cheese pilot Mock Checkride Flashcards

1
Q

What is the advisory circular for instrument checkride endorsement?

A

61-65-H

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2
Q

What documents do you need for the instrument checkride?

A

Medical
Pilots License
Valid government issue ID

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3
Q

When do you need an instrument rating?

A

PIC in Alpha Airspace 91.135

PIC in Less than VFR conditions 61.3

Commercial Pilot: Carrying passengers for compensation or hire more than 50 NM miles or at night 61.133

Special VFR between sunset and sunrise 91.157

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4
Q

To act as PIC what is the timeframe and requirements to stay current with your instrument privileges?

A

Within the 6 calendar months preceding the month of flight:

6 Instrument approaches

holding procedures and tasks

intercepting and tracking courses through the use of navigational electronic systems

*the above can be completed in a FFS, ATD, or FTD provided the device represents the category of aircraft for the instrument rating privileges to be maintained and the pilot performs the tasks and iterations in simulated instrument conditions. A flight instructor is not needed.

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5
Q

When can you log instrument time?

A

A person may log instrument time only for that flight time when the person operates the aircraft solely by reference to instruments under actual or simulated instrument flight conditions.

*in an aircraft or FAA approved simulator or training device

If in IMC you can log instrument time as log as you are in IMC conditions before the FAF (Final Approach Fix)

If simulated conditions, simulated must be to minimums

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6
Q

If you haven’t flown for 6/7+ months preceding the month of your flight. What do you need to do now?

A

You have 6 months of a grace period to regain currency. (you aren’t technically current and cant enjoy the Instrument privileges)

By performing the “6 hits” with a safety pilot, instructor, or examiner (under simulated conditions). In the aircraft or approved simulator/training device

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7
Q

What are the requirements of a safety pilot requirements?

A

must be a Private Pilot in the same category and class of aircraft

Adequate vision forward and to each side or the aircraft

aircraft must have a dual control system

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8
Q

Who is PIC when the IFR pilot under the hood, IFR pilot or the safety pilot?

A

The safety pilot

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9
Q

when can you log an instrument approach under actual IMC and when can you log an approach under VFR?

A

to log an approach in VMC the approach must be down to minimums

to log an approach in IMC the approach must in IMC to the FAF

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10
Q

What if you haven’t flown for over a year, what must you do now?

More than 6 moths since IFR current?

A

An Instrument Proficiency Check (IPC) is required.
must be administered by a CFII, examiner, or other approved person.

some IPC task, but not all, can be conducted in a FTD or ATC

to meet recent instrument experience requirements, the following information must be recorded in the persons logbook:

Location & type or each instrument approach accomplished, and the name of the safety pilot, if required.

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11
Q

What if you are not current and get your multi engine instrument rating?

A

Instrument rating checkride can act as IPC

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12
Q

what are the requirements for an IPC (instrument proficiency check)

A

A precision approach.

A nonprecision approach.

A missed approach.

A circling approach.

Holding.

Landing(s) from a straight-in or circling approach.

An approach with the loss of primary flight instruments.

Recoveries from unusual attitudes.

Intercepting and tracking navigation courses.

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13
Q

In the acronym AVIATES, what specifically applies to IFR?

A

VOR check every 30 days

Altimeter and pitot static system every 24 calendar months

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14
Q

When you are doing your pre-flight when would you need to file an alternate airport?

A

A destination alternate is always required, unless

An instrument approach is published and available for
the destination for your aircraft (example is your aircraft is not equipped with ILS and thats the only approach at the airport)

AND

For at least 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA:

Ceiling will be at least 2000’ above airport
elevation or higher

Visibility will be at least 3+ SM or farther
§91.169

no alternate is required

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15
Q

if the aircraft is capable of WAAS (Wide area augmented system) how does this effect your choices when picking an alternate?

A

Your alternate and destination can only be based on GPS

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16
Q

What does the black triangle with the white A mean in an approach chart?

A

it stands for non-standard Alternate minimum

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17
Q

If an approach plate has a black triangle with a white A that stands for non standard alternate minimums…What are standard minimums?

A
  • Precision Approach: 600’ ceiling, 2 SM visibility
  • Non-Precision Approach: 800’ ceiling, 2 SM visibility
  • No Approach: Able to descend from MEA & land VFR
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18
Q

If the arrival chart says NA what does that mean”

A

Not Authorized

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19
Q

What are the two different types of departure procedures?

A

Obstacle Departure Procedures (does not require a clearance)

Standard Instrument Departure (does require a clearance)

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20
Q

What is a ODP (Obstacle Departure Procedure)

A

Provides only obstacle clearance.

Printed either textually or graphically.

Graphic ODPs are titled “(OBSTACLE).”

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21
Q

What is a SID (standard Instrument Procedure)

A

In addition to obstacle clearance it reduces
pilot and controller workload by simplifying ATC clearances and minimizing radio communications.

May depict special radio failure procedures.

SIDs are always printed graphically.

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22
Q

What is a STAR?

A

STANDARD TERMINAL ARRIVAL (STAR)

■ Serves as a transition between the enroute structure and a point from which an approach to landing can be made.

■ Transition routes connect enroute fixes to the basic
STAR procedure.

■ Usually named according to the fix at which the
basic procedure begins.

■ As with a SID, you can state “NO STARs” in the
remarks section of the flight plan, to avoid getting a
clearance containing a STAR.

■ RNAV STARs require RNAV 1 performance.

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23
Q

What are the two clearances you can get when it comes to a star?

A

Join and Descend via

Join means follow it laterally

Descend means follow it laterally and vertically

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24
Q

What are the gyroscopic instruments (6-pack)

A

Attitude indicator (vacuum system)

Heading indicator (vacuum system)

Turn coordinator (electric system)

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25
Q

What principle does the attitude Indicator rely on? Gyroscopic principle

A

Functions of rigidity and space functions on a horizontal gyroscope

Operates on the principle of rigidity in space. Shows bank and pitch information. Older AIs may have a
tumble limit. Should show correct attitude within 5 minutes of starting the engine. Normally vacuum-driven in GA aircraft, may be electrical in others. May have small acceleration/deceleration errors (accelerate-slight
pitch up, decelerate- pitch down) and roll-out errors (following a 180 turn shows a slight turn in the opposite
direction).

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26
Q

How do the pendulous vanes in an attitude indicator work?

*Non-electrically driven attitude indicators

A

In a vacuum system instruments, the air flows through the instrument being pulled through and escaping. There are 4 little slits at the bottom of the instrument that are covered (all slightly off-center to only effect one slit if off-center). if the instrument is out of alignment the air escapes from the now uncovered slit (the other 3 slits are still covered) and with the air gyroscopic precession is created moving the instrument back into its correct alignment.

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27
Q

Which direction does the Heading Indicator rotate?

A

The heading indicator will be rotating Vertically. Operates on the principle of rigidity in space.

Operates on the principle of rigidity in space. It only reflects changes in heading, but cannot measure the
heading directly. You have to calibrate it with a magnetic compass in order for it to indicate correctly. HIs may
be slaved to a magnetic heading source, such as a flux gate, and sync automatically to the present heading.
Normally powered by the vacuum system in on GA aircraft.

