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BIO A&P > Chapters 7-9 > Flashcards

Chapters 7-9 Flashcards

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Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

What are the functions of bone?

A

structural support, mineral storage (calcium, phosphorus), storage of lipids (yellow marrow), blood cell production, protection, leverage (force of motion)

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2
Q

What are long bones and where are they found?

A

long and thin bones, found in arm, legs, hand and feet

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3
Q

What are flat bones and where are they found?

A

Thin, with parallel surfaces; skull bones, sternum, ribs, scapula

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4
Q

What are sutural bones and where are they found?

A

small, irregular bones, between flat bones of skull

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5
Q

What are irregular bones and where are they found?

A

complex shape; spinal vertebrae, pelvic bones

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6
Q

What are short bones and where are they found?

A

small and thick; ankle, wrist bones

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7
Q

What are sesamoid bones and where are they doing?

A

small, flat, inside tendons near joints of knees, hands, feet

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8
Q

What are the 6 types of depressions?

A

foramen=opening, fossa=shallow depression, sulcus=groove, meatus=canal, fissure=slit, sinus=cavity

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9
Q

What are the 7 types of processes?

A

condyle=rounded knuckle, tuberosity=large rough process, tubercle=small rounded process, trochanter=very large process, head=supported by neck, crest=narrow ridge, spine=sharp slender process

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10
Q

What are the parts of long bone?

A

Epiphysis=wide ends, articulates w/ other bones, diaphysis=shaft, metaphysis=where epiphysis and diaphysis meet

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11
Q

What are the endosteum and periosteum?

A

endosteum=inner layer of compact bone, lines medullary cavity (covers trabeculae of spongy bone)
periosteum=covers outer layer of bones, except parts enclosed in joint capsules

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12
Q

What are the functions of endosteum and periosteum?

A
  1. isolates bone from surrounding tissue
  2. provide route for circulatory and nervous supply
  3. bone growth and repair
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13
Q

What is articular cartilage?

A

hyaline cartilage covering that prevents bone-to-bone contact in joints

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14
Q

Describe the matrix (osteoid) of osseous tissue.

A

inorganic matter hydroxyapatite, crystallized calcium phosphate, makes up 2/3 of weight of bones
other third=protein fibers (collagen). where calcium salt is deposited; reason for rigidity and hardness of bone

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15
Q

What are the different types of bone (osseous) cells?

A

Osteoprogenitor=stem cells->osteoblasts=produces new bone matrix (osteogenesis), immature, builders->osteocytes=mature bones cells, maintain protein & mineral content, do not divide. osteoclasts=remove or recycle bone matrix (osteolysis)

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16
Q

Describe the osteon and it’s properties.

A

The osteon is the basic unit of mature compact bone, includes central canal (contains blood vessels), osteocytes are arranged around CC in concentric lamellae (layers), and canaliculi forms pathways for blood vessels, exchanges nutritients & wastes. Perforating canals are perpendicular to CC, carries blood vessels into bone and marrow

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17
Q

What is the difference between red and yellow bone marrow?

A

red forms blood cells and yellow stores fat (adipose tissue)

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18
Q

______ is the process of replacing other tissues with bone and __________ is the process of depositing calcium salts.

A

Ossification and calcification

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19
Q

What are the first three steps of endochondral ossification?

A
  1. mesenchyme develops into body of hyaline cartilage covered in perichondrium, produces chondrocytes.
  2. at primary ossification center, chondrocytes begin to inflate and die, perichondrium is now periosteum that produces osteoblasts, blood vessels around edges
  3. blood vessels enter cartilage, osteoclasts arrive in blood, creates spongy bone and primary marrow cavity, osteoblasts arrive to create osteoid in diaphysis
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20
Q

What are the last three steps of endochondral ossification?

A
  1. secondary ossification center creates secondary marrow cavity in epiphysis, same process as diaphysis
  2. during infancy and childhood epiphysis fills with spongy bone, cartilage limited to articular surfaces (joints) and the epiphyseal plate (growth plate)
  3. late teens, early twenties, remaining cartilage consumed, primary and secondary marrow cavities unite into single cavity
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21
Q

What are the three steps to intramembranous ossification?

A
  1. osteoblasts develop projections called spicules
  2. spicules connect
  3. spongy bones develop and remodeled.
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22
Q

What is the dynamic nature of bone? How does exercise and inactivity affect bone?

A

Bone continually remodels, recycles and replaces itself. Exercise=heavily stressed bones become thicker and stronger
Up to 1/3 of bone mass can be lost in a few weeks of inactivity

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23
Q

What are the important vitamins to bone tissue?

