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Ravn Alaska: Systems Training > Checkride Oral Questions > Flashcards

Checkride Oral Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Aircraft General

Where are the emergency exits?

A

Rows 1 and 10.

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2
Q

Aircraft General

Which exits open in, requiring a pressure relief disc? Which exits open out?

A

Row 10 opens in. Row 1 opens out.

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3
Q

Aircraft General

Is the service door an emergency exit?

A

No.

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3
Q

Aircraft General

Dimensions: height, length, wing span?

A

Height: 24’ 7”
Length: 84’ 3”
Wing Span: 90’

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4
Q

Aircraft General

What is the turn radius?

A

65’ 7” (74’ nominal width for 180 degree turn)

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5
Q

Caution and Warning Lights

What color are caution lights? What color are warning lights?

A

Caution Lights: Amber
Warning Lights: Red

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6
Q

Caution and Warning Lights

What does a flashing red master warning light mean?

A

A red warning light is on.

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7
Q

Caution and Warning Lights

Why should a master warning light be pressed to reset?

A

To reset the master warning system for a subsequent warning.

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8
Q

Minimum Equipment List

How do you defer one stick shaker?

A

There are operational and maintenance items; you must defer the stick pusher; your aft CG limit becomes 34% through supplement 11.

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9
Q

Minimum Equipment List

Can you defer VHF COM 1?

A

No.

Checkride notes from checkairmen say no, however I’ve definitely seen it done before. Perhaps depends on interpretation of “One comm may be deferred provided Sat Comm is function.” Is Sat Comm the sat phone?

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10
Q

Minimum Equipment List

Can you defer the MFD?

A

No. It is not listed in the MEL.

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11
Q

Minimum Equipment List

Can you defer a “RUD PRESS” caution light?

A

“Yes and no…depends on when you get the light.
Accelerating through 150 knots (140 knots in the 100) the
light comes on you can, decelerating through 150 knots
you can’t.”

That answer is from checkairmen sheet. My personal interpretation of MEL is you cannot. You can defer the Rudder Pressure Regulator System Reduced Pressure Function, but no specific item for RUD PRESS (as far as I can find with the search function).

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12
Q

Minimum Equipment List

Can you defer the medical O2 bottle?

A

No. It is listed in the Operational Procedure for the deferral of Passenger Portable Oxygen System. A note there says “This deferral does not apply to the passenger first aid bottle.”

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13
Q

Minimum Equipment List

You are in 893EA and the #1 FMS is deferred. Can you fly to Homer?

A

No. The maintenance procedures state that 886EA and 893EA requires a swap with the #2 FMS to maintain EGPWS.

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14
Q

Flight Planning

What is the approximate fuel burn rate at max cruise?

A

1200 pph; 20 ppm.

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15
Q

Flight Planning

What distance is used to plan takeoff alternates?

A

1 hour single engine in still air. For the Dash-8, 180 nm.

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16
Q

Performance

What is the correct method for setting max cruise power?

A

Set the charted torque and ensure no engine limits are exceeded.

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17
Q

Performance

Describe the three climb types.

A

Type I: High Speed (195 knots)
Type II: Intermediate Speed (165 knots)
Type III: Low Speed (135 knots)

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18
Q

Performance

What is the significance of 50 knots call on takeoff?

A

Normal takeoff power must be set by 50 knots to comply with Supplement 58 (rolling takeoff).

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19
Q

Electrical System

How does the inverter mod work?

A

When one switch is on the bus is tied. With more than one switch on the bus is open.

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20
Q

Fuel System

What is the alternate means for establishing fuel quantity if the fuel guage is deferred?

A

Magnasticks.

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21
Q

Fuel System

What is the fuel quantity of the main tanks?

A

5,678 lbs.

22
Q

Fuel System

What is the fuel quantity of the aux tanks?

A

4,566 lbs.

23
Q

Powerplant and Propeller

How does the autofeather system work on takeoff if you lose an engine?

A

Select autofeather on. It arms when torque on both engines is 38% and both power levers meet power lever angle and temperature condtions.
It triggers when one engine drops below 28% torque and the other is still above 38%.
A power uptrim signal boosts the operative engine another 10% torque. 3 seconds later the alternate feather pump runs.

24
Q

Powerplant and Propeller

What is the significance of the 50 knots call on landing?

A

The power levers need to be out of reverse before 50 knots.

25
Q

Air Conditioning

How many packs are installed?