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28
Q

How does the Turn Indicator operate?

A

Operates on the principle of precession.

Turn coordinators show rate-of-turn and rate of roll.

Turn-and-slip indicators show rate-of-turn only.

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29
Q

What are the errors in a magnetic compass?

A

MAGNETIC COMPASS ERRORS & LIMITATIONS – “DV MONA”
■ D- Deviation (placard that shows the inaccuracy of the magnetic compass)
■ V- Variation (isogonic lines on a sectional)
■ M- Magnetic dip
■ O- Oscillation
■ N- North/south turn errors -
Northern Hemisphere: UNOS Undershoot North/ Overshoot South
■ A- Acceleration errors -
Northern Hemisphere: ANDS Accelerate North/ Decelerate South

Electronic equipment can the magnetic compass to deviate(phones, ipads, etc)

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30
Q

What are the types of Indicators?

A

Turn coordinators show rate-of-turn and rate of roll.

Turn-and-slip indicators show rate-of-turn only.

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31
Q

What does the turn coordinator show rate of turn and rate of roll and the turn and slip indicator only show rate of turn only?

A

The turn indicator has a tilted gimbal at 45 degrees which allows it to detect both yaw and roll hence the rate of turn and rate of roll

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32
Q

How does your altimeter work?

A

■ A stack of sealed aneroid wafers expands and contracts with atmospheric pressure changes received from the static port.
■ A mechanical linkage between the aneroid and the display translates the sensed pressure to an altitude
indication.

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33
Q

What is an aneroid Barometer? (altimeter)

A

An aneroid barometer that shows the height above a given pressure level, based on standard pressure
lapse rate of 1000’ per inch of mercury.

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34
Q

What is a Kollsman Window? (altimeter)

A

The pressure setting is displayed in the “Kollsman Window” in mb and/or inches of mercury (Hg)

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35
Q

Altimeter information…freebies

A

■ In the US, when operating below 18,000’ MSL regularly set the altimeter to a station within 100 NM.
Above 18,000’ MSL, the altimeter should be set to the standard sea level pressure of 29.92” Hg, and
operate in Flight Levels (FL).
■ “High to Low - Watch out below!”. Use caution when flying from high pressure to low pressure areas. If
altimeter setting is not updated, altitude will indicate higher, causing the pilot to fly lower than desired. Flying
from hot to cold areas results in the same error.

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36
Q

What are the types of altitudes?

A

■ Indicated altitude – Uncorrected altitude indicated on the dial when set to local pressure setting (QNH).
■ Pressure altitude – Altitude above the standard 29.92. Hg plane (QNE). Used when flying above the
transition altitude (18,000’ in the US)
■ Density altitude – Pressure alt. corrected for nonstandard temperature. Used for performance calculations.
■ True altitude – Actual altitude above Mean Sea Level (MSL).
■ Absolute altitude – Height above airport elevation (QFE).

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37
Q

How does a Vertical speed Indicator work?

A

Indicates rate-of-climb in fpm (accurate after a 6-9 sec. lag), and rate trend (immediately with rate
change).
■ A diaphragm inside the instrument is connected directly to the static source.
■ The area outside the diaphragm also receives static pressure, but via a calibrated leak (a restricted orifice).
■ This configuration essentially responds to static pressure change over time.
■ As the diaphragm expands or contracts, a mechanical linkage moves the pointer needle to display the
current rate of climb to the pilot.
■ Instantaneous VSI (IVSI) solves the lag issue with the addition of vertical accelerometers.

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38
Q

How does the Airspeed indicator work?

A

The airspeed indicator measures the difference between impact (ram) air pressure from the pitot tube and ambient pressure
from the static port. The result pressure is called dynamic pressure and corresponds to airspeed.
▷ Dynamic Pressure (airspeed) = Impact Pressure – Static pressure.
■ A diaphragm in the instrument receives ram pressure from the pitot tube. The area outside the diaphragm is sealed and
connected to the static port. A mechanical linkage converts the expansion and contraction of the diaphragm to airspeed shown
on the display dial.

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39
Q

EXPLAIN STATIC PORT BLOCKAGE

A

Airspeed indicator – Indicates correctly only at the blockage altitude.
▷ Higher altitudes → airspeed indicates lower than it should.
▷ Lower altitudes → Indicates higher than it should.

■ Altimeter – will freeze on the altitude where it was blocked.

■ VSI – freezes on zero.
▷ After verifying a blockage in the static port, you should use an alternate static source or break the VSI window (in which
case, expect reverse VSI information).

■ When using the alternate static source (a lower static pressure is measured):
▷ Airspeed indicator – indicate a faster speed than it should.
▷ Altimeter – indicate higher than it should.
▷ VSI – momentarily show a climb.

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40
Q

EXPLAIN PITOT TUBE BLOCKAGE

A

The only instrument affected is the airspeed indicator.

■ Ram air inlet clogged and drain hole open? Airspeed drops to zero.

■ Both air inlet and drain hole are clogged? The airspeed indicator will act as an altimeter, and will no longer be reliable.

■ When suspecting a pitot blockage, consider the use of pitot heat to melt ice that may have formed in or on the pitot tube.

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41
Q

What is a big error that might apply to our Altimeter?

A

Not adjusting the altimeter below flight level 18,000 will read a false altitude and if unadjusted can cause CFIT (Controlled flight into terrain)

*“High to low, look out below” is a phrase used primarily in aviation, meaning that when flying from an area of high pressure to an area of low pressure, pilots need to be extra vigilant and aware of potential terrain hazards because their altimeter may not accurately reflect their altitude unless they adjust their altimeter setting accordingly

When flying from a “hot” to a “cold” area, your altimeter will read higher than your actual altitude, meaning you are closer to the ground than you think, hence the phrase “from hot to cold, look out below” - this is because colder air is denser and exerts more pressure, causing the altimeter to indicate a higher altitude than it actually is.

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42
Q

What are the different types of altitudes

A

Indicated altitude – Uncorrected altitude indicated on the dial when set to local pressure setting (QNH).

■ Pressure altitude – Altitude above the standard 29.92. Hg plane (QNE). Used when flying above the
transition altitude (18,000’ in the US)

■ Density altitude – Pressure alt. corrected for nonstandard temperature. Used for performance calculations.

■ True altitude – Actual altitude above Mean Sea Level (MSL).

■ Absolute altitude – Height above airport elevation (QFE).

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43
Q

If the static port is blocked how does the Airspeed Indicator act?

A

reverse altimeter but as you climb you could see a slower speed with a small climb.

Example 80knts climbing 10fpm

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44
Q

What are the types of airspeeds?

A

Indicated airspeed (IAS) – indicated on the airspeed indicator

■ Calibrated airspeed (CAS) – IAS corrected for instrument & position errors.

■ Equivalent airspeed (EAS) – CAS corrected for compressibility error.

■ True airspeed (TAS) – Actual speed through the air. EAS corrected for nonstandard temperature and pressure

■ Mach number – The ratio of TAS to the local speed of sound.

■ Ground speed – Actual speed over the ground. TAS corrected for wind conditions.

