic side of the cell membrane or on the side facing the exterior of the cell?

A

The bulkier molecules tend to be found on the exterior of the cell because the curvature of the cell membrane
provides more room for them.

56
Q

What are the function of (a) ovalbumin and (b) myosin

A

(a) storage (b) movement

57
Q

What is the function of an immunoglobulin?

A

protection

58
Q

Which amino acid has the highest percentage nitrogen (g N/100 g amino acid)?
(a) Arginine
(b) Leucine
(c) Glutamic acid
(d) Asparagine
(e) Tyrosine
(f ) Phenylalanine
(g) Glycine

A

(a) Arginine

59
Q

Why is it necessary to have proteins in our diets?

A

They supply most of the amino acids we need in our bodies.

60
Q

Why are all amino acids solids at room temperature?

A

Amino acids are zwitterions; therefore they all have positive and negative charges. These molecules are very strongly attracted to each other, so they are solids at low temperatures.

61
Q

Why is histidine considered a basic amino acid when the pK a of its side chain is 6.0?

A

The side chain of histidine is an imidazole with a nitrogen that reversibly binds to a hydrogen. When dissociated, it is neutral; when associated, it is positive. Therefore, chemically it is a base, even though it does have a pKa in the acidic range.

62
Q

Which are the basic amino acids?

A

histidine, arginine, and lysine

63
Q

How many different tetrapeptides can be made (a) if the peptides contain the residues of asparagine, proline, serine, and methionine and (b) if all 20 amino acids can be used?

A

(a) 256 (b) 160,000

64
Q

Based on your knowledge of the chemical properties of amino acid side chains, suggest a substitution for leucine in the primary structure of a protein that would probably not change the character of the protein very much.

A

valine or isoleucine

65
Q

Decide whether the following structures that exist in collagen are primary, secondary, tertiary, or quaternary.

(a) Tropocollagen
(b) Collagen fibril
(c) Collagen fiber
(d) The proline—hydroxyproline—glycine repeating sequence

A

(a) secondary
(b) quaternary
(c) quaternary
(d) primary

66
Q

Which amino acid side chain is most frequently involved in denaturation by reduction?

A

cysteine

67
Q

Explain the difference in oxygen-binding behavior of myoglobin and hemoglobin.

A

The oxygen-binding behavior of myoglobin is hyperbolic, while that of hemoglobin is sigmoidal.

68
Q

In collagen, some of the chains of the triple helices in tropocollagen are cross-linked by covalent bonds between two lysine residues. What kind of structure is formed by these cross-links? Explain.

A

a quaternary structure because subunits are crosslinked

69
Q

What kind of noncovalent interaction occurs between the following amino acids?

(a) Valine and isoleucine
(b) Glutamic acid and lysine
(c) Tyrosine and threonine
(d) Alanine and alanine

A

(a) hydrophobic
(b) salt bridge
(c) hydrogen bond
(d) hydrophobic

70
Q

Which amino acid does not rotate the plane of polarized light?

A

glycine

71
Q

What charges are on aspartic acid at pH 2.0?

A

one positive charge on the amino group

72
Q

What is the difference between a catalyst and an enzyme?

A

A catalyst is any substance that speeds up the rate of a reaction and is not itself changed by the reaction. An enzyme is a biological catalyst, which is either a protein or an RNA molecule.

73
Q

Would a lipase hydrolyze two triglycerides, one containing only oleic acid and the other containing only palmitic acid, with equal ease?

A

Yes. Lipases are not very specific

74
Q

Why does the body need so many different enzymes?

A

because enzymes are very specific and thousands of
reactions must be catalyzed in an organism

75
Q

What is the difference between a coenzyme and a cofactor?

A

Cofactor is more generic; it means a nonprotein part of an enzyme. A coenzyme is an organic cofactor

76
Q

What is the difference between reversible and irreversible noncompetitive inhibition?

A

In reversible inhibition, the inhibitor can bind and then be released. With noncompetitive inhibition, once the inhibitor is bound, no catalysis can occur. With irreversible inhibition, once the inhibitor is bound, the enzyme would be effectively dead, as the inhibitor could not be removed and no catalysis could occur

77
Q

Which amino acids appear most frequently in the active sites of enzymes?

A

The amino acid residues most often found at enzyme active sites are His, Cys, Asp, Arg, and Glu.

78
Q

Which of the following is a correct statement describing the induced-fit model of enzyme action? Substrates fit into the active site

(a) because both are exactly the same size and shape.
(b) by changing their size and shape to match those of the active site.
(c) by changing the size and shape of the active site upon binding.

A

The correct answer is (c). Initially the enzyme does not have exactly the right shape for strongly binding a substrate, but the shape of the active site changes to better accommodate the substrate molecule.

