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Grob - 120TP > Check Ride Study Guide > Flashcards

Check Ride Study Guide Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following is NOT a form of parasite drag?

A. Form drag
B. Skin friction
C. Induced drag
D. Interference drag

A

Induced Drag

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2
Q

Why is the top of an airplane’s wing curved?

A. To create an a rea of low pressure below the wing.
B. To create an a rea of high pressure above the wing.
C . To create equal pressure above and below the wing.
D. To create an area of low pressure above the wing.

A

D. To create an area of low pressure above the wing.

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3
Q 
The_ _ _ _is a theoretical point where all the aircraft's weight is considered to be concentrated.
A. reference datum line
B. total aircraft weight
C. center of gravity
D. aircraft station
A

C. center of gravity

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4
Q

An aircraft with its center of gravity at the aft limit will exhibit all of these performance characteristics
except _ __

A. be less stable; tendency to nose up
B. highest cruise speed
C. highest stall speed
D. be less controllable

A

C. highest stall speed

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5
Q

What is the purpose of the dihedral of a wing?

A. Increase coefficient of lift
B. Create a stabilizing moment
C. Maintain lateral center of gravity
D. Maximize aerodynamic efficiency

A

B. Create a stabilizing moment

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6
Q

The initial tendency of the aircraft to return to the original state of equilibrium after being disturbed is
called - - - -

A. neutral static stability
B. negative static stability
C. positive static stability
D. positive dynamic stability

A

C. positive static stability

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7
Q

Which is NOT a purpose of a high lift device?

A. Important for high-speed characteristics of aircraft
B. Obtain required lift force at lower velocities
C. Increases payload capacity
D. Lowers stall speed

A

A. Important for high-speed characteristics of aircraft

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8
Q

Which method is most often used to increase the coefficient of lift?

A. Add ballast
B. Increase camber of airfoil
C. Adjust aircraft gross weight
D. Delay boundary layer separation

A

B. Increase camber of airfoil

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9
Q

The only condition that can cause a stall is an excessive_ _ __

A. angle of attack
B. coefficient of lift
C. aerodynamic twist
D. aft center of gravity

A

A. angle of attack

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10
Q

A method of stall progression from the root section to the wingtip where the wing consists of both a
cambered and symmetrical airfoil is called_ _ __

A. boundary layer control
B. aerodynamic twist
C. geometric twist
D. stall strips

A

B. aerodynamic twist

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11
Q

The_ _ _ _ s hould be used during takeoff when obstacle clearance is a primary concern. The most
altitude is gained for the horizontal distance covered.

A. zoom climb
B. steady-state climb
C. Vv (best rate of climb speed)
D. Vx (best angle of climb speed)

A

D. Vx (best angle of climb speed)

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12
Q

When airspeed is held constant, a larger _ _ _wi ll result in a smaller turn radius and greater turn
rate.

A. angle of attack
B. angle of bank
C. glide ratio
D. sides lip

A

B. angle of bank

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13
Q

Ground effect reduces or cancels out the downwash and_ _ _ _be hind the wing during takeoff and
landing near the runway surface. This causes lifting surfaces to become more effective.

A. turbulence
B. parasite drag
C. wingtip vortexes
D. velocity differential

A

C. wingtip vortexes

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14
Q

Takeoff distance is directly_ _ _ _to takeoff velocity squared.

A. disproportionate
B. proportional
C. unequal
D. opposite

A

B. proportional

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15
Q

A_ _ _ p ropeller setting obtains maximum power for takeoff.

A. low pitch, low RPM
B. high pitch, low RPM
C. high pitch, high RPM
D. low pitch, high RPM

A

D. low pitch, high RPM

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16
Q

The function of the propeller governor is to:

A. adjust engine RPM to match propeller RPM.
B. maintain a high angle of attack in relation to relative wind.
C. keep the aircraft airspeed the same during climbs and dives.
D. control the blade angle to maintain a constant propeller RPM.

A

D. control the blade angle to maintain a constant propeller RPM.

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17
Q

Define critical engine.

A. Engine whose loss presents the greatest controllability problem
B. Engine required to power essential electrical systems in flight
C. Engine which provides the best aircraft performance at cruise
D. Engine with the highest efficiency during climb out

A

A. Engine whose loss presents the greatest controllability problem

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18
Q

Vmc is highly sensitive to which condition?

A. Density altitude
B. Angle of attack
C. Parasite drag
D. Bank angle

A

D. Bank angle

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19
Q

What is the primary instrument when conducting an instrument scan?

A. Airspeed Indicator
B. RMI
C. ADI
D. VSI

A

C. ADI

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20
Q

A common error when trimming the aircraft is what?