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45
Q

What equipment do you need for IFR flight?

assuming you know the VFR instruments for day and night

A

G - Generator / alternator.

R - Radios. Two-way radio communication & navigational equipment suitable for the route to be flown.

A - Altimeter (sensitive, adjustable for barometric pressure)

B - Ball (slip-skid indicator).

C - Clock. Shows hours, minutes and seconds with sweep-second
pointer or digital representation. Installed as part of aircraft
equipment.

A - Attitude indicator.

R - Rate-of-turn indicator.

D - Directional gyro (heading indicator).

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46
Q

How do you describe RNAV?

A

Is area navigation which acts like an umbrella that sits over top of a bunch of different forms of navigation (GPS, VOR/VOR, DME/DME, Inertial Reference Unit / System (IRU/ IRS)

RNAV is area navigation that is picking up all signals available to that RNAV system in the area and triangulating its position based on that.

IF the aircraft is equipped with GPS, RNAV picks up all the satellites in the area to figure out its location. Similar concert with VOR/VOR and DME/DME the RNAV is picking up every VOR or DME it can see to triangulate its location.

(this is different from the pilot tuning in VORs getting radials and frequencies and identifying stations is not RNAV that is Victor Airway navigation/IFR navigation)

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47
Q

What is RNAV?

A

Allows navigation on any desired path without the need to overfly ground-based facilities.

■ Types:
▷ Global Navigation Satellite System (GNSS) (e.g., GPS, Galileo, GLONASS, BeiDou)
▷ VOR/DME RNAV
▷ DME/DME RNAV
▷ Inertial Reference Unit / System (IRU/ IRS)

■ RNAV VNAV - Vertical NAVigation guidance.

■ BARO-VNAV - An RNAV system that uses the barometric altitude to compute vertical guidance for the pilot.

■ Published RNAV routes include Q (FL180 to FL450) and T (1,200 AGL to 18,000 MSL) routes and are designated RNAV 2 unless charted as RNAV 1.

■ Magnetic Reference Bearing (MRB) - the published bearing between two waypoints on an RNAV route.

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48
Q

Define RNAV

A

rnav includes

▷ Global Navigation Satellite System (GNSS) (e.g., GPS, Galileo, GLONASS, BeiDou)
▷ VOR/DME RNAV
▷ DME/DME RNAV
▷ Inertial Reference Unit / System (IRU/ IRS)

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49
Q

Define GPS

A

GPS is a Global Navigation Satellite System (GNSS) operated by the United States.

■ The constellation consists of a minimum of 24 satellites (with some spares) orbiting above the earth at 10,900 NM. The system is designed so that at least 5 satellites are in view at any given location on earth.

■ The Aircraft’s GPS receiver calculates the distance to a GPS satellite based on the time lapse since the broadcast timestamp (obtained from an atomic clock onboard the satellite) and the time it received the signal.

■ Using only one satellite, the aircraft could virtually be on any point on a sphere surrounding the satellite, with the calculated distance (“pseudo-range”) as the sphere’s radius.

■ The GPS receiver uses the intersection of spheres, from multiple satellites, to calculate the aircraft’s
geographical position. Course and speed data are computed from aircraft position changes.

■ At least 3 satellites are required for 2D position. (latitude and longitude); at least 4 satellites are required for
3D position. (latitude, longitude and altitude).

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50
Q

Explain RAIM

A

Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (RAIM) is a function of GPS receivers that monitors the integrity of the satellite signals.
▷ RAIM (fault detection) requires a minimum of 5 satellites, or, 4 satellites + an altimeter input (baro-aided RAIM)
▷ To eliminate a corrupt satellite (fault exclusion), RAIM needs an additional satellite (total of 6 or 5 + baro-aid)
■ A database loaded into the receiver unit contains navigational data such as: airports, navaids, routes, waypoints and instrument procedures.

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51
Q

Explain WAAS

A

Wide Area Augmentation System (WAAS) in the US; EGNOS in Europe.
□ Ground stations (Wide-area Reference Stations and Wide-area Master Stations) measure GPS errors and produce correction signals. These corrections are broadcasted back to the satellite segment from which
they are bounced back to aircraft GPS WAAS receivers to improve accuracy, integrity and availability monitoring for GPS navigation.
Covers a wide area.

□ Facilitates APV approaches such as LPV and LNAV/VNAV and LP approaches

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52
Q

What is the difference between the CDI display of a GPS vs a VOR?

A

The GPS shows you lateral distance off course the VOR shows you angular in degrees off course

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53
Q

What is GBAS Ground-based augmented system?

A

□ Formerly named Local Area Augmentation System (LAAS) in the US. Now replaced with the ICAO term
“GBAS.”
□ Errors are broadcasted via VHF to GBAS-enabled GPS receivers.
□ GBAS is more accurate than WAAS but covers a much smaller geographical area.
□ Allows for category I and above approaches to GLS DA minima.
■ RNP is:
▷ A statement of navigation equipment and service performance.
▷ RNAV with navigation monitoring and alerting.

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54
Q

What can WAAS enable you to do?

A

allows you to execute precision-like approaches with GPS at a lower min altitude DA (Decision Altitude) and will give (LPV) localizer performance style approaches with vertical guidance

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55
Q

What is the big brown number on a low IFR chart? OROCA

A

Off Route Obstruction Clearance Altitude

Provides 1,000’ of clearance in non-mountainous

areas and 2,000’ of clearance in mountainous areas

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56
Q

If the OROCA (off Route Obstruction Clearance Altitude) is BIG 12 and small 6 what is the altitude

A

12,600ft MSL

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57
Q

What is the number above the victor airway 2100/V312? *isnt always over a Victor airway

A

MEA Minimum Enroute Altitude

Lowest altitude (in MSL) between radio fixes assuring acceptable nav. signal coverage and obstacle clearance requirements

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58
Q

What is a MOCA?

A

On a low IFR chart, a “MOCA” (Minimum Obstacle Clearance Altitude) is indicated as a number usually displayed smaller and with an asterisk next to it, typically found below the “MEA” (Minimum Enroute Altitude) on an airway, signifying the lowest altitude at which you can fly along that route while still maintaining guaranteed obstacle clearance, even if the navigational signal coverage may be limited in certain areas; essentially, it’s the altitude that ensures you won’t hit any obstacles, but not necessarily the best signal quality throughout the route.
Key points about MOCA:
Location on chart: Usually displayed beneath the MEA on an airway segment on a low IFR chart.

Asterisk indicator: Often marked with an asterisk to distinguish it from the MEA.
Function: Guarantees obstacle clearance along the entire route, but may not provide signal coverage for the whole way.
MEA? MOCA? OROCA? IFR Altitudes Explained
May 4, 2022

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59
Q

Explain a MOCA?

A

MOCA
Minimum Obstruction Clearance Altitude
Provides obstacle clearance and nav. coverage
up to 22 NM from the station

If both MEA and MOCA are present, a pilot may fly lower than the MEA but not lower than the MOCA, provided nav. signals are available. If using only VOR, you may NOT
descend below the MEA unless you are within 22 NM from the station

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60
Q

Why is there a VOR that is completely shaded black?