79
Q

The hydrolysis of glycogen to yield glucose is catalyzed by the enzyme phosphorylase. Caffeine, which is not a carbohydrate and not a substrate for the enzyme, inhibits phosphorylase. What kind of regulatory mechanism is at work?

A

Caffeine is an allosteric regulator.

80
Q

What is the difference between a zymogen and a proenzyme?

A

There is no difference. They are the same.

81
Q

After a heart attack, the levels of certain enzymes rise in the serum. Which enzyme would you monitor within 24 hours following a suspected heart attack?

A

Two enzymes that increase in serum concentration following a heart attack are creatine phosphokinase and aspartate aminotransferase. Creatine phosphokinase peaks earlier than aspartate aminotransferase and would be the best choice in the first 24 hours

82
Q

Caffeine is a stimulant that is taken by many people in the form of coffee, tea, chocolate, and cola beverages. It is also used by many athletes. Caffeine has many effects, including stimulating lipases. Given its effect on lipases and on glycogen phosphorylase, would you predict caffeine would be more effective as an aid to a runner in a 10 K race or in a 1 mile race?

A

a 10 km race

83
Q

To what end product is the energy of foods converted in the catabolic pathways?

A

ATP

84
Q

(a) How many membranes do mitochondria have?

(b) Which membrane is permeable to ions and small molecules?

A

2

the outer membrane

85
Q

What are cristae, and how are they related to the inner membrane of mitochondria?

A

Cristae are folded membranes originating from the
inner membrane. They are connected to the inner membrane by tubular channels.

86
Q

How many high-energy phosphate bonds are in the ATP molecule?

A

2

87
Q

Which yields more energy, (a) the hydrolysis of ATP to ADP or (b) the hydrolysis of ADP to AMP?

A

Neither; they yield the same energy.

88
Q

What kind of chemical bond exists between the ribitol and the phosphate group in FAD?

A

It is a phosphate ester bond.

89
Q

Which atoms in the flavin portion of FAD are reduced to yield FADH2 ?

A

The two nitrogen atoms that are part of C N bonds are reduced to form FADH2.

90
Q

In the common catabolic pathway, a number of important molecules act as carriers (transfer agents).

(a) Which is the carrier of phosphate groups?

(b) Which are the coenzymes transferring hydrogen ions and electrons?

(c) What kind of groups does coenzyme A carry?

A

(a) ATP (b) NAD1 and FAD (c) acetyl groups

91
Q

What kind of chemical bond exists between the pantothenic acid and mercaptoethylamine in the structure of CoA?

A

An amide bond is formed between the amine portion of mercaptoethanolamine and the carboxyl group of pantothenic acid

92
Q

In both NAD 1and FAD, the vitamin B portion of the molecule is the active part. Is this also true for CoA?

A

No. The pantothenic acid portion is not the active part. The active part is the SH group at the end of the molecule.

93
Q

The fats and carbohydrates metabolized by our bodies are eventually converted to a single compound. What is it?

A

Both fats and carbohydrates are degraded to acetyl coenzyme A.

94
Q

What is the only C5 compound in the citric acid cycle?

A

⍺-ketoglutarate

95
Q

Which substrate in the citric acid cycle is oxidized by FAD? What is the oxidation product?

A

Succinate is oxidized by FAD, and the oxidation product is fumarate.

96
Q

Why is a many-step cyclic process more efficient in utilizing energy from food than a single-step combustion?

A

It allows the energy to be released in small packets.

97
Q

What are the mobile electron carriers of the oxidative phosphorylation?

A

(a) Mobile electron carriers of the electron transport chain: cytochrome c and CoQ
(b) compounds that do not contain iron: CoQ (II) and FMN (I)

98
Q

What is the channel through which ions reenter the matrix of mitochondria?

A

Ions reenter the mitochondrial matrix through the proton-translocating ATPase

99
Q

If each mole of ATP yields 7.3 kcal of energy upon hydrolysis, how many kilocalories of energy would you get from 1 g of CH3 COO 2 entering the citric acid cycle?

A

The molecular weight of acetate = 59 g/mol, so 1 g acetate = 1/59=0.017 mol acetate. Each mole of acetate produces 12 moles of ATP [see Problem 27.43(b)], so 0.017 molx12=0.204 mol ATP. This gives 0.204 mol ATP x 7.3 kcal/mol = 1.5 kcal

100
Q

(a) How do muscles contract?

(b) Where does the energy in muscle contraction come from?

A

(a) Muscles contract by sliding the thick filaments (myosin) and the thin filaments (actin) past each other.
(b) The energy comes from the hydrolysis of ATP.