A

Two.

26
Q

Pressurization

How many outflow valves are there?

A

Three. Two normal automatic outflow valves on the rear pressure dome and one manual forward outflow valve on the forward pressure bulkhead.

27
Q

Pressurization

What is the vacuum source for the forward outflow?

A

Angled tube attached to a suction line creates vacuum when the slipstream is greater than 15 knots.

28
Q

Pressurization

What are the two different auto modes for pressurization?

A

Cab set and auto/norm.

29
Q

Pressurization

What outflow valve is opened by going to dump?

A

The rear outflow valve.

30
Q

Hydraulics

What is on the number 1 hydraulic system?

A

Flaps, antiskid and braking, inboard roll spoilers, lower rudder actuator, PTU.

FAIR-P

31
Q

Hydraulics

What is on the number 2 hydraulic system?

A

Landing gear, outboard roll spoilers, nosewheel steering, ground spoilers (100 series only), emergency brake, upper rudder actuator.

LONGER.

32
Q

Hydraulics

What it the min dispatch quantity for the number 1 and 2 hydraulic systems?

A

1: 1.5 quarts.
2: 3.0 quarts.

33
Q

Flight Controls

What is rudder pressure when you take off if system is working normally?

A

1500 pounds.

34
Q

Flight Controls

At what speed does the rudder pressure change?

A

150 KIAS.

35
Q

Flight Controls

What is the new pressure on the rudder actuators after you go through 150 KIAS?

A

Above 150: 900 lbs.
Below 150: 1500 lbs.

36
Q

Flight Controls

What mechanism moves the elevator?

A

Cable pulleys.

37
Q

Flight Controls

What is the mechanism that lessens the control force for the elevator?

A

Spring tabs

38
Q

Flight Controls

How many total tabs are on the elevator?

A

Four.

39
Q

Flight Controls

Which tabs are the spring tabs?

A

The inner springs.

OTIS. Outer=trim; Inner=spring.

40
Q

Landing Gear and Brakes

What does the alternate release door do?

A

Opens a valve that releases pressure from gear extension system allowing for alternate extension.

41
Q

Landing Gear and Brakes

What does the landing gear inhibit switch do?

A

Disables the normal gear selector.

42
Q

Landing Gear and Brakes

Explain the accumulator/brake pressure guage under right wing root.

A

Gauge shows combination of accumulator pressure and brake hydraulic pressure (nitrogen precharge normal pressure 1000, gauge in cockpit shows only park brake pressure).

43
Q

Landing Gear and Brakes

What happens if you don’t press the foot pedals before releasing the parking brake?

A

You transfer fluid from the #1 to the #2 hydraulic system.

44
Q

Landing Gear and Brakes

How do you test the anti-skid?

A

Press the test switch up. The anti-skid caution lights come on and go out 6 seconds later (if on the ground, 3 seconds if in the air).

45
Q

Autopilot and Flight Director

How is the AP/FD set up for the Potter 1 departure on 7R?

A

G/A. ALT SEL, HDG modes. After departure push NAV.

46
Q

Communication and Navigation

What do we need to see on the FMS startup screen to accept it?

A

Position, WAAS, an expiration date later than the current date.

47
Q

Ice and Rain Protection

How many de-ice systems are installed and what are they?

A

Two. Boots ands prop heat.

48
Q

Ice and Rain Protection

What is normal de-ice boot operation pressure?

A

18 PSI.

49
Q

Ice and Rain Protection

How much pressure does it take for the boots to operate normally?

A

The green advisory lights come on if there is 15 +/- 0.5 PSI.

50
Q

Ice and Rain Protection

When do you get a caution light for deice pressure?

A

5.5 PSI.

51
Q

Ice and Rain Protection

How many anti-ice systems are there?

A
  1. Engine anti-ice, elevator horn heat, AOA heat, pitot heat, valve heat, windshield heat.
52
Q

Lighting

What bus powers the cockpit dome light?

A

Hot battery bus.

53
Q

Oxygen

What are the minimum dispatch numbers for the oxygen bottles on the plane?

A
  • Fixed Crew Oxygen: 2 crew 1300 psi, 3 crew 1800 psi.
  • Crew Portable Oxygen: 1750 psi
  • Passenger Portable Oxygen: 1100 psi
  • Portable First Aid Oxygen: 1100 psi
  • Dual Purpose Oxygen: 1900 psi

Ravn Alaska: Systems Training (6 decks)

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