A

Reporting Point When out of ATC radar coverage, pilots are
required to report when passing this position.

(report in a non-radar environment)

Required position
report information:
- Identification
- Position
- Time
- Altitude
- Type of flight plan
(not required if IFR)
- ETA and name of
next reporting point
- Name of next point
on flight plan
- Pertinent remarks

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61
Q

What does MON mean?

*can be found above the Colorado air and space port

A

Minimum operational network

if there is a wide spread gps or satellite outage you can land via non gps approaches within 100nm

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62
Q

in a cross country, what must you report to ACT under IFR control?

(AIM 5-3-3, §91.183, §91.187 )

A

■ Missed approach

■ Airspeed ±10 kts / 5% change of filed TAS (whichever is greater)

■ Reaching a holding fix (report time & altitude)

■ VFR on top when an altitude change will be made.

■ ETA changed ±2 min, or ±3 min in North Atlantic (NAT) *

■ Leaving a holding fix/point

■ Outer marker (or fix used in lieu of it) *

■ Unforecasted weather (§91.183)

■ Safety of flight (any other information related to safety of
flight, §91.183)

■ Vacating an altitude / FL

■ Final Approach fix *

■ Radio/Nav/approach equipment failure (§91.187)

■ Compulsory reporting points ▲ * (§91.183)

■ 500 - unable climb/descent 500 fpm
* Required only in non-radar environments (including ATC
radar failure)

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63
Q

What do you do when your radio dies?

A
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64
Q

When can you descend past the DA and MDA?

A

(§91.175)
1. The aircraft is continuously in a position from which a descent to a landing on the intended runway can be made at a normal rate of descent using normal maneuvers.

  1. The flight visibility (or the enhanced flight visibility, if equipped) is not less than the visibility prescribed in the standard instrument approach being used.
  2. At least one of the following visual references for the intended runway is distinctly visible and identifiable to the pilot: (except for CAT II & III approaches)

i. The approach light system, except that the pilot may not descend below 100 feet above the touchdown zone elevation using the approach lights as a reference unless the red terminating bars or the red side row bars are also distinctly visible and identifiable.

ii. The threshold.
iii. The threshold markings.
iv. The threshold lights.
v. The runway end identifier lights.
vi. The visual glideslope indicator.
vii. The touchdown zone or touchdown zone markings.
viii. The touchdown zone lights.
ix. The runway or runway markings.
x. The runway lights.

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65
Q

What are the two conditions required for structural icing?

A

visible moisture

aircraft surface temperature near or below the freezing level

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66
Q

List the different types of icing

A

■ Structural Ice. Two conditions for formation: 1. Visible moisture (i.e., rain, cloud droplets), and 2. Aircraft
surface temperature below freezing.

▷ Clear ice– The most dangerous type. Heavy, hard and difficult to remove. Forms when water drops freeze slowly as a smooth sheet of solid ice. Usually occurs at temperatures close to the freezing point (-10° to 0° C) by large supercooled drops of water

▷ Rime ice – Opaque, white, rough ice formed by small supercooled water drops freezing quickly. Occurs at lower temperatures than clear ice.

▷ Mixed ice – Clear and rime ice formed simultaneously.

■ Instrument ice – Structural ice forming over aircraft instruments and sensors, such as pitot and static.

■ Induction ice – ice reducing the amount of air for the engine intake.

■ Intake ice – Blocks the engine intake.

■ Carburetor ice – May form due to the steep temperature drop in the carburetor Venturi. Typical conditions are outside air temperatures of -7° to 21° C and a high relative humidity (above 80%).

■ Frost – Ice crystals caused by sublimation when both the temperature and the dew point are below freezing.

67
Q

What are some Anti-icing systems?

A

Pitot heat - anti-icing and de-icing

windshield defrost

68
Q

What are Spatial disorientation and illusions?

A

ICEFLAGS

Inversion Illusion
Coriolis Illusion
Elevator Illusion
False Horizon
Leans
Autokenisis
Graveyard spiral
Somatogravic Illusion

69
Q

What are the different systems of Illusions?

A

3 systems the body uses for spatial orientation

Vestibular system
Somatosensory system
Visual system

□ Vestibular System - Consists of organs in the inner ear
◦ 3 semicircular canals sense movement in 3 axes: pitch, roll, and yaw. The canals are filled with fluid, which moves against tiny sensory hairs as the head is moved. The brain gets these signals and interprets a sensation of movement.
◦ 2 otolith organs, the utricle and saccule, sense acceleration in the horizontal and vertical planes.

□ Somatosensory System - Consists of nerves in the skin, muscles and joints.

□ Visual System - Visual cues from our eyes help the brain figure out spatial orientation.

70
Q

What illusions fall under the Vestibular system?

A

The leans - After leveling the wings following a prolonged turn, pilot may feel that the aircraft is banked in the opposite direction of the turn.

□ Coriolis Illusion - After a prolonged turn, the fluid in the ear canal moves at same speed as the canal. A head movement on a different plane will cause the fluid to start moving and result in a false sensation of acceleration or turning on a
different axis.

□ Graveyard Spiral - A pilot in a prolonged, coordinated constant-rate turn may experience the illusion of not turning. After leveling the wings, the pilot may feel the sensation of turning to the other direction (“the leans”), causing the pilot to turn
back in the original direction. Since a higher angle of attack is required during a turn to remain level, the pilot may notice a loss of altitude and apply back force on the elevator. This may tighten the spiral and increase the loss of altitude.

□ Somatogravic Illusion - Rapid acceleration stimulates the inner ear otolith organs in the same way as tilting the head backwards. This may create the illusion of a higher pitch angle. Deceleration causes the opposite illusion – the sensation of
tilting the head forward and the aircraft being in a nose-low attitude.

□ Inversion Illusion - An abrupt change from climb to straight and level may create the illusion of tumbling backwards due to
the fluid movement in the otolith organs.

□ Elevator Illusion - An abrupt upward vertical acceleration may create the illusion of climbing, due to fluid movement in the
otolith organs.

71
Q

What Illusions fall under the Visual Illusions?

A

□ False Horizon - An illusion in which the pilot may misidentify the horizon line. May be caused by sloping cloud formation, an obscured horizon, an aurora borealis, dark night with scattered lights and stars or the geometry of the ground

□ Autokinesis - Staring at a stationary point of light in a dark or featureless scene for a prolonged period of time may cause the light to appear to be moving. A pilot may attempt to align the aircraft with the perceived moving light, resulting in loss of control.

72
Q

What Illusions fall under the Optical Illusions? (not in ice flag)

A

Runway Width Illusion - During approach to land, a narrow runway may give the pilot the illusion that the airplane is too high, whereas a wide runway may make it seem too low.

□ Runway and Terrain Slope Illusion - An up-sloping terrain or runway can give the illusion that the plane is higher than it actually is.

□ Featureless Terrain Illusion - Also known as “black hole approach.” Flying over dark or featureless terrain (for example, during an over-water approach) can give the illusion that the aircraft is at a higher altitude, causing the pilot to fly lower than desired.

