chapters 1-3 test Flashcards

1
Q

What is the difference between a theory and a hypothesis?

A

A hypothesis is an educated guess based on research for an experience that as not been done yet. A theory is a principle formed to show things already explained in the data.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How are theories different from opinions?

A

Theories look at more research whereas opinion are based off of one ideas and isn’t based on any evidence or given research.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the biopsychosocial model of behaviour?

A

The biopsychosoical is a means of explaining as a product of biological, physiological and sociological factors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the four components of scientific literacy?

A

Knowledge gathering (what do we know about this?), scientific explanation (how can science explain it), critical thinking (can we critically evaluate the evidence?), application (why is this relevant?).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which is better: studying in one long session (massed learning) or studying in several shorter sessions (distributed or spaces learning)?

A

Studying in several shorter sections because you are not as stressed about what you are trying to study and because you have more time you don’t need to cram in all the info at ones.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are six characteristics of critical thinking?

A

The 6 characteristics is to: Be curious (simple answers are sometimes too simple, and common sense is not always correct), examine the nature and source of the evidence; not all research is of equal quality, examine assumptions and biases (ex, research examine the impact of human behaviour on climate change maybe biased if it is funded by oil companies), avoid overly emotional thinking (ex. Having strong responses about a gender you need to keep those differences aside when doing studies), tolerate ambiguity (most complex issues do not have clear-out examples), consider alternative viewpoints and alternative interpretations of the evidence (we need sleep to function but there are theories that explain the functions that sleep serves).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the principle of parsimony?

A

The simplest of all competing explanations of a phenomena should be the one we accept.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

If someone said that knowledge about the world was based on careful observation, you would say that she believes in the idea of…

A

empiricism . (The idea that knowledge is based on careful observation and not on common sense or speculation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

If someone believed that all events are governed by lawful, cause-and-effect relationships, you’d assume that she agreed with the idea of…

A

determinism (linking one thing with something else, one thing cause another thing) .

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What were the four humors proposed by Hippocrates? How were they related to personality?

A

The four humours are: blood, yellow bile, phlegm, and black bile.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What was Alcmaeon’s main contribution to science?

A

He was the first bran theorist, he though the eyes contained the light of fire, he pioneered the use of dissection as a tool of inquiry (first person to dissect), never connected the eyes to the brain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What was Galen’s main contribution to science?

A

Studies clinical cases from gladiatorial schools in pergamim, he was the first person to ever state that the solid portion of the brain (not the fluid-filled ventricles) was responsible for sensation and movement.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the Edwin Smith papyrus?

A

It is the first written case descriptions linking brain functions to behaviour. The surgeon notes that the brain and spinal cord damage led to impairments in other body parts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the ventricular theory?

A

In 390, church leaders decreed that the psyche was located in the ventricles, NOT in the solid brain tissue.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What did Thomas Willis figure out?

A

Father of neurology, he examined Brian -damaged humans and animals. He demonstrated that the cortex had important cognitive and sensory functions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the difference between materialism and dualism?

A

Materialism is belief that humans and other living beings are composed exclusively of physical matter. Dualism is the belief that there are not material ( a mind or soul operate from the body).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is a zeitgeist?

A

A zeitgeist refers to a general list of beliefs of a particular culture at a specify time in history.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is psychophysics? Which researcher is most related to the emergence of this idea?

A

Phychophycis is the study of the relationship between the physical world and the mental representation of that world. Gustav fechner is most related to the emergence of this idea. He showed that the weights were not received as being equal. The mental interpretation of a stimulus differed from the physical reality of the stimulus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What was Darwin’s main intellectual contribution to the world?

A

He wrote the organ of speeches and the descent of man. He discovered natural selection.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is brain localization? How did it end up becoming related to phrenology?

A

Brain localization is the early lesion studies. Phrenology was developed by Franz gall and Johannes spurzheim. It is a technique to biologically asses a persons character. It was quantifies personality and traits based on the shape and size of bumps on the skull. (LOOK AT NOTES ON THIS AND PROBLEMS WITH THIS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is clinical psychology?

A

Clinical psychology is the filed of psychology that deals concentrates on the diagnosis and treatment of psychological disorders.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Who developed the theory of psychoanalysis?

A

The theory of psychoanalysis is a psychological approach that attempts to explain how behaviour and personality are influenced by unconscious processes. It was developed by Sigmund freud. Who was a neurologist with medical training. He worked with patients whose symptoms did not seem to be physical.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What was the main contribution of Sir Francis Galton?