101
Q

How many grams of CH3COOH (from acetyl CoA) molecules must be metabolized in the common metabolic pathway to yield 87.6 kcal of energy?

A

This amount of energy (87.6 kcal) is obtained from 12 mol of ATP (87.6 kcal 7.3 kcal/mol ATP 12 mol ATP). Oxidation of 1 mol of acetate yields 12 mol ATP. The molecular weight of CH3COOH is 60 g/mol, so the answer is 60 g or 1 mol CH3COOH.

102
Q

The passage of ions from the cytoplasmic side into the matrix generates mechanical energy. Where is this energy of motion exhibited first?

A

The energy of motion appears first in the ion channel, where the passage of H1 causes the proteins lining the
channel to rotate

103
Q

What structural characteristics do citric acid and malic acid have in common?

A

They are both hydroxy acids.

104
Q

Which filament of muscles is an enzyme, catalyzing the reaction that converts ATP to ADP?

A

Myosin

105
Q

How many stereocenters are in isocitrate?

A

2

106
Q

Where is the H+ ion channel located in the protontranslocating ATPase complex?

A

In the F0 portion of the ATPase

107
Q

Are biosynthetic pathways likely to involve oxidation, like the common catabolic pathway, or reduction? Why?

A

Biosynthetic pathways are likely to feature reduction reactions because their net effect is to reverse catabolism, which is oxidative.

108
Q

What is the main use of amino acids in the body?

A

They serve as building blocks for the synthesis of proteins.

109
Q

In one step of the glycolysis pathway, a chain is broken into two fragments, only one of which can be further degraded in the glycolysis pathway. What happens to the other fragment?

A

The two C3 fragments are in equilibrium. As the glyceraldehyde phosphate is used up, the equilibrium shifts and converts the other C3 fragment (dihydroxyacetone phosphate) to glyceraldehyde phosphate.

110
Q

(a) Which steps in glycolysis of glucose need ATP?

(b) Which steps in glycolysis yield ATP directly?

A

(a) Steps 1 & 3 and (b) Steps 6 and 9

111
Q

At what point in glycolysis can ATP act as an inhibitor? What kind of enzyme regulation occurs in this inhibition?

A

ATP inhibition takes place at Step 9. It inhibits the pyruvate kinase by feedback regulation

112
Q

What essential compound is produced in the pentose phosphate pathway that is needed for synthesis as well as for defense against oxidative damages?

A

NADPH

113
Q

How many moles of lactate are produced from 3 moles of glucose?

A

6

114
Q

Of the 36 molecules of ATP produced by the complete metabolism of glucose, how many are produced directly in glycolysis alone—that is, before the common pathway?

A

two moles of ATP are produced directly in the cytoplasm.

115
Q

(a) If fructose is metabolized in the liver, how many moles of net ATP are produced from each mole during glycolysis?

(b) How many moles are produced if the same thing occurs in a muscle cell?

A

Two net ATP molecules are produced in both cases.

116
Q

Based on the names of the enzymes participating in glycolysis, what would be the name of the enzyme catalyzing the activation of glycerol?

A

glycerol kinase

117
Q

Two enzymes participating in b-oxidation have the word “thio” in their names.
(a) Name the two enzymes.
(b) To which chemical group does this name refer?
(c) What is the common feature in the action of these two enzymes?

A

(a) thiokinase and thiolase
(b) —SH
(c) both enzymes insert a CoA–SH

118
Q

Assume that lauric acid (C12) is metabolized through b-oxidation. What are the products of the reaction after three turns of the spiral?

A

Each turn of fatty acid b-oxidation yields one acetyl CoA, one FADH2, and one NADH. After three turns, CH3(CH2)4CO–CoA remains from the original lauric acid; three acetyl CoA, three FADH2, and three NADH + H+ are produced.

119
Q

Calculate the number of ATP molecules obtained in the b-oxidation of myristic acid, CH3 (CH2 )12 COOH.

A

112 moles

120
Q

Assuming that both fats and carbohydrates are available, which does the body preferentially use as an energy source?

A

carbohydrates

121
Q

What are the sources of the nitrogen in urea?

A

One of the nitrogens comes from ammonium ion through the intermediate carbamoyl phosphate. The other nitrogen comes from aspartate

122
Q

(a) What is the toxic product of the oxidative deamination of glutamate?
(b) How does the body get rid of it?

A

(a) The toxic product is ammonium ion.
(b) The body gets rid of it by converting it to urea.

123
Q

What causes cramps of the muscles when a person is fatigued?

A

Muscle cramps come from lactic acid accumulation

124
Q

What system counteracts the acidic effect of ketone bodies in the blood?

A

The bicarbonate/carbonic acid buffer counteracts the acidic effects of ketone bodies

125
Q
A