□ Water Refraction - Light refraction due to rain on the windshield may cause the horizon to seem lower and, as a result, the aircraft to appear higher. This illusion may lead the pilot to fly lower than desired.

□ Haze - During an approach, haze may give the illusion that the runway is further or that the airplane is higher than it is.

□ Fog - Flying into fog may create an illusion of a nose-up motion.

□ Ground Lighting Illusion -

◦ Lights along straight paths (e.g., road or train lights) can be mistaken for runway or approach lights.

◦ Bright runway and approach lights can make the runway appear closer than it is, especially when the surrounding terrain is dark. This illusion may lead the pilot to fly a higher approach than desired.

73
Q

What causes a graveyard spiral?

A

Graveyard Spiral - A pilot in a prolonged, coordinated constant-rate turn may experience the illusion of not turning. After leveling the wings, the pilot may feel the sensation of turning to the other direction (“the leans”), causing the pilot to turn
back in the original direction. Since a higher angle of attack is required during a turn to remain level, the pilot may notice a loss of altitude and apply back force on the elevator. This may tighten the spiral and increase the loss of altitude

74
Q

What’s the difference between a graveyard spin and a graveyard spiral?

A

The spiral: the axis of rotation is outside of the airplane

The spin: the axis of rotation is inside of the airplane

75
Q

If you are VFR on top, what are some of the illusions I could experience?

A

□ False Horizon - An illusion in which the pilot may misidentify the horizon line. May be caused by sloping cloud formation, an obscured horizon, an aurora borealis, dark night with scattered lights and stars or the geometry of the ground

□ Autokinesis - Staring at a stationary point of light in a dark or featureless scene for a prolonged period of time may cause the light to appear to be moving. A pilot may attempt to align the aircraft with the perceived moving light, resulting in loss of control.

76
Q

What is Primary & Supporting Method?

A

Divides the cockpit panel by Pitch, Bank, and Power instruments.

▷ Pitch instruments: Attitude Indicator, Altimeter, Airspeed Ind., and VSI.

▷ Bank instruments: Attitude ind., Heading ind., Mag. Compass, and Turn Coordinator.

▷ Power instruments: Airspeed, Tachometer, Manifold pressure

▷ For a specific maneuver, primary instruments provide the most essential information for pitch, bank and power while supporting Instruments back up and supplement the information presented by the primary instruments.

▷ Example, for a constant rate climb with a standard rate turn –

□ Primary: Pitch - VSI; Bank - Turn Coordinator; Power - RPM / MP

□ Secondary: Pitch - ASI; attitude, Bank - AI, HI, Mag. Compass; Power - ASI

77
Q

What is the Control and Performance Method?

A

Divides the cockpit panel by control instruments and performance instruments.

First, set the power and attitude, then monitor the performance and make adjustments.

▷ Control instruments
□ Power - Tachometer, Manifold pressure, EPR, N1, etc.
□ Attitude - Attitude Indicator

▷ Performance Instruments
□ Pitch: altimeter, airspeed and VSI
□ Bank: Heading Indicator, Turn Coordinator, and magnetic compass

78
Q

What is the difference between a Blue and Green airport?

A

The blue color signifies that the airport’s IAP is published in DoD documents, not the standard FAA Terminal Procedures Publications (TPPs).

Military use:
This usually means the airport is primarily used by military aircraft and may have specific procedures for military operations.

79
Q

What is a VDP

A

Visual Decent Point
AIM 5-4-5

A defined point on the final approach course of a non-precision straight-in approach procedure from which normal descent
from the MDA to the runway touchdown point may begin, provided adequate visual reference is established.

■ Identified by a ‘V’ symbol on the descent profile.

■ If not equipped to identify the VDP, fly the approach as if no VDP was published.

■ Do not descend below the MDA prior to reaching the VDP

80
Q

How do the markers correspond to fixes

A

Outer marker is IAF

Middle marker is FAF

Inner marker is MAF
(missed approached fix)

81
Q

How does an ILS work?
Instrument landing system

A

the ILS works using 3 components the localizer, glide slope, and Marker beacon. 1-1-9

The localizer is on the opposite side of the runway and provides lateral guidance. 90 and 150 Hz signals are sent over VHF
frequency and used by the receiver to interpret the plane’s lateral position
Extends 18 NM calibrated to approximately 700 ft. wide at
the threshold 4 times more sensitive than a VOR

Glide Slope:
329.3 - 335 MHz (UHF)
Automatically tuned with the localizer Vertical position interpreted by the intensity
of 90 - 150 Hz signals carried over the UHF frequency
1.4 degrees in width
(full deflection is 0.7 degrees either direction) Range of around 10 NM Typically 3 degree slope

Marker Beacons:
Provide range information over points Transmit at 75 MHz Outer Marker: 4-7 miles out. Indicates position for glide slope intercept.
Shows as BLUE Middle Marker: Approximately 3,500 ft. from the runway.
Shows as AMBER Indicates where Glide Slope meets
Decision Height Usually 200 ft above touchdown
zone elevation Inner Marker: Indicates point where the
Glide Slope meets the Decision Height on a
CAT II ILS approach
Shows as WHITE Back Course Marker: Indicates Final approach Fix on a selected Back Course
approach Shows as WHITE

82
Q

What is a false glide slope?

A

a secondary, incorrect glide path signal that can be picked up by an aircraft during an approach, often appearing at a steeper angle than the intended glide slope

83
Q

How can you identify if you are on the glide slope or if you intercepted a false glide slope?

A

Double check your altitute matches with the FAF

A false glide slope is going to be a lot steeper of a descent angle anywhere from 6-9 degrees instead of the standard 3 degrees

84
Q

what are a few ways to measure the distance from the airport of the ILS?

A

Marker beacon

Outer Marker: 4-7 miles out. Indicates
position for glide slope intercept. (FAF)
Shows as BLUE

Middle Marker: Approximately 3,500 ft. from the runway. Shows as AMBER Indicates where Glide Slope meets Decision Height Usually 200 ft above touchdown zone elevation

Inner Marker: Indicates point where the
Glide Slope meets the Decision Height on a
CAT II ILS approach
Shows as WHITE

Back Course Marker: Indicates Final
approach Fix on a selected Back Course
approach
Shows as WHITE

You can imput the ILS onto the DME(bar1/2) *ILS is on the opposite side of the runway

85
Q

If all you see is sequential blinking white lights when you hit your minimums, can you continue to descend?

A

When you have the lights insight you can go down to 100ft above the TDZE (touch down zone elevation)

86
Q

Describe what a VDP is?

A

Visual Descent point

A defined point on the final approach course of a non-precision straight-in approach procedure
from which normal descent from the MDA to the runway touchdown point may begin, provided adequate visual reference is established.
Identified as a “V” symbol on the descent profile.
If not equipped to identify the VDP, fly the approach as if no VDP was published
Do not descend below the MDA prior to reaching the VDP

87
Q

If there is no VDP, what would you do to calculate the suggested VDP
nm distance from the runway?

A

MDA-TDZE = X/300

88
Q

Why would a VOR-DME-A not be assigned a runway?

A

The Final Approach coarse is grater than 30° aligned from the runway

89
Q

Explain the different levels of GPS when it comes to aircraft navigation?