A

He pioneered the use of statistics to the study of perception and behaviour. He introduced the idea that heredity explained psychological differences between people. He came up with nature vs nurture relationships.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Why is Wilhelm Wundt important to the field of psychology?

A

He established the first psychological laboratory. He presented his subjects with a wide variety of stimuli, and asked them to look within themselves to introspect. He tried to measure the changes in their experiences as the stimuli changes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is behaviourism?

A

Behaviourism is a subfield of psychology that focused on studying only observable behaviour with little or no reference to mental events or instincts as possible influences on behaviour.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What was the main contribution of Pavlov?

A

He discovered that animal can learn associations. He was known for his discovery of classical conditioning.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What was the main contribution of B. F. Skinner?

A

He showed that many behaviours are a result of reinforcement or punishment. Behaviourists thought the mind was a “black box” that simply organized reinforcement seeking and punishment avoidance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is humanistic psychology? Name two key figures in this movement.

A

Humanistic psychology is a field focusing on the unique aspects of each individual. It examines peoples freedoms to act and rational thought. It includes a belief that humans are fundamentally different from other animals.
Two key figures are carl rogers and Abraham Maslow. Both focused on the positive aspects of humanity and the factors that lead to a productive and fulfilling life. They believed that people could attain mental well-being and satisfaction through going a greater understanding of themselves, rather than by being diagnosed with a disorder or having their problems labelled.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Who was Donald Hebb?

A

Was a Canadian neuroscientist. He conducted many studies examine how cells in the brain change over the course of learning. He observed that when a brain cell consistently stimulates another cell, metabolic and physical changes occur to strengthen this relationship.
Hebbs law demonstrated that memory a behaviour that we can measure and that affects so many parts of our lives is actually related to activity occurring at the cellular level.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is Gestalt psychology?

A

Gestalt psychology is an approach to perception that emphasizes that the whole is greater than the sum of its parts.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the difference between personality and social psychology?

A

Social psychology is the study of the influence of other people on our behaviour. Personality psychology is the study of how different personality characteristics can influence how we think and act.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the difference between objective and subjective research?

A

Objective research issues that certain facts about the world can be observed and tested independently from the individual who describes them. Subjective research is when knowledge of an event or behaviour is shaped by prior beliefs, expectations, experiences and even their mood.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What are the five important characteristics of good scientific research?

A

It is based on measurements that are objective, valid and reliable
It can be generalized
It uses techniques that reduce bias
It is made public
It can be replicated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is an objective measurement?

A

It is the measurement of an entity or behaviour that, within an allowed margin of error, is consistent across instruments and observers.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Why are operational definitions important?

A

Operational definitions are statements that describe the procedures (or operations) and specific measures that are used to record observations. They are important so everyone has the same idea\knows what is being referred

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the difference between validity and reliability?

A

Validity is the degree to which an instrument or procedure actually measures what it claims to measure. Reliability is when a measurement toll provides consistent and stable answers across multiple observations and points in time.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the difference between test-retest reliability and alternate-forms reliability?

A

Test-retest reliability examines whether scores on a given measure of behaviour are consistent across test sessions. Alternate forms reliability is a form of reliability that examines whether different forms of the same test produce the same results.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is inter-rater reliability?

A

Inter-rater reliability is that the raters arrive at very similar conclusions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is generalizability?

A

The degree to which one set of results can be applied to other situations, individuals or events.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is the difference between a population and a sample?

A

A population is the group that researchers want to generalize about. A sample is a select group of population members.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is the difference between a random sample and a convenience sample?

A

A random sample is a sampling technique in which every individual of population has an equal chance of being included. A convenience sample is a sample of individuals who are the most readily available.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is ecological validity?

A

Ecological validity is the results of a laboratory study can be applied too or repeated in the natural environment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

A behaviour change that occurs as a result of being observed is known as the …

A

hawthorn effect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What are demand characteristics? How would they affect a psychological study?

A

Demand characteristics are inadvertent cues given off by the experimenter or experimental context that provide information about how participants are expected to behave. They can bias research findings.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is the social desirability effect?

A

The social desirability effect is when participants respond in ways that increase the chances th

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Describe two studies by Rosenthal and colleagues that illustrated the power of demand characteristics (these are in the notes and in the Working the Scientific Literacy Model section of Module 2.1 of the textbook).