A. Failure to understand the cause of trim changes
B. Improper adjustment of seat and rudder pedals
C. Confusion as to the operation of trim devices
D. All the above

A

D. All the above

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21
Q

The primary objective when recovering from an unusual attitude is to what?

A. Safely recover the aircraft to straight and level flight
B. Return to your assigned altitude
C. Return to your prescribed route
D. Make the pilots sick

A

A. Safely recover the aircraft to straight and level flight

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22
Q

True or False: Homing to a station does not incorporate wind drift correction.

A. False
B. True

A

B. True

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23
Q

A standard holding pattern consists of:

A. Left turns
B. Right turns
C. B and D are correct
D. 1 minute inbound legs at or below 14,000 f t

A

C. B and D are correct

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24
Q

Which of the following is NOT part of the visual inspection for the walk around?

A. Parking brake and checklist
B. Fuselage and empennage
C. Left and right wing
D. Nose section

A

A. Parking brake and checklist

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25
Q

Which of the following is NOT part of the cockpit preflight inspection?

A. Condition lever
B. Nose section
C. Power lever
D. ELT

A

B. Nose section

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26
Q

For takeoff you should observe TORQUE + TOT limitation (111%+810° C). 115% TRQ is limited to
seconds. Check N2 RPM between - - - - - - - -

A. 15; 2000-2150
B. 10; 1900 - 2050
C. 5; 1800 -2000
D. 5; 1 900 -21 00

A

B. 10; 1900 - 2050

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27
Q

With BLEED knob pulled or COMP INTAKE BOTH subtract _ _ _fro m the climb gradient retrieved
from Figure 5.13 Takeoff Climb Gradient.

A. 1%
B. 2%
C. 3%
D. 4%

A

B. 2%

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28
Q

The minimum controllable approach speed with flaps LAND or FULL at maximum permissible landing
weight is_ _ __

A. 76 KIAS
B. 80 KIAS
C. 85 KIAS
D. 90 KIAS

A

A. 76 KIAS

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29
Q

Maximum crosswind at takeoff and landing is_ _ __

A. 10 knots
B. 15 knots
C. 20 knots
D. 25 knots

A

C. 20 knots

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30
Q

Symptoms during approach to a 1 g stall are summarized as follows:
• Below_ _ _ KI AS the aircraft becomes less responsive to control inputs.
• Audio stall warning a _ _ KI AS above stalling speed.
• Airframe and elevator buffeting starts _ _ _KI AS above stalling speed and intensifies as
the stall develops.

A. 75; 5 to 1 O; 5 to 10
B. 70; 5 to 1 O; 5 to 10
C. 65; 5 to 1 O; 5 to 10
D. 60;5to10;5to10

A

D. 60;5to10;5to10

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31
Q

Loss of altitude during 1g stall recovery may reach up to normally_ _ __

A. 2000
B. 1500
C. 1000
D. 500

A

D. 500

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32
Q

Apply minimum 80% N1 when operating COMP INTAKE above_ _ __

A. 15000
B. 14000
C. 12000
D. 10000

A

A. 15000

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33
Q

The power lever must not be retarded below flight idle speeds greater than_ _ _ _KI AS during
landing roll.

A. 70
B. 75
C. 80
D. 85

A

C. 80

34
Q

The aircraft hydraulic system operates which of the following systems?

A. Flight Controls
B. Landing gear
C. Trim Tabs
D. Brakes

A

B. Landing gear

35
Q

Question 11
The two hydraulic emergency accumulators provide emergency_ _ __

A. landing gear extension
B. landing gear retraction
C. nose wheel steering
D. brakes

A

A. landing gear extension

36
Q

Landing gear speed limits must be observed during all phases of flight. Maximum landing gear operation
while in flight is _ _ _KI AS.

A. 165
B. 172
C. 175
D. 182

A

D. 182

37
Q

What is the power source for the wing flaps?

A. Main Bus
B. Battery Bus
C. Avionics Bus 1
D. Avionics Bus 2

A

B. Battery Bus

38
Q

The elevator and aileron control surfaces are mechanically actuated via push-pull rods. The rudder is
actuated by_ _ __

A. conventional cable controls
B. spring assembly
C. control rods
D. control Stick

A

A. conventional cable controls

39
Q

Pulling the BLEED knob out wil_l _ _ _flo w of hot air into the cockpit.

A. stop
B. redirect
C. increase
D. decrease

A

C. increase

40
Q

A(n) _ _ _m ust be used for cooling the cockpit below the OAT.

A. bleed knob
B. RAM air inlet
C. A/C compressor
D. ventilation switch

A

C. A/C compressor

41
Q

The most effective way to use the aircraft fire extinguisher is to_ _ __

A. point stream directly at fire
B. use the entire supply of agent
C. rapidly discharge agent in spurts
D. create a fully developed extinguishing cloud

A

D. create a fully developed extinguishing cloud

42
Q

The Emergency Locator Transmitter (ELT ) LED stays lit for _ _ _wh en armed before extinguishing,
if serviceable.