GPS vs RAIM vs WAAS

A

(Global Positioning System)
Global Navigation Satellite System has a minimum of 24 satellites
5 satellites are visible at all time to the aircraft
3 satellites will give you 2D positioning and 4 satellites will give you 3D positioning

(Receiver Autonomous integrity Monitoring)
RAIM uses 4 satellites and an altimeter input or a minimum of 5 satellites and the 5th satellite will act as a fault detection or loss of integrity (5 satellites = you have RAIM with fault detection)

(Wide Area Augmentation System)
Ground base stations (Wide-area Reference Stations and Wide-area Master Stations)
measure GPS errors and produce correction signals. These corrections are
broadcasted back to the satellite segment from which they are bounced back to aircraft GPS WAAS receivers to improve accuracy, integrity, and availability monitoring for GPS navigation.
Facilitates approaches beyond LNAV alone. LPV, LNAV/ VNAV

90
Q

What is fault exclusion?

A

when you have RAIM and at least 6 satellites OR 5 satellites and a baro-aided altimeter if a satellite is faulty the system will kick out the faulty one

91
Q

Give a quick explanation of how the signals travel through a WAAS system

A

Using the 24+ GPS satellites that are in orbit. The satellites send signals to the aircraft and ground base stations.

The ground base station will then send the signals to a Master Station. The Master station then takes the information from the base station and applies the correction.

The Master Station will then take those corrections and send them to an uplink station*

uplink to the geostation

With all the corrections and new data that was received from the Geostationary satellite, the satellite will then send it to the aircraft with a pseudo-range signal to provide more accuracy, and clarification and apply corrections to the other GPS satellites.

(the ground base stations are not doing anything besides transferring the signal from the satellite to the Master Station)

92
Q

What is a Geostationary Satellite?

A

orbits the Earth in a fixed position, allowing it to continuously monitor a specific area

The satellite and earth are rotating at the same speed allowing the satellite to stay above the earth at a fixed spot

93
Q

What illusion could you experience if you were to rapidly accelerate?

A

Somatogravic

the inner ear otolith organs in the same way as tilting the head

94
Q

When experiencing the illusion of a climb (elevator illusion) What instrument can you check to verify you are not climbing?

95
Q

What is an elevator Illusion?

A

an abrupt upward vertical acceleration may create the illusion of climbing, due to fluid movement in the otolith organs.

96
Q

What are the leans and how does it happen?

part of the Vestibular illusions (inner ear semicircular canals)

A

After leveling the wings following a prolonged turn, the pilot may feel that the aircraft is banked in the opposite direction of the turn.

97
Q

If experiencing the leans and you incorrectly adjust the plane…what could this lead into?

A

Graveyard spiral

A pilot in a prolonged, coordinated constant rate turn may experience the illusion of not turning.

After leveling the wings, the pilot may feel the sensation of turning to the other direction “the leans” causing the pilot to turn back in the original direction.

Since a higher angle of attack is required during a turn to remain level, the pilot may notice a loss of altitude and apply back force on the elevator. This may tighten the spiral and increase the loss of altitude.

98
Q

What are the difference between Graveyard spiral and Graveyard spins?

A

The spin the axis of rotation is within the airplane

The spiral the axis of rotation is outside of the airplane

99
Q

Flying in IFR condition, what can be a dangerous type of thunderstorm for us?

A

Embedded thunderstorms

are hidden in the clouds and you cannot see the thunderstorm without weather radar

101
Q

How far should you stay clear of a thunderstorm?

A

The FAA recommends 20nm

Since hail has been recorded up to 30nm

Personal recommendation could be 50nm

102
Q

what are the ingredients of a thunderstorm?

A

Thunderstorm cell formation needs three ingredients: sufficient water vapor, unstable air, and a lifting
mechanism

Sufficient water vapor (commonly measured using dewpoint) must be present
to produce unstable air. Virtually all showers and thunderstorms form in an air mass that is classified as
conditionally unstable.

A conditionally unstable air mass needs a lifting mechanism strong enough to
release the instability.

Lifting mechanisms include: converging winds around surface lows and troughs,
fronts, upslope flow, drylines, outflow boundaries generated by prior storms, and local winds, such as sea
breeze, lake breeze, land breeze, and valley breeze circulations.

103
Q

What is wind shear?

A

a sudden change in either direction or velocity, generally associated with vertical movement

104
Q

What is a micro-bust?

A

A microburst is a small-scale, intense downdraft that, when reaching the surface, spreads
outward, symmetrically or asymmetrically in all directions from the
downdraft center.

It is the most severe type of wind shear. Microburst activity may be indicated by an intense rain shaft at the surface, but virga (i.e., streaks of precipitation falling from a thunderstorm cloud but not reaching the ground) at the cloud base and/or a ring of blowing dust is sometimes the only visible
clue.

105
Q

In a fuel injected system do you need to worry about induction icing?

A

Ice can still build over the air intake

106
Q

during the winter. is there any danger of fueling up an airplane thats been sitting out on the ramp and taking off in IFR conditions?

A

adding fuel to the airplane can result in lowering the temperature of the wings up to 20 degrees

the fuel being added is often significantly colder than the surrounding air, causing the metal of the wing to cool down through direct contact, a phenomenon known as “cold soaking”; essentially, the cold fuel transfers its temperature to the wing structure, which can then lead to ice formation if the ambient air is near freezing point

107
Q

What defines icing conditions?

A

Visable moisture

aircraft surface temperature below freezing

108
Q

What are the different types of ice we can build in an aircraft?

A

Induction Icing – This includes any icing that impedes that process of air entering the
intake manifold to be mixed with fuel. Ice that builds up on the air intakes is an obvious form of this. Carburetor ice is also a form of induction icing. This can be attributed to the incomplete vaporization of fuel in combination with the pressure decrease inside of the venturi. Even on a day as warm as 70°F, carburetor ice can began to form with adequate moisture in the air.

Instrument Icing – Icing of the pitot tube or static ports can cause the instruments to give
inaccurate readings or to fail completely.

Structural Icing – Ice that forms on the surface of the aircraft. Since airfoils create lift by decreasing the pressure and thus the temperature of the air around them, icing on the
propeller, horizontal and vertical tail surfaces, and wings can form at ambient
temperatures that are above the freezing level. Structural icing includes:

Rime Ice
Rough, milky, opaque ice
Formed by the instantaneous or very rapid freezing of super cooled droplets as they strike the leading edges
Rough surface can decrease aerodynamic efficiency, but
it is lighter than clear ice

Clear Ice
Glossy, transparent ice formed by the relatively slow
freezing of super cooled water Denser, harder, and sometimes more transparent than the rime ice
Harder to remove than rime ice

Mixed Ice
Combination of clear and rime ice Roughness and weight can have an effect on aerodynamics

109
Q

What type of weather will cause clear ice?

A

Clear ice forms when the temperature is warmer than -10 °C and there are large supercooled water droplets
(altostratus, nimbostratus, and cumuliform clouds.)

Clear ice (or glaze ice) is a glossy, clear, or translucent ice formed by the relatively slow freezing of large,
supercooled water droplets. Clear icing conditions exist more often in an environment with warmer
temperatures, higher liquid water contents, and larger droplets

110
Q

What type of weather will cause rime ice?