A

One study was: researchers told teachers in 18 different classrooms that a group of children has an unusual potential for learning when in reality they were just a random selection of students. After 8 months of schooling the children singled out as especially promising showed significant gains not just in grades but in intelligence test scores, which are believed to be relatively stable. The observation for this concluded that the students changed their behaviour patterns in order to match up with the expectations of the teachers.
In a another study research assistants were told they were handling “bright” rats it appeared that the animals learned significantly faster than when the assistants were told they were handling “dull” rats. This study concluded that the assistant made subtle changes in how they treated the animals and in how they observed and recorded behaviour.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Who was Clever Hans?

A

Clever Hans was a horse, that “could” do math. He picked up on subtle cues that his excited owner was accidentally giving him. (Leaned towards Hans as he approached the correct answer; leaned back once the corrects sum was reached.)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is a placebo effect?

A

The placebo effect is a measurable and experienced improvement in health or behaviour that cannot be attributable to a medication or treatment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

-What is the difference between a single-blind and a double-blind study?

A

A single-blind study is in which participants do not know the true purpose of the study or else do not know which type of treatment they are receiving (ex. Placebo or drug). A double-blind study is in which neither the participant nor the experimenter knows the exact treatment for any individual.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is peer review?

A

Peer review is a process in which papers submitted for publication in scholarly journals are read and critiqued by experts in specific filed of study.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

The process of repeating a study and finding a similar outcome each time is known as…

A

replication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What are five characteristics of poor research? Hint: You should be able to read an example of bad research and identify which of these five errors are being made.

A

Untestable hypothesis (the hypothesis mist be precise enough that it could be proven false), falsifiability (non-falsifiable- drunk people will drive faster than non-drink people except then they’re not thirsty or the fellow players get on three nerves, falsifiable- drunk people will show faster driving speeds in a driving simulator game than non-drunk people.), anecdotes (when an individuals story or testimony about an observation or event is used in place of scientific evidence.), biased selection of data (some individuals present only. The data that support their views. [cherry picking dats] ), appeals of authority (the belief in an experts claim even when no supporting data or scientific evidence is present), appeals to “common sense”(a claim that appears to be sound but lacks supporting scientific evidence).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

When would you use a case study as your research design?

A

Used for rate psychological conditions or situations. It is an in-depth report about the details of a specific case.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What are the benefits and drawbacks of case studies?

A

The advantages of case studies are: can provide dats that would be unethical to produce in the lab, unique cases can help test existing theories, can stimulate new lines of research
The disadvantages of case studies are: it is possible to “over-generalize” based on one individual. Potential biases associated with becoming a “professional research participants”, and case studies lack the control of expeirmental studies.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Who is Phineas Gage?

A

Gage was a foreman working for the rutland and Burlington railroad company. He was helping his crew blast through a rocky outcrop, and was involved in an accident that caused an iron rod to be propelled upwards underneaths his eye and through his head. However he survived the accident. His injuries were not limited to physical damage and his mental state had also been affected. His friends claimed that the changes were so pronounced that he was no longer himself. The doctors concluded that these sudden changes were due to the brain damage that he had suffered. To examine gage, the doctor stuck his finger into the hole in gage’s head. Which suggested that his damage was located in the frontal lobes of the brain, a region now known to be involved in a number of complex behaviours including decision making and emotional regulation. Gage continued to have difficulties painting social relationships. If the doctors paid more attention to his injuries this would have been the first reported cases of the brains ability to compensate and repair itself after injury.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What are the benefits and drawbacks of naturalistic observation studies?

A

The disadvantages are: naturalistic observation studies lack the control of experimental studies, the experimenter can’t manipulate any variable.
Some advantages are: The tester should not know they are being observed (less bias), researchers use this to improve the reliability of their work,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What are self-report studies?

A

Self reporting is a method in which responses are provided directly by the people who are being studied, typically through face-to-face interviews, phone surveys, paper and pencil tests, and web based questionnaires.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

How could the volunteer bias affect the results of self-report studies (e.g., surveys)?

A

The people who volunteer to complete surveys may be biases, or not representative of the general population.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

what is correlational research?

A

It is measuring the degree of association between two or more variable. And it is depicted with a scatterplot.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What is the difference between a positive and a negative correlation?

A

A correlation coefficient is a statistical measure of the degree to which changes in to the value of one variable predict chang e to the value of another.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What is the third variable problem?

