Checked Limits

Question 1

Operating Envelope:
- Max Operating Press Alt ____
- Max T/O & Ldg Press Alt ____
- TO/LDG Temp Limits ___ to ___

Answer 1

Max Operating: 41,000’
Max T/O & Ldg: 8,400’
Temps: -54C to +54C

Question 2

Flight Maneuvering (G) Loads
- Flaps Up:
- Flaps Down:

Answer 2

Flaps up: -1.0 to 2.5
Flaps down: 0 to 2.0

Question 3

Operating Speeds:
- Vmo / Mmo / Flap / Gear Speeds
- Mach Trim Inop Max Speed

Answer 3

Vmo / Mmo / Flap / Gear: do not deliberately exceed placard limits. Activation of overspeed warning (clacker) ink flight or exceeding gear or flap placard speeds = logbook entry

Mach Trim Inop = 280 KIAS / .82M

Question 4

Speed Limitations
- Turbulence At/Below 15,000’
- Turbulence > 15,000’
- Tire Speed
— 700
— 800 / MAX

Answer 4

Turb at/below 15k: 250
Turb > 15k: 280 / .76
Tires:
- 700: 195
- 800/MAX: 205

Question 5

Runway Slope Limit

Answer 5

Slope: +/- 2%

Question 6

Braking Action NIL:
- Runway
- Ramp

Answer 6

Runway: T/O and Ldg will NOT be attempted if any portion of the R/W is reported NIL

Ramp: Taxiing or towing will not be attempted on the portion of the taxiway or ramp that is reported NIL (or any combination including NIL)

Question 7

Dispatch to/from runway less than ____ wide is not allowed with rudder pedal NWS inop or one TR inop

Answer 7

Dispatch to/from runway less than 45m wide is not allowed with rudder pedal NWS inop or one TR inop

Question 8

Split Scimitar / Advanced Tech Winglet Aircraft:
- Bank angles > ___ will result in the lower ventral strake hitting the ground
- To ensure sufficient ground clearance, do not use sideslip (wing low) x-w landing technique alone when x-w exceeds ___ kts

Answer 8

Split Scimitar / Advanced Tech Winglet Aircraft:
- Bank angles > 8.8 degrees will result in the lower ventral strake hitting the ground
- To ensure sufficient ground clearance, do not use sideslip (wing low) x-w landing technique alone when x-w exceeds 15 kts

Question 9

Ground Wind Operating Envelope:
- (MAX) For x-w > ___ kts, limit thrust to a setting normally used for taxi
- (MAX) Except when setting thrust for T/O on the R/W, limit thrust to idle for winds > ___ kts

Answer 9

Ground Wind Operating Envelope:
- (MAX) For x-w > 43 kts, limit thrust to a setting normally used for taxi
- (MAX) Except when setting thrust for T/O on the R/W, limit thrust to idle for winds > 58 kts

Question 10

Maximum headwind component for HGS AIII mode is ____

Answer 10

Maximum headwind component for HGS AIII mode is 25 kts

Question 11

Other Limitations
- Min flight deck crew ___, 1 designated as __ and 1 designated as __ __.
- Verification of overwing exit handle cover required prior to departure with ____

Answer 11

Other Limitations
- Min flight deck crew 2 , 1 designated as Captain and 1 designated as First Officer.
- Verification of overwing exit handle cover required prior to departure with passengers

Question 12

Escape Slide Arming:
- On flights with pax, all escape slide retention (girt) bars must be installed during ____
- On flights without pax or FAs, a minimum of __ __ door escape girt bar(s) must be installed during ____

Answer 12

Escape Slide Arming:
- On flights with pax, all escape slide retention (girt) bars must be installed during taxi, t/o and landing.
- On flights without pax or FAs, a minimum of 1 forward door escape girt bar(s) must be installed during taxi, t/o and landing.

Question 13

Photoluminescent floor emergency lighting must be ____

Answer 13

…charged in IAW approved procedures.

Question 14

Miscellaneous
Use of WiFi on the flight deck is limited to ___ ___ and _____ via the 2Wire.