A. one second
B. two seconds
C. three seconds
D. five seconds

A

A. one second

43
Q

Do not touch_ _ _ _wi th hands or gloves that are contaminated with oil, grease, grime, or any
organic material. An explosion could occur.

A. fuel servicing cap
B. external power supply
C. aircraft grounding wires
D. oxygen regulators or cylinder heads

A

D. oxygen regulators or cylinder heads

44
Q

The Flight Data Recorder (FDR) starts recording when the_ _ _ _is powered.

A. Avionics Bus 1
B. Avionics Bus 2
C. Battery Bus
D. Main Bus

A

C. Battery Bus

45
Q

The_ _ _ located on each instrument panel can be used to mark any data for later analysis during
debrief.

A. AVIONICS MASTER switch
B. Primary Flight Display
C. MARK EVENT button
D. Flight Data Recorder

A

C. MARK EVENT button

46
Q

_ _ _ _ fully integrates monitoring and display of engine and electrical parameters, trim indications,
oxygen indications, as well as warnings and cautions.

A. EICAS
B. EHSI
C. HITS
D. PFI

A

A. EICAS

47
Q

The Integrated Warning System has three categories of annunciation. _ _ _consist of red flags and
repeated aural annunciations until condition leaves or it is acknowledged.

A. Advisories
B. Warnings
C. Cautions
D. Notes

A

B. Warnings

48
Q

The main canopy of the parachute consists of how many gores (panels)?

A. 8
B. 18
C. 24
D. 28

A

C. 24

49
Q

Once the ripcord is pulled, how is the pilot chute deployed?

A. Gravity
B. Spring force
C. Manually by the operator
D. Automatically by 1000 feet AGL

A

B. Spring force

50
Q

What is the minimum bailout altitude (approximate feet above the ground), at 90 kts?

A. 100
B. 200
C. 500
D. 1000

A

B. 200

51
Q

If you were pulling down on the No. 2 suspension line (located on the right-hand side), what would the
parachute do?

A. Spiral
B. Turn left
C. Turn right
D. Move backward

A

C. Turn right

52
Q

Destination weather must be forecast to be equal to or greater than VFR minimums at estimated time of
arrival (ETA) through_ _ _ after ETA.

A. one hour
B. two hours
C. three hours
D. four hours

A

A. one hour

53
Q

When there are intermittent weather conditions, _ _ _ w eather will apply.

A. current
B. forecast
C. worst case
D. predominant

A

D. predominant

54
Q

Maximum airspeed at which an aircraft is certified to operate is_ _ _ _ K IAS.

A. 137
B. 164
C. 182
D. 238

A

D. 238

55
Q

Takeoff power is the maximum power rating, and is limited to a maximum of _ _ _ minutes
operation. Use of this rating should be limited to normal takeoff operations and emergency situations.

A. 2
B. 3
C. 5
D. 7

A

C. 5

56
Q

_ _ _ _ is the point at which the entire weight of a body may be considered as concentrated, so that if
supported at this point, the body would remain in equilibrium in any position.

A. Arm
B. Mass
C. Mass moment
D. Center of gravity

A

D. Center of gravity

57
Q

When preparing to land, steer canopy_ _ _ _at 100-150 feet above the ground.

A. left
B. right
C. down wind
D. into the wind

A

D. into the wind

58
Q

The standard or normal atmospheric pressure at sea level at a standard air temperature of 15°C is 1013.2
millibars, 29.92 inches of mercury, or _ _ _pounds per square inch.

A. 14.3
B. 14.5
C. 14.7
D. 14.9

A

C. 14.7

59
Q

The International Classifications of Clouds identifies four major cloud groups. They are: high clouds,
middle clouds, low clouds and - - - -

A. very low clouds
B. fog
C . thunderstorm clouds
D. clouds with vertical development

A

D. clouds with vertical development

60
Q

There are four degrees of intensity when describing turbulence that all pilots must know. They are light,
moderate, _ _ _, a nd extreme.

A. heavy
B. severe
C . strong
D. dangerous

A

B. severe

61
Q

When air near the surface of the earth flows over obstructions (bluffs, hills, mountains, buildings), the
normal horizontal wind flow is disturbed. This is an example of _ _ _cause.

A. frontal
B. mechanical
C . thermal
D. wind shear

A

B. mechanical

62
Q 
In the Polar region environment, _ _ _ i s considered the worst flight hazard encountered.
A. fog
B. depth perception
C. blowing snow
D. drifting snow
A

B. depth perception

63
Q

The four factors that control continental tropical weather climate are: 1. pressure pattern and wind flow, 2.
orientation, height, and extent of coastal mountain ranges, 3. altitude of the continental area, and
4.