A

The possibility that a third, unmeasured variable is actually responsible for a well-established correlation between two variables.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

-What is an illusory correlation? Can you think of an example of an illusory correlation?

A

An illusory correlation is an apparent relationship that exist only in the mind rather than in reality.
An example is an hospital nurse or a police officer who swears that the full moon nights are the busiest and craziest of all.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Why is random assignment important for experimental designs?

A

Random assignment is a technique for dividing samples into two or more groups in which participants are equally likely to be placed in any condition of the experiment.
Random assignment of the participants and the researchers experimental control over the variables being studied.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is a confounding variable?

A

Confounding variable is a variable outside of the researchers control that might affect or provide an alternative explanation of the results.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What is the difference between an independent variable and a dependent variable?

A

An independent variable is the variable that the experimenter manipulates to distinguish between two or more groups. The dependent variable is the observation or measurement that is recorded during the experiment and subsequently compared across all groups.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What is the difference between within-subjects designs and between-subjects designs?

A

Between subject designs is an experimental design in which we compare the performance of participants who are in different groups. Within subject designs is an experiment design in which. The same participants respond to all types of stimuli or experience all experimental conditions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What is the difference between a control group and an experimental group?

A

A control group is the group that does not receive the treatment or stimuli targeting a specific behaviour; this group therefore serves as a baseline to which the experimental group is compared. Am experimental group is the group in the experiment that receives a treatment or the stimuli targeting a specific behaviour.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

In a drug study, would a group that received a placebo rather than the treatment drug be in the experimental group or the control group?

A

It is the control group because they are the baseline experimental group.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What are quasi-experimental research designs?

A

A research technique in which the two or more groups that are compared are selected based on pre determined characteristics, rather than random assignment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What are research ethics boards?

A

A committee of researchers and officials at an institution charged with the protection of human research participants.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Why is informed consent important for research?

A

A potential volunteer must be informed and give consent without pressure, they need to know what they are getting themselves into.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

When is deception allowable in psychological research?

A

Deception is misleading or only partially informing participants of theatre topic or hypothesis under investigation. Deception is allowed in a study of medical drugs where a patient is given a placebo, this helps to know the true nature of the drug.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What is debriefing?

A

Debriefing is when the researchers explain the true nature of the study and the nature of and reason for the deception.

74
Q

How is MPTP related to animal models of diseases?

A

MPTP was accidentally discovered by a student, who was trying to create MPPP, after the student injected the drug in themselves they started to show signs of Parkinson’s disease. Animals recent injections of MPTP develop parkinsonian symptopns; it is therefore possible to use these animals to test possible treatments of this disorder..

75
Q

Why are animal models useful for research?

A

They are useful because if a disease is associated with a speficic brain area, researchers could anesthetize an animals and remove or dame that part of the brain. Second scientist could introduce a substance that increased or decreased the level of certain brain chemicals known as neurotransmitters in the brain. Third, researchers could create animal models of certain disorders by alertering the environments of the animals. Lastly, scientists can manipulate the genetic make-up of animals.

76
Q

Why is Andrew Wakefield mentioned in the section on scientific misconduct?

A

Wakefield decribed a link between the vaccine of measles, mumps and rubella and the incidence rate of autism. Parents stoped getting their children vaccinated because they were scared their kids would get autism. Lots of panic with anti-vaccine. Children got many diseases that could have been prevented with vaccines as a result there were lots of hospitalizations and deaths. Wakefields data received more attention, it became clear that some of it had been manipulated to fit his theory. He had planned to develop screening kits for stomach problems associated with the vaccine.

77
Q

What are descriptive statistics?

A

A set of techniques used to organize, summarize and interpret data

78
Q

What are the three measures of central tendency?

A

Mean, mode and range

79
Q

Which measure of central tendency would you use if your data were skewed?

A

median

80
Q

What is variability?

A

The degree to which scores are dispersed in a distribution.

81
Q

What is standard deviation?

A

A measure of variability around the mean.

82
Q

How does standard deviation relate to statistical significance?

A

Statistical deviation is when the means of the groups are farther apart than you would expect them to be by random chance alone. When a difference between two groups is statistically significant (e.g., the difference in selection rates is greater than two standard deviations), it simply means that we don’t think the observed difference is due to chance.

83
Q

What are effect sizes?

A

shifting the attention to a concept

84
Q

What is the difference between a person’s genotype and phenotype?