Answer 14

EFB devices and applications

Question 15

Miscellaneous
Except in an emergency, ____ escape slide bars prior to ___

Answer 15

Except in an emergency, disarm escape slide bars prior to opening any door.

Question 16

Miscellaneous
PWB intersection T/O data is valid only ___ ___ ____ and must not be used at any other intersection or for a __ __ __.

Answer 16

PWB intersection T/O data is valid only for that intersection and must not be used at any other intersection or for a full length takeoff.

Question 17

Miscellaneous
(-700) ADL Drag Reduction Kit. Minimum flight weight _____lb

Answer 17

93,000

Question 18

Pressurization:
- System safety relief differential pressure: ____
- Max cabin differential for T/O & Ldg: ____
- Max external air pressure: ___ psi

Answer 18

• System safety relief differential pressure: 9.1
• Max cabin differential for T/O & Ldg: .125
• Max external air pressure: 60 psi

Question 19

Air systems
With engine bleed air switches ON, do not operate air conditioning packs in ___ for ___, ___, or ___.

Answer 19

With engine bleed air switches ON, do not operate air conditioning packs in HIGH for takeoff, approach, or landing. (QRH can over-ride this limit)

Question 20

Engines:
Prior to applying T/O thrust, operate engines at or near idle, > rollback, for a min of:
- NG:
- MAX
Prior to shutdown, operate engines at or near idle for a min of:
- NG:
- MAX:
Recommended: operate for min of __ min > rollback on 1st flight of day

Answer 20

Engines:
Prior to applying T/O thrust, operate engines at or near idle, > rollback, for a min of:
- NG: 2 min
- MAX: 3 min
Prior to shutdown, operate engines at or near idle for a min of:
- NG: 1 min
- MAX: 3 min
Recommended: operate for min of 5 min > rollback on 1st flight of day

Question 21

Air Systems
(MAX) When may 2 packs may be powered by 1 engine bleed source?

Use of a pack is __ __ when a preconditioned air source is being used to heat or cool the aircraft

Answer 21

(MAX) 2 packs may be powered by 1 engine bleed source in flight only.

Use of a pack is not authorized when a preconditioned air source is being used to heat or cool the aircraft

Question 22

Ice Protection
Engine Ignition must be on for __, __, __ in __ __ and __ __ operation.
Engine Anti Ice must be on
- During all __ and __ ops when icing conditions exist or are anticipated, except during __ and __ below __ C SAT
- Prior to and during __ in all icing conditions, including temps < __C SAT

Answer 22

Engine Ignition must be on for takeoff, landing, and operations in heavy rain and anti-ice operation.

Engine Anti Ice must be on
- During all ground and flight ops when icing conditions exist or are anticipated, except during climb and cruise < -40 C SAT
- Prior to and during descent in all icing conditions, including temps < 40C SAT

Question 23

Ice Protection
Holding in __ conditions with __ __ is prohibited.
Do not operate __ __ __ on the ground when the OAT is above ___C
Do not use __ __ __ as a substitute for ground deicing / anti-icing and inspection procedures which are necessary to comply with operating rules

Answer 23

Holding in icing conditions with flaps extended is prohibited.
Do not operate wing anti-ice on the ground when the OAT is above 10C
Do not use wing anti-ice as a substitute for ground deicing / anti-icing and inspection procedures which are necessary to comply with operating rules

Question 24

Ice Protection
Window heat inop max speed is ___ kt below ____ ft
__ __ must be on for all phases of flight.
Do not operate the weather radar during __, __ __ __, or __ __.

Answer 24

Window heat inop max speed is 250 kt below 10,000 ft
Probe heat must be on for all phases of flight.
Do not operate the weather radar during refueling, near fuel spills, or near people.

Question 25

Ice Protection
(MAX) Do not operate __ __ __ in-flight when not in actual or anticipated icing conditions.

Answer 25

Ice Protection
(MAX) Do not operate engine anti-ice in-flight when not in actual or anticipated icing conditions.

Question 26

Autopilot
Use of A/P is not authorized for __ or __.
Use of aileron trim with the autopilot engaged is __.
Minimum A/P engagement alt after T/O is __’ AGL.
Minimum A/P disengagement for landing is __ below __/___ but no less than __’ AGL.