A. time of year
B. temperature of the ocean
C. moisture content and temperature of the air
D. rate of evaporation from the surrounding ocean surface

A

D. rate of evaporation from the surrounding ocean surface

64
Q

Pilots planning a flight under IFR are primarily interested in ceiling and visibility conditions at point of
departure, destination, possible alternates, and_ _ __.

A. a planned escape
B. if aircraft equipment is sufficient
C. the weather he/she will encounter
D. if pilot is capable of handling all weather related hazards

A

C. the weather he/she will encounter

65
Q

Who must the aviator contact prior to entering a movement area?

A. Maintenance
B. Airfield operations
C. Air traffic control tower
D. Transient alert “follow me” vehicle

A

C. Air traffic control tower

66
Q

What sign is always colocated with the surface painted runway holding position markings? It is also
referred to as the airport “stop sign.”

A. ILS critical area
B. Runway location
C. Movement area boundary
D. Runway holding position

A

D. Runway holding position

67
Q

Which airport sign is black with yellow inscription and no border?

A. Direction sign
B. Location sign
C. Information sign
D. Mandatory instruction sign

A

B. Location sign

68
Q

What action do you take if you see a flashing white light signal coming from the tower while taxiing?

A. Continue your taxi
B. Exercise extreme caution
C. Enter the runway for takeoff
D. Return to starting point on airport

A

D. Return to starting point on airport

69
Q

You have been cleared to “line up and wait” on the runway. After a brief period, you notice a flashing red
signal light coming from the tower. You cannot contact tower on the radio. What are your actions?

A. Takeoff
B. Continue to hold position
C. Exercise extreme caution
D. Taxi clear of the runway in use

A

D. Taxi clear of the runway in use

70
Q

Aircraft and vehicles on_ _ _ _ar e not necessarily talking to the tower so take precautions in these
areas.

A. taxiways
B. runways
C. final approach
D. non-movement areas

A

D. non-movement areas

71
Q

An aviator should request _ _ _instructions from ATC when unsure of the taxi route on an
unfamiliar airport.

A. progressive taxi
B. explicit clearance
C. departure
D. different route

A

A. progressive taxi

72
Q

Which of the following is not a major contributing factor to runway incursions?

A. Lack of airport familiarity
B. Failure to comply with ATC instructions
C. Failure to activate aircraft lighting while taxiing
D. Nonconformance with standard operating procedures

A

C. Failure to activate aircraft lighting while taxiing

73
Q

_ _ _ _m ay be in effect during simultaneous takeoff and landing operations.

A. RSA
B. RVSM
C. LAHSO
D. Option landings

A

C. LAHSO

74
Q

USA aviators_ _ _ _pa rticipate in LAHSOs.

A. always
B. do not
C. voluntarily
D. randomly

A

B. do not

75
Q

For Army C-12 multi-engine training, what is the minimum altitude allowed for a complete engine
shutdown?

A. 1000 feet AGL
B. 2500 feet AGL
C. 4000 feet AGL
D. 5000 feet AGL

A

C. 4000 feet AGL

76
Q

On a VFR night flight, what is the required fuel reserve after flying to your destination and alternate
(if required)?

A. 30 minutes at cruise
B. 45 minutes at cruise
C. 60 minutes at cruise
D. 90 minutes at cruise

A

B. 45 minutes at cruise

77
Q

No person may act or attempt to act as a crewmember while having an alcohol concentration of
_ _ _ _ in a blood or breath specimen.

A. 0.04 or greater
B. 0.08 or greater
C. 0.75 or greater
D. 1.0 or greater

A

A. 0.04 or greater

78
Q

When two aircraft of the same category are converging at approximately the same altitude, which aircraft
has the right of way?

A. The bigger aircraft
B. The smaller aircraft
C. The aircraft to the other’s left
D. The aircraft to the other’s right

A

D. The aircraft to the other’s right

79
Q

What is the maximum indicated airspeed allowed below 10,000 feet MSL?

A. 200 knots
B. 250 knots
C. 300 knots
D. 350 knots

A

B. 250 knots

80
Q

What is the minimum altitude allowed to fly over a congested area?

A. 500 feet
B. 1000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius o f 2000 feet of the aircraft
C. 1500 feet
D. 2000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 1000 feet of the aircraft

A

B. 1000 feet above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius o f 2000 feet of the aircraft

81
Q

What would be an appropriate altitude for a VFR flight on a magnetic course of 270?

A. 4000 feet
B. 5000 feet
C. 5500 feet
D. 6500 feet

A

D. 6500 feet

Grob - 120TP (5 decks)

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