Checkpoint 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Dominant cell type in a wound after 3 to 5 days

A

Macrophages

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2
Q

Deposition of granulation tissue is an event of which phase of the wound healing process

A

Proliferative (day 3 - weeks)

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3
Q

Days after a myocardial infarction (MI) when the tissue is more prone to spontaneous rupture of a wall or a papillary muscle rupture

A

3 to 5 days

*Tissue is most fragile due to predominancy of granulation tissue

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4
Q

Function of an Institutional (Ethics) Review Board

A

To approve, monitor, and review biomedical and behavioral research involving humans

(eg, institutional enrollment in a new medication study involving hepatitis C patients)

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5
Q

During which of the stages of the bacterial growth curve is spore production at its maximum

A

Stationary phase

*Growth ceases due to depletion of nutrients or accumulation of toxins

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6
Q

Branchial cysts are the result of incomplete obliteration of which embryonic structure(s)

A

2nd, 3rd, or 4th branchial clefts

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7
Q

Anatomic location of branchial cysts

A

Laterally placed, along the anterior border of the sternocleidomastoid muscle

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8
Q

Benign reaction to tumor invasion characterized by excessive fibrous formation that may confer the property of chemorresistance to a tumor

A

Desmoplasia

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9
Q

Cardiac defect present in 25% of patients with cri-du-chat syndrome

A

Ventricular septal defect

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10
Q

Characteristic age of onset of autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease

A

Childhood

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11
Q

Main macroscopic difference between autosomal recessive and dominant polycystic kidney diseases

A

In the recessive form, the kidney’s capsule is not distorted

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12
Q

Defective gene in autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease

A

PKHD1, that codes for fibrocystin

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13
Q

Organs involved in autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease

A

Kidney and liver

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14
Q

Associated mutation in Wilms tumor (also known as nephroblastoma)

A

WT1 gene mutation or deletion, located on the short arm of chromosome 11

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15
Q

Most common childhood tumor

A

Wilms tumor (nephroblastoma)

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16
Q

Components of the WAGR syndrome mutation (*NOT DELETION)

A
  • Wilms tumor
  • Aniridia
  • Genito-urinary malformations
  • Retardation (mental)
17
Q

Signs, symptoms, and characteristics of Sturge-Weber syndrome

A
  • Sporadic
  • Stain (port-wine) in CN V1 and 2 distribution
  • Tram-track calcifications
  • Unilateral
  • Retardation
  • Glaucoma
  • GNAQ gene
  • Epilepsy
18
Q

CNS malformations seen in Arnold-Chiari syndromes

A

Spinal cord malformations with downward displacement of the cerebelar tonsils and vermis into the foramen magnum

19
Q

Conditions associated to Arnold-Chiari syndromes

A
  • Hydrocephaly
  • Myelomeningocele
  • Syringomyelia
20
Q

Characteristic CNS malformation seen in Dandy-Walker syndrome

A

Large, distended fourth ventricle with a hypoplastic (or absent) cerebellum

21
Q

Organ targets of Diphtheria toxin

A
  • Heart
  • Nerves
  • Epithelium
22
Q

Areas of the body drained by the superficial inguinal lymph nodes

A
  • Anal canal (below pectinate line)
  • Skin below umbilicus (except popliteal area)
  • Scrotum and penis
  • Vulva
23
Q

Areas of the body drained by the para-aortic lymph nodes

A
  • Testes
  • Ovaries
  • Kidneys
  • Uterus
24
Q

Generation 1 antihistaminics

A
  • Diphenhydramine
  • Chlorpheniramine
  • Hydroxyzine
25
Q

Main side effects of generation 1 antihistaminics

A
  • Sedation (cross the blood-brain barrier)

* Anticholinergic properties

26
Q

Generation 2 antihistaminics

A
  • Cetirizine
  • Loratadine
  • Desloratadine
  • Fexofenadine
27
Q

After day 3 of starvation, energy is maintained by using what type of molecules

A

Ketone bodies (from adipose stores)

28
Q

Most important cytokine involved in type 4 hypersensitivity

A

Interferon gamma (produced by TH1 to actívate macrophages)

29
Q

A 5 mm tuberculin test is considered positive in which cases

A
  • Immunocompromised
  • Recent exposure
  • CXR with healed TB
30
Q

A 10 mm tuberculin test is considered positive in which cases

A

High-risk exposures:

  • Immigrants
  • Prisoners
  • Homeless shelter
  • Health-care workers

High-conditions:

  • Diabetes
  • Renal disease
  • Prolonged corticosteroid use
  • Low body weight
31
Q

A 15 mm tuberculin test is considered positive in which cases

A

Patients with no known risk factors

32
Q

Triad of Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome

A

“WATER”

  • Thrombocytopenic purpura
  • Eczema
  • Recurrent infections (encapsulated organisms)
33
Q

Most important serologic characteristic of Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome

A

Decreased serum IgM

34
Q

Affected protein in Wiskot-Aldrich syndrome

A

WAS protein, important in actin cytoskeleton rearrangement

35
Q

Type of cancer associated to Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome

A

Non-Hodgkin lymphoma