A

The genotype is the genetic makeup of an organism- the unique set of genes that comprise that individuals genetic code. The phenotype of the physical traits or behavioural characteristics that show genetic variation, such as eye colour, the shape and size of fascial features and even personality.

85
Q

What are genes?

A

The basic unit go heredity; genes are responsible for guiding the process of creating the proteins that make up our physical structures and regulate development and physiological processes throughout the life span.

86
Q

What are the four nucleotides that make up human DNA?

A

Guanine (G)
Cytosine (C)
Adenine (A)
Thymine (T)

87
Q

How many chromosomes do we have?

A

Humans have 23 pairs of chromes half contributed by the mother and half by father.

88
Q

What is the difference between homozygous and heterozygous genes?

A

Homozygous- two corresponding genes at a given location on a pair of chromosomes are the same. Heterozygous- two corresponding genes at a given location on a pair of chromosomes differ.

89
Q

-What is behavioural genomics?

A

Is the study of DNA and the ways in which specific genes are related to behaviour.

90
Q

How are monozygotic and dizygotic twins related to the field of behavioural genetics?

A

Monozygotic twins are identical twins (100% genetics in common) they come from a single ovum which makes them genetically identical. Dizygotictwins are fraternal twins they come from two operate eggs fertilized by two different sprem cells that share the same womb, these twins are 50% genetics in common.

91
Q

What is gene expression?

A

Is when a gene (or genes) becomes activated. Due to preprogrammed (genetic) factors and “environmental” influences.

92
Q

What is epigenetics?

A

Changes in gene expression that occur as a result of experience. It does not alter the genetic code.

93
Q

What is natural selection?

A

The process by which favourable tries become increasingly common in a population of interbreeding individuals, while trials that are unfavourable become less common.

94
Q

what is evolution?

A

The change in the frequency of genes occurring in an interbreeding population over generations

95
Q

What is evolutionary psychology?

A

A branch of psychology that attempts to explain human behaviours based on the beneficial function(s) they maybe served in our species development

96
Q

What are exaptations?

A

An exaltation is a trait, feature, or structure of an organism or taxonomic group that takes on a function when none previously existed or that differs from its original function which had been derived by evolution.

97
Q

According to evolutionary psychologists, how do males’ and females’ historic roles as hunters and gatherers explain sex differences in different spatial abilities?

A

Men had to kill animals to provide for their families, they needed to have good spatial skills and the ability to form accurate mental maps. Women needed to get berries and edible plants that were closer to home so they required a good memory for the location of objects.

98
Q

What are neurons?

A

Neurons are one of the major types of cells found in the nervous system, that are responsible for sending and reaching messages throughout the body.

99
Q

The part of the neuron that contains the nucleus is known as the…

A

cell body or soma

100
Q

What are dendrites?

A

Dendrites are small branches radiating from the cell body that receive messages from other cells and transmit those messages toward the rest of the cell.

101
Q

What is the axon?

A

An axon is a structure that transports information in the form of electrochemical reactions from the cell body to the end of the neuron.

102
Q

-Chemicals in the axon terminals that are released and can influence the activity of other neurons are called…

A

neurotransmitters

103
Q

What is neurogenesis?

A

Neurogenesis is a formation of new neurons- in a limited number of brain regions, particularly in the hippocampus- a region critical for learning and memory.

104
Q

What are glial cells?

A

Glial cells are specialized cells of the nervous system that are involved in mounting immune responses in the brain, removing waste, and synchronizing the activity of the billons of neurons that constitute the nervous system.

105
Q

What is myelin?

A

Myelin is a fatty sheath that insulates axons from one another, resulting in increasing speed and efficient of neural communication.

106
Q

How is multiple sclerosis related to myelin?

A

Its associated with a loss of myelin. Multiple sclerosis is a disease in which the immune system does not recognize the myelin and attacks it- a process that can devastate the structural and functional integrity of the nervous system

107
Q

What is the neuron’s resting potential?

A

The relatively stable state during which the cell is not transmitting messages. There are more positive ions outside the cell membrane than inside, resulting in a resting pottering of -70 mV.

108
Q

What is the difference between electrostatic gradients and concentration gradients?

A

Electrostatic gradient means that the inside and outside of the cell have different charges and the concentration gradient means that the different types of ions are more densely packed on one side of the membrane than on the other.

109
Q

What is an action potential?