Answer 26

Autopilot
Use of A/P is not authorized for takeoff or landing.
Use of aileron trim with the autopilot engaged is prohibited.
Minimum A/P engagement alt after T/O is 400’ AGL.
Minimum A/P disengagement for landing is 50’ below DA/DDA but no less than 50’ AGL.

Question 27

Autothrottles:
- ___ the autothrottles in __ turbulence.
- Min alt for A/T disengagement during approach is __’ below __/__ but no less than __’ AGL.
During cruise, descent, or approach, A/T use is allowed only when the A/P is engaged in the __ mode. Momentary use of ___ __ is allowed with the A/T engaged.

Answer 27

Autothrottles:
- Disengage the autothrottles in severe turbulence.
- Min alt for A/T disengagement during approach is 50’ below DA/DDA but no less than 50’ AGL.
During cruise, descent, or approach, A/T use is allowed only when the A/P is engaged in the CMD mode. Momentary use of CWS pitch is allowed with the A/T engaged.

Question 28

Electrical:
- (NG) On the ground, limit 1 IDG to a max of __ amps
- (MAX) On the ground or in the air, limit one IDG to a max of __ amps
- (MAX) Airborne, if the __ is not avail when operating with 1 IDG, the ___ and ___ switches will need to be set in the off position to limit the total load to <__ amps.

Answer 28

Electrical:
- (NG) On the ground, limit 1 IDG to a max of 215 amps
- (MAX) On the ground or in the air, limit one IDG to a max of 215 amps
- (MAX) Airborne, if the APU is not avail when operating with 1 IDG, the CAB/UTIL and IFE/PASS SEAT switches will need to be set in the off position to limit the total load to <215 amps.

Question 29

Electrical:
- Do not remove __ power from the aircraft for at least __” after IRS shutdown.
- In-flight reset of a tripped CB should only be accomplished when directed by the __. Allow approximately __ min for cooling before resetting.

Answer 29

Electrical:
- Do not remove AC power from the aircraft for at least 30” after IRS shutdown.
- In-flight reset of a tripped CB should only be accomplished when directed by the QRH. Allow approximately 2 min for cooling before resetting.

Question 30

Electrical
Resetting a tripped CB other than when directed by the QRH must be done as follows.
- Tripped CB may only be reset __
- Allow approx __ min cooling before resetting.
- Only accomplished if, in the judgment of the CA, regaining use of that system is critical to the __ __ of the flight.

Answer 30

Electrical
Resetting a tripped CB other than when directed by the QRH must be done as follows.
- Tripped CB may only be reset once
- Allow approx 2 min cooling before resetting.
- Only accomplished if, in the judgment of the CA, regaining use of that system is critical to the safe conduct of the flight.

Question 31

Electrical
The flight crew should not reset a tripped CB on the ground until __ has determined it is __ to reset. A tripped CB may only be reset __. Allow approximately __ min cooling before resetting.

Answer 31

Electrical
The flight crew should not reset a tripped CB on the ground until MX has determined it is safe to reset. A tripped CB may only be reset once. Allow approximately 2 min cooling before resetting.

Question 32

Electrical
In flight, crew should not cycle (pull & reset) a CB in flight unless the cycle meets 1 or more:
- Directed by __
- Directed by procedure listed in the __, __, or __ __.

On the ground, do not cycle unless it is coordinated and approved by __ __.

Answer 32

Electrical
In flight, crew should not cycle (pull & reset) a CB in flight unless the cycle meets 1 or more:
- Directed by QRH
- Directed by procedure listed in the AOM, FOM, or Operations Binder.

On the ground, do not cycle unless it is coordinated and approved by Mx Control.

Question 33

Engines and APU
CAUTION: Do not exceed ___ or __ __ limitations.
CAUTION: Be aware of __ __ in the specific engine instrument display, indicating an __ / __ condition.

Answer 33

Engines and APU
CAUTION: Do not exceed redline or red arc limitations.
CAUTION: Be aware of red illumination in the specific engine instrument display, indicating an overspeed / over-temperature condition.