A

Vitamin C=required for collagen synthesis, stimulates osteoblast differentiation
Vitamin A=stimulates osteoblast activity
Vitamin K & B12-synthesize bone proteins

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24
Q

What is calcitriol and what does it do?

A

it is a form of Vitamin D produced by the kidneys, raises blood calcium concentration=helps absorb calcium and phosphorus in digestive tract

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25
Q

What does the parathyroid hormone and calcitonin do to maintain homeostasis?

A

PH increases calcium ion levels by stimulating osteoclasts, increasing intestinal absorption of calcium, decreases calcium excretion at kidneys.
Calcitonin decreases calcium ion levels by inhibiting osteoclast activity, increasing calcium excretion at kidneys

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26
Q

What is osteoporosis?

A

severe bone loss, affects normal function, over age 45, occurs in 29% of women, after menopause, 18% of men

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27
Q

What are the four steps to fracture repair?

A
  1. Bleeding produces clot, fracture hematoma.
  2. bone growth stabilizes break, external callus (cartilage, bone around break) and internal callus (marrow cavity)
  3. osteoblasts replace central cartilage of external callus with spongy bone
  4. osteoblasts & osteocytes remodel fracture for up to a year
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28
Q

What is a simple fracture?

A

fracture that is contained

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29
Q

What is a compound fracture?

A

open fracture, not contained

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30
Q

What is the difference between an incomplete and a complete fracture?

A

incomplete fracture is not broken completely through the bone, complete is broken totally through the bone.

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31
Q

What is a greenstick fracture?

A

happens to children, one side of bone breaks, the other side bends (like a green tree branch)

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32
Q

What is a commented/segmental fracture?

A

3 or more pieces breaks from shaft (requires screws and plates)

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33
Q

what is a transverse fracture?

A

across bone

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34
Q

What is a displaced fracture?

A

bone moves out of alignment

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35
Q

what is a oblique fracture?

A

diagonal break of bone

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36
Q

what is a spiral fracture?

A

twisting of bone

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37
Q

what is a compacted fracture?

A

when end of bone is driven into shaft

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38
Q

what is a compression fracture?

A

crushed or clasped vertebrae

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39
Q

What is an epiphyseal fracture?

A

fracture along plate, can stop growth, but do heal very well

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40
Q

What is a collies’ fracture?

A

fracture on the distal radius, happens when reaching out for a fall

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41
Q

What is a Pott’s fracture?

A

break of both bones of the ankle

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42
Q

What foramina does the olfactory nerves transmit through?

A

Cribiform plate

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43
Q

What structure transmits through the optic canal?

A

the optic nerve

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44
Q

What structures transmit through the superior orbital fissure?

A

oculomotor, trochlear, opthalmic & abducent nerves

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45
Q

What structures transmit through the rotundum?

A

the maxillary nerve

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46
Q

what structures transmits through the ovale?

A

the mandibular nerve

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47
Q

what structures transmits through the spinosm?

A

the meningeal artery, vein & nerve

48
Q

what structures transmit through lacerum?

A

internal carotid artery

49
Q

what structures transmit through the internal acoustic meatus?

A

the facial and vestibulocochlear nerves

50
Q

what structures transmit through the jugular?

A

glossopharyngeal, vagus & accessory nerves

51
Q

what structures transmit through the hypoglossal canal?

A

hypoglossal nerve

52
Q

what structures transmit through the foramen magnum?

A

medulla oblongata & vertebral arteries

53
Q

What are the four sutures on the skull?

A

Sagittal suture, between parietal bones
Coronal suture, (headband area) anterior margin, separates frontal bone
Lambdoid suture, at the posterior margin, separates occipital bone
Squamous suture, laterally, separates temporal bones from parietal bones

54
Q

Where is the frontal bone and one of its features?

A

frontal bone=extends from the forehead back to a prominent coronal suture
glabella=smooth area of frontal bone just about root of the nose (b/t eyebrows)

55
Q

Where are the temporal bones and their prominent features?

A

temporal bone=above and anterior to the ear, forms lower wall and part of the floor of the cranial cavity
zygomatic process=extends anteriorly to form part of the zygomatic arch
mastoid process=prominent lump behind earlobe
styloid process=pointed spine on inferior surface of tympanic part
external acoustic meatus=outer ear canal
mandibular fossa=depression that articulates w/ mandible

56
Q

Where is the sphenoid bone and one of its prominent features?

A

sphenoid bone=thick median body with outstretched greater and lesser wings (butterfly shape)
sella turcica=saddle-like surface feature

57
Q

Where is the ethmoid bone and its prominent features?