A

Action potential is a wave of electrical activity that originates at the base of the axon and rapidly travels down its length.

110
Q

what is the threshold of excitation?

A

Threshold excitation is a change in neuronal membranes potential at which an action potential occurs.

111
Q

what is a refractory period?

A

the 203 millisecond period in which a neuron cannot fire

112
Q

What is the difference between a presynaptic and a postsynaptic neuron?

A

The presynaptic cell often releases chemicals known as neurotransmitters to influence activity in the postsynamitic cell.

113
Q

What is reuptake?

A

Reuptake is a process whereby neurotransmitter molecules that have been released into the synapse are reabsorbed into the axon terminals of the presynaptic neuron.

114
Q

Why do scientists use a lock-and-key analogy to describe the relationship between neurotransmitters and receptors?

A

A lock and key analogy is used to explain how neurotransmitters and receptors work. When neurotransmitters are released at the axon terminals they cross the synapse and fit in a particular receptor of the dendrite like a lock and key.

115
Q

What are the most common excitatory and inhibitory neurotransmitters in the brain?

A

Glutamate is a common excitatory found in the brains of vertebrates . GABA is the primary inhibitory neurotransmitter of the nervous system meaning that it prevents neurons from generating action potentials.

116
Q

The neurotransmitter that acts at neuromuscular junctions is…

A

acetylcholine

117
Q

The neurotransmitter that is involved with movement, reward processing, and attention is…

A

dopamine

118
Q

How is dopamine related to Parkinson’s disease?

A

Dopamine is a monoamine neurotransmitter involved in such varied functions as mood, control of voluntary movement, and processing of rewarding experiences. Parkinson’s disease is a condition in which the individual has trouble executing voluntary movements and has tremors, rigidity and a depressed mood (can be caused by a great loss of dopamine).

119
Q

If you were feeling stressed out, which neurotransmitter would most likely be involved?

A

Norepinephrine- a monoamine involved in regulating stress responses, including increasing arousal, attention and heart rate.

120
Q

What are SSRIs?

A

(Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors.) they are a class of antidepressant drug that block the reuptake of the neurotransmitter serotonin.

121
Q

What is the difference between an agonist and an antagonist?

A

Agonists are drugs that enhance or mimic the effects of a neurotransmitters action. Antagonists are substances that inhibit neurotransmitter activity by blocking receptors or preventing synthesis of a neurotransmitter.

122
Q

What is the difference between a direct agonist and an indirect agonist?

A

Direct agonists physically bind to that neurotransmitters receptors at the postsynaptic cells. (Eg nicotine) Indirect agonists facilitate the effects of a neurotransmitter, but do not physically bind to the same part of the receptor as the neurotransmitter.

123
Q

Is BoTox an agonist or an antagonist?

A

Botox is a direct antagonist because botox injections paralyze muscles, which can increase the youthful appearance in areas such as the face.

124
Q

How do hormones differ from neurotransmitters?

A

Hormones are chemically secreted the glands of the endocrine system. neurotransmitters work immediately within the microscope space of the synapse , whereas hormones are secreted into the bloodstream d travel throughout the body. Thus, the effects of hormones e much slower than those of neurotransmitters.

125
Q

Which brain structure is most involved with the release of hormones?

A

Hypothalamus- a Brian structure that regulates basic biological needs and motivational systems.

126
Q

-What is the function of the pituitary gland?

A

A master gland that produces hormones and sends commands about hormone production to the other glands of the endocrine system.

127
Q

-What are endorphins?

A

Endorphins are a hormone produced by the pituitary gland and the hypothalamus that functions to reduce pain and induce feelings of pleasure.

128
Q

-What are adrenal glands?

A

A pair of endocrine glands located adjacent to the kidneys that release stress hormones, such as cortisol and epinephrine.

129
Q

-What are two functions of testosterone?

A

A hormone that serves multiple functions incurring driving physical and sexual development over the long term, surging during sexual activity and in response to threats.

130
Q

-What two structures make up the central nervous system?

A

The central nervous system consists of the brain and the spinal cord.

131
Q

-What are the two main divisions of the peripheral nervous system?

A

Autonomic nervous system ()regulates activity of the organs, glands and other physiological processes and the somatic nervous system (transmits sensory information and controls movement of the skeletal muscles).

132
Q

-What is the difference between efferent and afferent nerves?