Question 34

General Engine Limits
- Max RPM (N1 & N2):
- Max EGT TO/GA:
- Max Ground Start EGT:
- Oil Temps: Max / time limited / Max Continuous
- Min Oil Pressure

Answer 34

Engine Limits
- Max RPM (N1 & N2): Redline
- Max EGT TO/GA: Redline
- Max Ground Start EGT: 725C (NG) // [Redline in MAX (753C is a non-memory item)]
- Oil Temps: Max = Redline / Amber Band = 45 min (NG) or 15 min (MAX) / Max Continuous = Amber Line
- Min Oil Pressure: Redline

Question 35

Engines
(Max) After start, oil temp rise to at least __ C must be indicated < setting __ __.

Answer 35

Engines
(Max) After start, oil temp rise to at least 31 C must be indicated < setting takeoff thrust.

Question 36

Engines
For takeoffs with the EECs in ALT mode:
- ____ thrust is not allowed
- __ __ must be selected to __.

___ must be on for takeoff and landing.

Answer 36

Engines
For takeoffs with the EECs in ALT mode:
- Reduced thrust is not allowed
- Both EECs must be selected to alternate.

Ignition must be on for takeoff and landing.

Question 37

Engines starter duty cycle:
NG: __ min on, __” off between attempts
MAX: __ min on, __” off between start attempts

Motoring (fuel off)
NG: __ min
Max: __ min. A min of __ min is needed between the first 2 extended engine motoring.

Answer 37

Engines starter duty cycle:
NG: 2 min on, 10” off between attempts
MAX: 3 min on, 10” off between start attempts

Motoring (fuel off)
NG: 15 min
Max: 5 min. A min of 5 min is needed between the first 2 extended engine motoring.

Question 38

Engine Oil Quantities:
- Depart from a non-Mx base/station: NG __% / MAX __%
- Depart from a Mx base/station: NG __% / MAX __%
- CA must arrange for oil servicing when terminating at a non-mx base/ station when < __% (NG) / < __% (MAX)
Note: low oil quantity alerts may be experienced during initial TO/Climb with < __% (NG) // __% (Max)

Answer 38

Engine Oil Quantities:
- Depart from a non-Mx base/station: NG 60% / MAX 66%
- Depart from a Mx base/station: NG 70% / MAX 70%
- CA must arrange for oil servicing when terminating at a non-mx base/ station when < 65% (NG) / < 70% (MAX).
Note: low oil quantity alerts may be experienced during initial TO/Climb with < 65% (NG) // 70% (Max)

Question 39

Engines:
- Intentional selection of thrust revers __ __ is prohibited.
- __ the aircraft with thrust revers is prohibited.
- Do not attempt __ __ after thrust reverser deployment on landing
- Use of revers thrust during __ to reduce speed is not authorized.

Answer 39

Engines:
- Intentional selection of thrust reverse in flight is prohibited.
- Backing the aircraft with thrust revers is prohibited.
- Do not attempt go around after thrust reverser deployment on landing
- Use of revers thrust during taxi to reduce speed is not authorized.

Question 40

Engines:
- T/O and LDG are not authorized if either thrust reverser is inoperative and the runway is contaminated with __ or the braking action is < ____.
- Dispatch from/to R/Ws less than __ wide is not allowed with rudder pedal NWS or 1 TR inop.

Answer 40

Engines:
- T/O and LDG are not authorized if either thrust reverser is inoperative and the runway is contaminated with clutter or the braking action is < 5 GOOD.
- Dispatch from/to R/Ws less than 45m wide is not allowed with rudder pedal NWS or 1 TR inop.

Question 41

APU:
- Max Alt for Ops:
- Max Alt Elect Only:
- Max Alt Bleed Air Only:
- Max Alt Bleed Air & Elect:

Answer 41

APU:
- Max Alt for Ops: 41,000’
- Max Alt Elect Only: 41,000’
- Max Alt Bleed Air Only: 17,000’
- Max Alt Bleed Air & Elect: 10,000’

Question 42

APU bleed valve must be closed when:
- __ __ is connected and isolation valve is __.
- Engine Bleed Valve #__ is open.
- __ Valve and Engine Bleed Valve #__ are open.

APU Bleed valve may be __ during engine start provided engine power is not above __.