A

ethmoid bone=anterior cranial bone located between the eyes
cribriform plate=forms roof of nasal cavity
crista galli=median blade on cribriform plate, attachment point for dura matter
perpendicular plate=thin median plate of bone that forms the superior two-thirds of the nasal septum

58
Q

where is the occipital bone and its prominent features?

A

occipital bone=forms rear of the skull and much of its base
occipital condyle=both side of foramen magnum, smooth knob where skull rests on vertebral column
superior nuchal line=a ridge that can be traced horizontally from its protuberance toward mastoid process
inferior nuchal line=provides attachment for some of the deep neck muscles
EOP=external occipital protuberance, prominent medial bump, attachment for nuchal ligament

59
Q

Where is the maxilla and its prominent features?

A

maxilla=largest facial bone, forms upper jaw and meets at inter maxillary suture
zygomatic process=under eye, connects maxilla to zygomatic bones

60
Q

where is the mandible and its prominent features?

A

mandible=lower jaw bone
body=horizontal portion bearing teeth
ramus=vertical to oblique posterior portion
mandibular condyle=oval knob, articulates with mandibular fossa of temporal bone
coronoid process=anterior branch, blade-like

61
Q

where is the palatine bones?

A

posterior nasal cavity, L-shape formed by horizontal plate and perpendicular plate

62
Q

where is the vomer?

A

it forms the inferior half of the nasal septum

63
Q

where is the lacrimal bones?

A

form part of the medial wall of each orbit

64
Q

where are the zygomatic bones?

A

forms angles of the cheeks at the inferolateral margins of the orbits and part of the lateral wall of each orbit, they extend about halfway to the ear

65
Q

where is the inferior nasal concha?

A

there are three conchae in the nasal cavity, superior and middle are part of ethmoid bone and the INFERIOR NASAL CONCHA is the largest of the three

66
Q

What are the middle ear bones?

A

Malleus=hammer, incus=anvil, stapes=stirrup

67
Q

What are the properties of the vertebral column?

A

There are 23 IVDs, four spinal curves: cervical (F), thoracic (B), lumbar (F), and sacral (B). The primary curves are thoracic and sacrum. The secondary curves are cervical and lumbar. There are 7 cervical vertebrae, 12 thoracic vertebrae, and 5 lumbar vertebrae

68
Q

what is the atlas and its prominent features?

A

atlas=first cervical vertebrae, supports head (yes motion)
transverse process=right and left lateral sides of vertebrae
transverse foramen=foramina provided for passage and protections of vertebral arteries and veins
lateral mass=areas where the superior articular facets are
anterior arch and posterior arch=connect lateral masses
vertebral foramen=foramina for spinal cord and related nerves, veins

69
Q

How does the axis (C2) differ from the atlas (C1)?

A

C2 (no motion) also has transverse process, transverse foramen, and vertebral foramen but also has:
body=anterior thick segment of bone
dens=prominent anterior knob
spinous process=C2 first that exhibit, in C2-C6 it is forked (bifid)
Superior & inferior facet=articulates with other vertebrae

70
Q

How does C3-C7 differ from C1 and C2?

A

C3-C7 has transverse process, transverse foramen, body, spinous process, vertebral foramen and superior & inferior facets. but also has:
lamina=area that connects transverse process to spinous process
pedicle=connects transverse process to body

71
Q

How does thoracic vertebrae differ from cervical vertebrae?

A

Thoracic vertebrae (T1-T12) correspond to the 12 pairs of ribs attached to them, lack transverse foramina and bifid processes.

  • spinous process relatively pointed and angle sharply downward
  • body, slightly heart-shaped, more massive than C, but not as much as Ls.
  • bodies have small costal facets for attachment of ribs
72
Q

How does the lumbar vertebrae differ from the other vertebral bones?

A

There are five and the most distinctive features are a thick, stout body and a blunt, squarish spinous process. Superior processes face medially and inferior processes face laterally

73
Q

Describe the sacrum and coccyx.

A

The sacrum is a bony late that forms the posterior wall of the pelvic girdle. separate sacral vertebrae until age 16, fully fused by age 26.
base=top of sacrum, apex=bottom of sacrum

74
Q

Where is the hyoid bone and what does it support?

A

a U-shaped bone in the neck that supports the tongue.

75
Q

What is the sternum and it’s prominent features?

A

breastbone, bony plate anterior to the heart, subdivided into three regions: manubrium=broad superior portion, body=dagger-shaped, longest part, and xiphoid process=inferior end of sternum

76
Q

How many ribs are there and what are true and false ribs?