A

Efferent nerves are nerves that take information from the CNS away to the rest of the body. Afferent nerves are nerves that take information from the rest of the body and send it back to the CNS.

133
Q

What is the difference between the sympathetic and the parasympathetic nervous system?

A

Sympathetic nervous system is responsible for the fight or flight response of an increased heart rate, dilated pupils and decreased salivary flow responses that prepare the body for action. Parasympathetic nervous system helps maintain hemostatic balance in the presence of change; following sympathetic arousal, it works to return the body to a baseline, non-emergency state.

134
Q

What is the difference between ipsilateral and contralateral?

A

When half of the nerve fibres travel to the same side of the brain is ipsilateral and when half of the levers travel to the opposite side of the brain its contralateral.

135
Q

What are the three slices or views of the brain discussed in class?

A

Coronal, horizontal and sagittal

136
Q

-What is the brainstem?

A

The “stem” or bottom of the brain; it consists of two structures; the medulla and the pons

137
Q

-What is the function of the medulla?

A

Medulla is nerve cells in the medulla connect with the body to perform basic functions such as regulating breathing, heart rate, sneezing, salivating and even vomiting. (automatic)

138
Q

What is the function of the pons?

A

Pons are a structure involved with wakefulness and dreaming. It is part of networks involved with balance eye movement, and swallowing.

139
Q

What are two functions of the cerebellum?

A

Cerebellum is the lobe like structure at the base of the brain that is involved in the monitoring of movement, maintaining balance, attention, and emotional responses. One function is it is invalid with coordinating and timing ongoing movements rather than with generating responses on its own.

140
Q

What is the difference between the midbrain and the forebrain?

A

The midbrain is a region just above the hindbrain that functions as a relay station between sensory and motor areas. The forebrain: all of the neural structures located above the midbrain, including all of the folds and grooves on the outer surface of the brain. These structures are critical for complex processes such as emotion, memory, thinking and reasoning.

141
Q

What is the difference between the superior colliculus and the inferior colliculus?

A

Superior colliculus is orienting of visual attention. Inferior colliculus is orienting of auditory attention.

142
Q

What are the ventricles?

A

Ventricles are fluid-filled regions that provide nourishment to the brain and help cushion it against impact

143
Q

What are the basal ganglia?

A

Basal ganglia is a group of three structures that are involved in facilitating planned movements, skill learning and integrating sensory and movement information with the brains rewards system. Damage to the basal ganglia can result in Parkinson’s disease or Huntington disease.

144
Q

What is the function of the amygdala?

A

A structure involved in memory formation for emotional events, fear responses and recognizing and interpreting emotional stimuli, including facial expressions.

145
Q

-What ability would be affected if you suffered damage to your hippocampus?

A

Your ability to think and form new memories.

146
Q

Which brain area is known as a sensory relay station?

A

Thalamus- a set of nuclei involved in relaying sensory information from the sensory organs to different regions of the brain. (Critical to all senses except smell)

147
Q

Why is the cerebral cortex convoluted (folded) rather than smooth?

A

The wrinkled surface of the brain “packs” more cells into the same amount of space. The wrinkled surface allows for more surface area of the cortex, therefore more neurons and likely greater cognitive complexity.

148
Q

What is the main function of the occipital lobe?

A

The occipital lobe is located at the rear of the brain where the visual information is processed.

149
Q

What are the functions of the parietal lobe?

A

Parietal lobes are involved in our experiences of touch as well our bodily awareness.

150
Q

-Planning, regulating impulses, and decision-making are performed by the…

A

frontal lobe

151
Q

What is unilateral neglect?

A

Unilateral neglect is a failure to attend to theft half of their visual field.

152
Q

-How do the structuralist theories of Edward Titchener and the functionalist theories of William James differ?

A

Titchener wanted to understand all of the components of all human behaviours. So, for example, if he was interested in reading, he would break it down into (1) vision, (2) eye movements, (3) memory, and (4) language comprehension. James was more interested in why specific abilities evolved.

153
Q

-If you compared the responses of students in Canada and Japan, what type of research would you be conducting?

A

cross-cultural research

154
Q

what is the name of the band of fibres that connect the two cerebral hemispheres?

A

corpus callosum

155
Q

which hemisphere is superior at recognizing faces?

A

left hemisphere

156
Q

What is neuroplasticity?

A

The capacity of the brain to change and require itself based on individual experience

157
Q

Which hemisphere is better at understanding prosody?