Answer 42

APU bleed valve must be closed when:
- Ground Air is connected and isolation valve is open.
- Engine Bleed Valve #1 is open.
- Isolation Valve and Engine Bleed Valve #2 are open.

APU Bleed valve may be open during engine start provided engine power is not above idle.

Note: thrust must be limited to idle with the DUAL BLEED light illuminated.

Question 43

APU:
- Wait __” between APU start attempts
- If the APU fails to start after the __ attempt, call dispatch and Mx. Do not attempt a __ start.
- After the APU GEN OFF BUS light extinguishes, and < battery switch off, wait approximately:
- NG: __ min
- MAX: __ min

Answer 43

APU:
- Wait 90” between APU start attempts
- If the APU fails to start after the 3rd attempt, call dispatch and Mx. Do not attempt a 4th start.
- After the APU GEN OFF BUS light extinguishes, and < battery switch off, wait:
- NG: 2 min
- MAX: 5 min

Question 44

Flaps:
Alternate duty cycle in flight is __ complete cycle(s), then __ min off. A complete cycle is from __ to __ and back to __. The ALTERNATE FLAPS position switch must be in the __ position for __” before reversing the direction of flap movement.

Takeoff flaps from 1-25 are authorized except for Flaps __

Answer 44

Flaps:
Alternate duty cycle in flight is ONE complete cycle(s), then 5 min off. A complete cycle is from 0 to 15 and back to 0. The ALTERNATE FLAPS position switch must be in the OFF position for 15” before reversing the direction of flap movement.

Takeoff flaps from 1-25 are authorized except for Flaps 2

Question 45

Speed Brakes
- Do not use SBs in flight below __ ‘ AGL
- In flight, do not use SBs with greater than flaps __
- (700) Do not operate aircraft at speeds in excess of __ kts at weights over __# if SB wing load alleviation system is inoperative

Answer 45

Speed Brakes
- Do not use SBs in flight below 1,000‘ AGL
- In flight, do not use SBs with greater than flaps 10
- (700) Do not operate aircraft at speeds in excess of 320 kts at weights over 143,000# if SB wing load alleviation system is inoperative

Question 46

Flight Instruments/Displays
- Max allowable in-flight diff btwn CA Dan FA altimeters for RVSM ops is __’
- Max allowable on-ground altimeters diff for RVSM:
CA & FO CA or FO and Field Elevation
SL to 5,000’
5,001-10,000’

Answer 46

Flight Instruments/Displays
- Max allowable in-flight diff btwn CA Dan FA altimeters for RVSM ops is 200’
- Max allowable on-ground altimeters diff for RVSM:
CA & FO CA or FO and Field Elevation
SL to 5,000’ 50’ 75’
5,001-10,000’ 60’ 75’

Question 47

Flight Controls:
Do not extend flaps above __’ pressure altitudes
Do not extend the speed brake lever beyond the __ __

Answer 47

Do not extend flaps above 20,000’ pressure altitudes

Do not extend the speed brake lever beyond the flight detent

Question 48

Fuel System:
Max fuel tank temp:
Min fuel tank temp:

Note: Jet 1 freeze point is __C and other listed fuels freeze at lower temperature.

Answer 48

Max fuel tank temp: +49C
Min fuel tank temp: -37C

Note: Jet 1 freeze point is -40C and other listed fuels freeze at lower temperature.

Question 49

Fuel System:
Main tanks must be __ if center fuel quantity is > __#
- __# may be retained in the center tank provided the __ __ __ have been considered.
- Center tank pumps must be __ for all operations with more than __# of fuel in Ctr tank
- Some __ items can override this limitation

Answer 49

Main tanks must be full if center fuel quantity is > 1,000#
- __# may be retained in the center tank provided the effects of balance have been considered.
- Center tank pumps must be on for all operations with more than 1,000# of fuel in Ctr tank
- Some MEL items can override this limitation

Question 50

Fuel System:
For ground operation, center tank fuel pump switches must not be positioned to __ unless the center tank fuel quantity exceeds __#

Fuel may be transferred from tank-tank or acft may be defueled with __ on board, provided the fuel qty in the tank from which fuel is being taken is maintained at not less than __#. Deplane all pax and non-essential crew when defueling a tank or transferring fuel from a tank that has a qty < __ # until the process has been completed and the respective fuel boos pumps are __ __.