A

There are 7 true + 5 False= 12 ribs. true ribs connect to sternum, false ribs connect to sternum by connecting to other ribs (floating ribs). ribs have knobby heads and the rest of the rib is called the tubercle.

77
Q

What are the parts of the ilium?

A

Largest of hip bone, extends from iliac crest to the center of the acetabulum. Includes: anterior superior iliac spine, anterior inferior iliac spine, posterior superior iliac spine, posterior inferior iliac spine, greater sciatic notch (below PIIS), iliac fossa (anterior large smooth wing), and sacroiliac joint=connects sacrum to ilium

78
Q

What are the parts of the ischium?

A

ischium is the inferoposterior portion of hip bone and includes the ischial spine (shark tooth above ischial tuberosity=large tube-like support when sitting). Obturator foramen=large round hole below acetabulum. lesser sciatic notch=small notch under ischial spine. ramus=bottom part of obturator foramen

79
Q

What are the parts of the pubis?

A

the pubis is the most anterior portion of hip bone. includes pubic tubercle=next to pubic symphysis and ramus=superior and inferior=rest of pubis

80
Q

What is the difference between the male and female pelvic girdle?

A

considered most sexually dimorphic (anatomy differs between sexes), male is more robust (heavier, thicker), female pelvis adapted to needs to pregnancy and childbirth, wider, more shallow

81
Q

What is the clavicle and its parts?

A

collarbone.
acromial end=attaches to acromion of scapula
sternal end=attached to manubrium of sternum

82
Q

What is the scapula and its prominent features?

A

shoulder blade
acromion=plate-like extension of scapular spine, forms apex of shoulder, articulates w/ clavicle
coracoid process=”crow’s beak,” shaped like a bent finger, provides attachment for tendons of biceps brachii
glenoid fossa=shallow socket, articulates with head of humerus
supraspinous fossa and infraspinous fossa=fossas superior and inferior to scapular spine
subscapular fossa=fossa opposite of scapular spine (anterior)

83
Q

What is the humerus and its prominent features?

A

upper arm bone with rounded HEAD (fits into glenoid fossa), anterior proximal end muscle attachments are the greater and lesser tubercles (next to humerus head), the medial and lateral epicondyles are the flared out bony processes that surround olecranon fossa.

84
Q

What are the two smooth condyles found on the distal end of the humerus?

A

capitulum=lateral, articulates with radius

trochlea=medial, articulates with ulna

85
Q

What are the fossas on the humerus that make up the elbow joint?

A

olecranon fossa accommodates olecranon process of ulna when elbow is extended
coronoid fossa accommodates coronoid process of ulna when below is flexed

86
Q

What is the ulna and its prominent features?

A

Ulna consists of the c-shaped trochlear notch, that wraps around the trochlea of the humerus, posterior of this notch is the olecranon (bony part of elbow). anteriorly, the coronoid process is less prominent. the radial notch is found next to coronoid process for the head of the radius. head of the ulna is found lateral from elbow, near wrist. the styloid process of the ulna is found next to the head

87
Q

What is the radius and its prominent features?

A

it has a round head is found on the proximal end and has an ulnar notch found on the distal end for the head of the ulna. its styloid process is proximal to the thumb (can be palpated) and the radial tuberosity is a rough prominence found below the neck of the radius

88
Q

What are the names of the carpals?

A

Some Lovers Try Positions That They Can’t Handle

Scaphoid Lunate Triquetral Pisiform Trapezium Trapezoid Capitate Hamate (thumb to pinky, thumb to pinky)

89
Q

What are the metacarpals and phalanges?

A

metacarpals and phalanges are numbered 1-5 with the thumb=1. The phalanges are then separated into three parts: proximal, middle and distal phalanx

90
Q

What are the proximal features of the femur?

A

the rounded head above the neck articulates with the acetabulum, plus two rough processes called the greater and lesser trochanters (insertion for hip muscles). they are connected on the posterior side by a thick oblique ridge of bone=intertrochanter crest. the gluteal tuberosity is a rough ridge, attachment for gluteus maximus muscle.

91
Q

What are the distal features of the femur?

A

the medial and lateral epicondyles are the widest points of the femur at the knee. the medial and lateral condyles are two smooth round surfaces of the knee joint separated by the intercondylar notch. the superior surface of the medial epicondyle is the adductor tubercle and the patellar surface=smooth, medial depression on anterior distal end.

92
Q

What is the patella and its apex and base?

A

patella=kneecap. it has a broad superior base and a pointed inferior apex.

93
Q

What is the tibia and its prominent features?