A

In general, rime icing tends to occur at temperatures colder than -15 °C and small supercooled water droplets (low-level stratus clouds, but can also occur in fog and light drizzle)

Rime ice is rough, milky, and opaque ice formed by the instantaneous freezing of small, supercooled water
droplets after they strike the aircraft

The rapid freezing traps air and forms a porous,
brittle, opaque, and milky-colored ice

111
Q

What is the most dangerous type of structural icing?

A

Clear icing is a more hazardous ice type for many reasons. It tends to form horns near the top and bottom of the airfoils’ leading edge, which greatly affects airflow. This results in an area of disrupted and turbulent airflow that is considerably larger than that caused by rime ice. Since it is clear and difficult to see, the pilot may not be able to quickly recognize that it is occurring. It can be difficult to remove since it can spread
beyond the deicing or anti-icing equipment, although in most cases, it is removed nearly completely by
deicing devices.

112
Q

What type of de-icing or anti-icing does the C172S?

A

Pitot heat which is a anti-icing system

113
Q

Explain the altimeter

A

Inside the casing there is a pressurized aneroid wafer (29.92) as i climb they expand and I descend the contract and they are attached with linkages to move the needles

114
Q

If the static port gets plugged what effect does it have to the Airspeed indicator?

A

the pitot tube is connected to the diaphragm while the static port is connected to the air inside the casing surrounding the diaphragm.

If the static port is plugged the air pressure surrounding the diaphragm is remains at a constant

when you climb the airspeed is going to bleed off indicating a decrease in airspeed

when you descend the airspeed is going to increase indicating an increase in airspeed
(potential of hearing the stall horn since there is a false indication of a faster airspeed)

Example you typically descend at 90knts but since your static port is plugged the altimeter reads higher as you descend. with that false reading you still descend at IAS 90knts BUT thats a flase airspeed and you are descending at a much slower speed which could lead to you being closer to a stall)

Airspeed indicator acts as a reverse altimeter

115
Q

if the static port gets blocked during straight and level flight and you are unaware of the blockage. What can be some indications of a plugged static port and how can you resolve the issue?

A

The pitot static instruments Altimeter, airspeed Indicator, and VSI will all read as normal during straight and level flight.

Only when the pilot climbs or descends will the Instruments show a false reading.

To fix the issue the pilot can pull the alternate static port in the cockpit

116
Q

When a pilot pulls the Alternate static port how will it affect the pitot-static instruments compared to the static port?

A

When pulling the alt static source your static systems instruments will change (altimeter reads higher, VSI will momentarily increase, and AI will increase in speed)

117
Q

Why does pulling the alt static port affect the instruments instead of keeping the same reading as if using the static port?

A

The alt static port should have the same reading as the static port but does not because the cabin isn’t perfectly sealed. Air can escape through the cracks or the doors, windows, etc. As the air outside air moves past those gaps, the outside air will pull the air from the cabin creating a slightly lower pressure due to the Venturi effect.

118
Q

If you experience an alternator failure in IFR what should you do?

A

Contact ATC informing them about the situation and requesting to land as soon as possible

119
Q

If you are on a VOR/DME A approach, you can use a GPS system up until what fix?

A

When flying a VOR/DME A approach, you can generally use a GPS system up until the final approach fix (FAF), as long as the approach procedure specifically allows for GPS usage on the final approach segment; otherwise, you would need to transition to using the VOR navigation for the final approach course once you reach the FAF

120
Q

What documents is the DPE going to be asking for when you get to your checkride?

A

Pilots license

Medical

Valid government issued ID

Logbook with proper hours and endorsements

Written exam score above a 70

Planes maintenance log

121
Q

What is the aeronotical experience do you need for todays flight?

A

50 hours of X-Country PIC time
-At least 10 hours in airplanes

40 hours actual or simulated instrument time
-At least 15 hours with a CFII
-20 of which may be accomplished in an
approved FTD or ATD with instructor

Use of full flight simulators or Flight Training
devices (FTDs)
-Must be with a CFII
-Max 30 hours under Part 141
-Max 20 hours under Part 61

Use of FAA-approved Aviation Training Device
-Must be with a CFII
-Max 10 hours if Basic ATD
-Max 20 hours if Advanced ATD

One 250 NM X-Country flight
Along airways or directed by ATC routing
-An instrument approach at each airport
-3 different kinds of approaches using navigation systems

-3 hours of instrument flight training in the last
2 calendar months

122
Q

When is an instrument rated required

A

■ When acting as PIC under IFR or in weather conditions less than prescribed for VFR.
(§61.3)

■ When carrying passengers for compensation or hire on cross-country flights in excess of 50 NM or at night. (§61.133)

■ For flight in Class A airspace (§91.135)

■ For Special VFR between sunset and sunrise
(§91.157)

123
Q

When can you log instrument time?

A

when operating the aircraft solely by reference to instrument under actual or simulated conditions

124
Q

What do you need to do to maintain your IFR currency

A

Within 6 calendar months preceding the month of
flight:

■ 6 instrument approaches.

■ Holding procedures & tasks.

■ Intercepting & Tracking courses through the use of
navigational electronic systems.

■ The above can be completed in a FFS, ATD, or FTD provided the device represents the category of
aircraft for the instrument rating privileges to be
maintained and the pilot performs the tasks and
iterations in simulated instrument conditions. A flight instructor is not needed.

125
Q

lets say you go 6 months without flying, what do you need to do then?

No “6 HITS” logged looking back six months?

A

You have an additional 6 months to regain currency by performing the “6 HITS” with a safety pilot (under
simulated conditions), an instructor or examiner.

126
Q

What are the minimum ratings for a safety pilot?

A

▷ Holds at least a private pilot certificate with the
appropriate category and class.

▷ Have adequate vision forward and to each side of the aircraft.

▷ Aircraft must have a dual control system.

127
Q

If after a few years you haven’t flown are are not current. What must you do to become current for IFR?

A

An Instrument Proficiency Check (IPC) is required.
Administered by a CFII, examiner, or other approved person. Guidelines are in the ACS.

■ Some IPC tasks, but not all, can be conducted in a FTD or ATD. (See ACS)
To meet recent instrument

128
Q

Lets say you are no longer current but decide to get a Multi-Engine Instrument Rating. Does that count?

129
Q

When would you need an alternate

A

If the airport does not have an instrument approach

and

1 hour before or 1 hour after
2,000’ ceilings of less
3 sm of visibility or less

130
Q

if you filed an alternate what does the alternate need to have?

A

The alternate airport minima published in the procedure charts,

or, if none:

■ Precision approach:
600 ft ceiling and 2 SM visibility.

■ Non-precision approach:
800 ft ceiling and 2 SM visibility.

■ No instrument approach is available at the alternate:
Ceiling & visibility must allow descent from MEA,
approach an

131
Q

If your aircraft is you are using to fly is NOT WAAS (wide area augmented system) capable.

What are some considerations when it comes to filing an alternate?