Answer 50

For ground operation, center tank fuel pump switches must not be positioned to ON unless the center tank fuel quantity exceeds 1,000#

Fuel may be transferred from tank-tank or acft may be defueled with pax on board, provided the fuel qty in the tank from which fuel is being taken is maintained at not less than 2,000#. Deplane all pax and non-essential crew when defueling a tank or transferring fuel from a tank that has a qty < 2,000# until the process has been completed and the respective fuel boos pumps are turned off.

Question 51

Fuel System:
Corresponding Ctr tank fuel pump switch must be positioned to __ when a center tank __ __ light illuminates.

When on the ground, if the __ __ fuel pump low pressure light illuminates with useable fuel > __# in the Ctr tank, refer to Ctr Tnk Fuel Pump __ __ Light illuminated on ground.

Answer 51

Corresponding Ctr tank fuel pump switch must be positioned to OFF when a center tank LOW PRESSURE light illuminates.

When on the ground, if the center tank fuel pump low pressure light illuminates with useable fuel > 1,000# in the Ctr tank, refer to Ctr Tnk Fuel Pump Low Pressure Light illuminated on ground.

Question 52

Fuel System
When established in level flight, both __ __ pump switches should be positioned to __ again if the __ __ contains usable fuel.

If __ __ is empty, both __ __ fuel pump switches must be positioned __ when the first __ __ fuel pump __ __ light illuminates.

Answer 52

When established in level flight, both center tank pump switches should be positioned to ON again if the center tank contains usable fuel.

If center tank is empty, both center tank fuel pump switches must be positioned off when the first center tank fuel pump low pressure light illuminates.

Question 53

Fuel System:
- Center tank fuel pumps must not be __ unless personnel are available on the flight deck to monitor the __ __ lights.
- Flight deck crews must not reset tripped __ __ indicator, __ __, or __ __ control circuit breakers.
- (MAX) Intentional dry running of a center tank fuel pump (LOW PRESS light illuminated) is __.

Answer 53

• Center tank fuel pumps must not be ON unless personnel are available on the flight deck to monitor the LOW PRESSURE lights.
• Flight deck crews must not reset tripped fuel quantity indicator, fuel pump, or fuel pump control circuit breakers.
• (MAX) Intentional dry running of a center tank fuel pump (LOW PRESS light illuminated) is prohibited.

Question 54

Cargo Bay Fire Suppression
Aircraft must land within __ min (non-ETOPS) and __ min (ETOPS) of initial discharge of the fire suppression system.

Answer 54

Aircraft must land within 60 min (non-ETOPS) and 180 min (ETOPS) of initial discharge of the fire suppression system.

Question 55

TCAS:
Pilots are authorized to deviate from an ATC clearance to the extent necessary to comply with a TCAS II __ __.

Flight crews must __ __ to TCAS info (both TA and RA) by using TCAS guidelines located in __ ch 5.18 Non-Normal Maneuvers.

Answer 55

Pilots are authorized to deviate from an ATC clearance to the extent necessary to comply with a TCAS II Resolution Advisories (RAs)

Flight crews must IMMEDIATELY RESPOND to TCAS info (both TA and RA) by using TCAS guidelines located in AOM ch 5.18 Non-Normal Maneuvers.

Question 56

Flaps:
Avoid __ and __ alternating control inputs, especially in combination with large changes in __, __, or __ (e.g. large slip angles) as they may result in __ __ at any speed, including below Va.

Answer 56

Avoid rapid and large alternating control inputs, especially in combination with large changes in pitch, roll, or ya (e.g. large slip angles) as they may result in structural failure at any speed, including below Va.

Question 57

When 5G procedures apply, use __ __ to calculate landing performant and use the Approach and Go-Around procedures in AOM __ Operational Procedures.

(MAX) When 5G procedures apply
- Multiple MELs are __
- Dispatch or release to, or T/O or LDG on, runways with a runway condition code of __ or __ is prohibited.