A

tibia=tough, larger bone of lower leg, only weight bearing bone of crural region. the tibial tuberosity is the rough anterior surface of the tibia, palpated below patella. two fairly flat articular surfaces on broad superior head are medial and lateral condyles, separated by intercondylar eminence. the medial malleolus is the prominent inner ankle bone

94
Q

What is the fibula and its prominent features?

A

the slender, lateral strut that helps stabilize ankle, does not bear weight. the head is thicker and broader at the proximal end. distal expansion is lateral malleolus (outer ankle prominence). the proximal tibiofibular joint is where the tibia and fibula heads meet and the distal tibiofibular joint is where the lateral and medial malleoli meet.

95
Q

What are the names of the tarsals?

A

calcaneus=heel bone, talus=most superior, navicular=short, wide, articulates w/talus, (medial, middle, lateral) cuneiforms=bones behind phalanges of foot, cuboid=cube-like, most lateral, behind pinky toe.

96
Q

What is the joint classification SYNARTHROSIS?

A

Immovable, very strong joints.
suture=bones interlocked, bound by dense cognitive tissue, only in skull
gomphosis=fibrous connection (periodontal ligament), binds teeth to sockets
synchondrosis=cartilaginous bridge b/t 2 bones (ribs & sternum)

97
Q

What is the joint classification AMPHIARTHROSES?

A

Slightly movable.
syndesmosis=interosseous ligaments, tib-fib joint (wiggles)
symphysis=bones separated by pads of fibrocartilage, pubic symphysis

98
Q

What is the joint classification DIARTHROSES?

A

Freely movable, synovial.
gliding=flattened or slightly curved facets
hinge=angular motion in a single plane (monaxial)
pivot=rotation only
condyloid=oval articular face w/in depression, motion in 2 planes (biaxial)
saddle=2 concave faces, straddled (biaxial)
ball-and-socket=round articular face in a depression (triaxial)

99
Q

What is the articular capsule?

A

fibrous capsule surrounding synovial joints, lined with synovial membrane

100
Q

what is articular cartilage?

A

pad articulating surfaces within articular capsules to prevent bones from touching, resembles hyaline cartilage (contains water), smooth surfaces lubricated by synovial fluid

101
Q

what is meniscus?

A

cushion joint, fibrocartilage (articular disc), sits between bones

102
Q

What is the fat pad of a joint?

A

superficial to the joint capsule, protects articular cartilages, act as fill material

103
Q

Define ligaments.

A

support, strengthen joint, connects bone to bone,

Sprain=ligaments w/ torn collagen fibers

104
Q

Define tendon.

A

attaches muscles to bone around joint, helps support.

Strain=tear of muscle fines/tendons

105
Q

What is the bursar?

A

pockets of synovial fluid, cushion areas where tendons or ligaments rub, reduces friction

106
Q

What does a joint dislocation mean?

A

articulating surfaces forced out of position, damages articular cartilage, ligaments, joint capsule

107
Q

What is subluxation and separation of a joint?

A

subluxation=partial dislocation

separation=trauma to A-C joint

108
Q

What is flexion, extension and hyperextension of a joint?

A

flexion=angle of joint decreases
extension=angle of joint increases
hyperextension=extension past normal posture

109
Q

What is adduction and abduction?

A

adduction=moves toward midline

abduction=moves away from midline

110
Q

What is medial and lateral rotation and circumduction?

A

medial rotation=inward rotation, rotates toward axis
lateral rotation=outward rotation, away from axis
circumduction=circular motion w/out rotation (hip, shoulder, thumb)

111
Q

What are the movements of the scapula?

A

elevation=moves in superior direction
depression=moves in inferior direction
protraction=moves anteriorly horizontal plane, forward
retraction=opposite of protraction, moves posteriorly (pulling back)
upward & downward rotation

112
Q

What is pronation and supination?

A

pro=rotates palm down, radius over ulna

supination=anatomical position, palms up

113
Q

What is opposition?

A

thumb movement to little finger

114
Q

what is inversion and eversion?

A

inversion=twists sole of foot medially, inward

eversion=twists sole of foot laterally, outward

115
Q

What is dorsiflexion and plantar flexion?

A

dorsiflexion=flexion of ankle, lifting toes

plantar flexion=extension of ankle, pointing toes

116
Q

What is lateral flexion?

A

bends vertebral column from side-to-side

117
Q

What are the parts of the intervertebral discs?

A

annular fibers=tough outer layer, attaches disc to vertebrae

nucleus pulposus=elastic, gelatinous core, absorbs shock

BIO A&P (4 decks)

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