A

If equipped with non-waas GPS
flight plan can be based on a GPS approach at either destination or alternate but not both 1-1-17b

NON WAAS you can use your GPS for either your destination or your alternate but not both. Example GPS for one airport and ILS for the alternate airport

132
Q

If the aircraft that you are using to fly is capable with WAAS (wide area augmented system)

what are some considerations when it comes to filing an alternate?

A

Since the aircraft is WAAS capable and we have a baro-aiding altimeter you can use LPV, LNAV/VNAV as your destination and your alternate

133
Q

What are your bare minimums when it comes to gas in IFR?

A

Must have enough fuel for your primary destination and your alternate plus an additional 45min of normal cruise

134
Q

What kind of equipment do you need to operate in IFR conditions?

refresher give me the list for VFR day

A

“A TOMATO FLAMES” –

A - Altimeter

T - Tachometer for each engine.

O - Oil temperature indicator for each engine.

M - Manifold pressure gauge for each altitude engine.

A - Airspeed indicator.

T - Temperature gauge for each liquid-cooled engine.

O - Oil pressure gauge

F - Fuel quantity gauge for each tank.

L - Landing gear position lights (if retractable gear).

A - Anticollision lights (for aircraft certified after March

M - Magnetic direction indicator (magnetic compass).

E - ELT, if required by §91.207.

S - Safety belt / shoulder harness

135
Q

What kind of equipment do you need to operate in IFR conditions?

refresher give me the list for VFR night

A

F - Fuses/circuit braker(spare set).

L - Landing light (if for hire) .

A - Anticollision lights.

P - Position lights (navigation lights).

S - Source of electrical power (i.e., battery).

136
Q

What kind of equipment do you need to operate in IFR conditions?

A

All equipment for VFR day and night ATOMATOEFLAMES and FLAPS

plus

G - Generator / alternator.

R - Radios. Two-way radio communication & navigational equipment suitable for the route to be flown.

A - Altimeter (sensitive, adjustable for barometric pressure)

B - Ball (slip-skid indicator).

C - Clock. Shows hours, minutes, and seconds with a sweep-second pointer or digital representation. Installed as part of aircraft equipment.

A - Attitude indicator.

R - Rate-of-turn indicator.

D - Directional gyro (heading indicator).

(magnetic compass will not work as directional gyro)

137
Q

why does atomatoflames have an altimeter and grabcard also have an altimeter?

A

for IFR flight the airplane requires a sensitive altimeter adjustable for barometric pressure (kollsman window)

138
Q

Explain the compass errors

A

■ D- Deviation
■ M- Magnetic dip
■ N- North/south turn errors -
■ V- Variation
■ O- Oscillation
■ A- Acceleration errors -

Northern Hemisphere: UNOS Undershoot North/ Overshoot South

Northern Hemisphere: ANDS Accelerate North/ Decelerate South

Variation (isogonic lines)– Since the magnetic north pole and the geographic North Pole are not collocated, we need to consider this when planning flights. Easterly variation is subtracted from true heading while westerly variation is added to get our magnetic heading. Remember: East is least and West is best!

Deviation – Since a compass depends on aligning with the Earth’s magnetic fields to read
accurately, any kind of other local magnetic fields will cause an error known as deviation. This other magnetic fields are produced from electrical currents from the aircraft avionics and varies on different headings. The compass correction card located on the compass
tells the pilot which compass heading to steer to for a desired magnetic heading.

Dip Errors – While flying on a north or south heading, these turning errors are most pronounced. While flying a north heading and turning to the left, the compass will initially show a turn in the opposite direction and lag behind the turn. When on a south heading, the compass will lead the turn and show that the turn is being made a much faster rate than it actually is.

*Imagine that north is home to the compass. While at “home” the compass wants to stay there during a turn and will lag behind before it finally decides to catch up reluctantly. Conversely, while most far away from home on a south heading, when a turn is
commenced, the compass gets excited and races there (leading the turn)

Northerly Turning Error – CG displacement of the float assembly in the compass causes false turn indications. When turning to the north, the turn should be stopped prior to arrival at the desired heading. When turning south, turn pass the desired heading. The
rule is: UNOS Undershoot North Overshoot South

Acceleration Error – While on east or west headings, acceleration results in a slight turn to the north. Deceleration results in a slight turn to the south. The rule is: ANDS
Accelerate North Decelerate South

Oscillation Error – A combination of all of these errors and results in the compass swinging back and forth around the headings being flown

139
Q

What system operates your gyroscopic instruments?

A

In the G1000 AHRS operates the gyroscopic instruments

140
Q

If we lose our AHRS, what instruments are we going to lose?

A

Ball Indicator
Rate of Turn Indicator
Attitude Indicator
Heading Indicator

141
Q

How does the AHRS system work?

A

This unit has 3 gyroscopes, 3 accelerometers and 3 magnetometers oriented in the 3 axes(pitch , bank, yaw) which calculates the aircraft attitude and heading accurately

the information will then be sent to the electronic instruments and systems

142
Q

What is an HSI

143
Q

If we lose our AHRS what happens to your HSI?

A

Horizontal Situation Indicator

144
Q

Explain the magnetometer

145
Q

What are the appropriate procedures in the case of a communications failure under IFR? AVEF MEA (91.185)

A

Squawk 7600. If you are in VMC, stay in VMC and land as soon as practical

Choose your route in this order

  1. Assigned route CRAFT
  2. Vectors (if you are receiving vectors to a fix and you lose communication, fly directly to that fix) 10min vectors to traffic wait before changing

as filed when 10

  1. Expected
  2. Filed

Choose whichever altitude is the highest

  1. MEA
  2. Expected
  3. Assigned
146
Q

When can you descend below the MDA or DA in a approach using visual requirements?

A

91.175

Runway
Runway Markings
Approach Lights
Runway Lights

flight visibility cannot be less than specified on the approach chart

Descent to the runway must be made at a normal rate

147
Q

What is an approach with vertical guidance (APV)

A

RNAV LPV or LNAV/VNAV

Lateral Navigation
-GPS course

Vertical Navigation
-GPS glidepath
-Baro-aided VNAV

Missed approach Point
-reaching a defined DA on the glideslope (Decision Altitude)

148
Q

Name the approach sections when you are debriefing

A

Identifier

149
Q

What does the A or X, Y, and Z mean in an approach plate?

A

X, Y, and Z

150
Q

What endorsement must I have for the check ride?

A

received the practical test endorsement

and received 3hrs in the preceding 2 months prior to the practical

151
Q

how does a VOR work

A

master and a sweeping

152
Q

How off are you in a full-scale deflection?

A

10° - 12°

153
Q

What are the four components of an ILS?

A

Localizer

glide slope

Marker beacon

Approach lighting system

154
Q

What is unique about the glide slope and localizer frequencies on the ILS

A

coupled or paired frequencies

155
Q

The glide slope antenna is located

A

usually set off the runway usually by the papis

double check this…

156
Q

GPS question with sierra

A

30min on 301 Mendoza

157
Q

MON

VOR

158
Q

who logs pic

159
Q

CFIT

160
Q

loc backcourses

161
Q

blue aiport 1:19

162
Q

star

163
Q

star descent lost comms