Answer 57

When 5G procedures apply, use normal procedures to calculate landing performant and use the Approach and Go-Around procedures in AOM 5G Operational Procedures.

(MAX) When 5G procedures apply
- Multiple MELs are prohibited
- Dispatch or release to, or T/O or LDG on, runways with a runway condition code of 1 or 0 is prohibited.

Question 58

LNAV:
- Do not use LNAV if the message __ __ __ __ __ is active.
- FD or A/P is required for RNAV operations with an RNP of __ NM or less.
- Use of A/P is required for RNAV approaches with RNP < __ NM.

Answer 58

• Do not use LNAV if the message “UNABLE REQD NAV PERF-RNP” is active.
• FD or A/P is required for RNAV operations with an RNP of 1.0 NM or less.
• Use of A/P is required for RNAV approaches with RNP < 0.3 NM.

Question 59

Hydraulics
- Before pushback, they hydraulic system __ must be __ (both pumps OFF and LOW PRESS lights illuminated).
- The aircraft must not be towed forward unless both engines are __ __ and hydraulic system __ is __.

Answer 59

• Before pushback, they hydraulic system A must be depressurized (both pumps OFF and LOW PRESS lights illuminated).
• The aircraft must not be towed forward unless both engines are shut down and hydraulic system A is depressurized.

Question 60

Brakes:
- Do not apply brakes until __ __.
- T/O with anti-skid inoperative is only allowed on __ __.
- (700) Max brake temp for ground turnaround is __F; must be measured between 10 - 15 min > arrival parking.
- (MAX) Carbon brakes are limited to a fixed time of __ min for ground turnaround if the max quick turnaround weight is exceeded. No option to reduce based on temp measurement. Only applies to __ and NOT to __ __.

Answer 60

• Do not apply brakes until after touchdown.
• T/O with anti-skid inoperative is only allowed on dry runways.
• (700) Max brake temp for ground turnaround is 435F; must be measured between 10 - 15 min > arrival parking.
• (MAX) Carbon brakes are limited to a fixed time of 48 min for ground turnaround if the max quick turnaround weight is exceeded. No option to reduce based on temp measurement. Only applies to landing and NOT to rejected takeoffs.

Question 61

Landing Gear & Brakes
- Aircraft will not be dispatched on revenue flights if the landing gear __ __ __.
- Autobrakes are not allowed with __ __ inoperative.

Answer 61

• Aircraft will not be dispatched on revenue flights if the landing gear must remain down.
• Autobrakes are not allowed with anti skid inoperative.

Question 62

EGPWS
- Do not use the __ display for navigation.
- The use of look-ahead terrain alerting and display functions is prohibited within __ NM of T/O, approach, or landing at an airport or R/W not contained in the GPWS __ __. Must be inhibited by selecting TERR INHIB switch to INHIBIT. (All hard-surfaced R/Ws > 3,500’ are in the database.

Answer 62

• Do not use the terrain display for navigation.
• The use of look-ahead terrain alerting and display functions is prohibited within 15 NM of T/O, approach, or landing at an airport or R/W not contained in the GPWS terrain database. Must be inhibited by selecting TERR INHIB switch to INHIBIT. (All hard-surfaced R/Ws > 3,500’ are in the database.

Question 63

Miscellaneous:
- Verify an operational check of the __ __ __ access system has been accomplished IAW approved procedures __ each day (done whenever __ checklist is required or on the __ __ of the day)

Answer 63

• Verify an operational check of the flight deck door access system has been accomplished IAW approved procedures once each day (done whenever security checklist is required or on the first flight of the day)

Question 64

Aircraft cabin ozone concentration during flight must not exceed FAA regulations. SWA aircraft are not equipped with ozone converters and must limit __ __ in order to maintain acceptable limits. Limits are found in the AOM and, if applicable, are indicated in the remarks section of the __ __ / __.

Answer 64

Aircraft cabin ozone concentration during flight must not exceed FAA regulations. SWA aircraft are not equipped with ozone converters and must limit flight altitude in order to maintain acceptable limits. Limits are found in the AOM and, if applicable, are indicated in the remarks section of the dispatch release / OFP.