A

Left hemisphere

158
Q

What is melodic intonation therapy?

A

A way to help with Brian damage the same area in opposite hemispheres will over take some of the functions of the damages region. This therapy does not “heal” damaged nerve cells. An example is: with patients who have suffered strokes affecting brooks area underwent intensive MIT sessions. During these sessions the patients would sing long string of words using two pitches, while rhythmically tapping their left hand to the melody. This therapy worked for many patients who were able to regain significant language function.

159
Q

What is transcranial magnetic stimulation?

A

A procedure in which an electromagnetic pulse is delivered to a targeted region of the Brian. It can be used to increase or decrease activity in a target region.

160
Q

What is the difference between structural neuroimaging and functional neuroimaging?

A

Structural neuroimaging is a type of Brian scanning that produces images of the different structures of the brain.
Functional neuroimaging is a type of Brian scanning that provides information about which areas of the Brian are active when a person performs a particular behaviour.

161
Q

What is a CT scan?

A

A type of structural neuroimagig. It stands for computerized tomography. It is a structural neuroimahing technique in which x-rays are sent through the Brian by a tube that rotates around the head.

162
Q

Which type of structural neuroimaging involves a powerful magnet?

A

MRI (Magnetic resonance imaging). A structural neuroimaging technique in which clear image of the brain are created based on how different n neural regions absorb and release energy while in a magnetic field.

163
Q

What type of neuroimaging allows researchers to look at the brain’s white matter pathways?

A

Diffusion tensor imaging or DTI. A form of structural neuroimaging that measures while-matter pathways in the Brian.

164
Q

What is magnetoencephalography (MEG)?

A

It is a neuroimaging technique that measures the tiny magnetic fields created by the electrical activity of nerve cells in the Brian.

165
Q

Which neuroimaging method involves a radioactive isotope?

A

Positron emission tomography (PET), a type of scan in which a low level of a radioactive isotope is injected into the blood, and its movement to regions of the brain engaged in a particular task is meas

166
Q

-What are two disadvantages of using PET scans?

A

images aren’t very clear
research scan can only test males
slow (measured in minutes, NOT milliseconds)
 extremely expensive

167
Q

How do functional MRIs measure brain activity?

A

A functional MRI is a functional neuroimaging technique that measures Brian activity by detecting the influx of oxygen-rich blood into neural areas that were just active.

168
Q

It would be good to know the pros and cons of the different functional neuroimaging methods.

A

Advantage: excellent spatial resolution (clear images of brain structures)
Disadvantage: temporal resolution is not as good as ERP or MEG (it takes approximately two second to scan the whole Brian)

169
Q

how are mutations related to evolution?

A

mutations cause changes in species. most of the time, these mutations make life worse for the animal. but occasionally a mutation gives that individual an advantage. as a result that individual outperforms its peers and is more likely to pass on that mutated gene to its offspring

170
Q

which ions are more numerous on the outside of the neuronal membrane? which ion is more numerous inside the neuron?

A

outside= sodium
inside= potassium

171
Q

what is the function of the axon hillock during action potential?

A

it is where all of the excitation and inhibition that a neutron receives gets summed up., if there is enough excitation reaching the cell, then an action potential will occur.

172
Q

which neurotransmitter is most often linked with depression?

A

serotonin

173
Q

which structure is responsible for waking you up in the morning?

A

reticular activating system

174
Q

what is the difference between a gyrus and a sulcus?

A

the gyrus is the part of the cortex that sticks out. the sulcus is the part of the cortex that you can’t see because it is tucked in between gyri.

175
Q

what is a homunculus?

A

in the somatosensory cortex and the motor cortex, different parts of the body are represented in different sections of the cortex. so the hands are found in one part of the motor cortex and the feet in another part of the cortex.

176
Q

does physical exercise help or hurt brain function?

A

helps. it promotes neurogenesis in the hippcampus

177
Q

what is heritability? do heritability scores for traits always remain constant across a lifetime?

A

Heritability is a statistic expressed as a number between zero and one, that represents the degree to which genetic differences between individuals contribute to individual differences in a behaviour or trait found in a population.

178
Q

why are the somatosensory cortex and the motor cortex next to each other in the Brian?

A

Somatosensory cortex is band of densely packed nerve cells that register touch sensations. The primary motor complex is involved in the control of voluntary movement.having the somatosensory cortex next to the motor cortex allows the brain to make rapid responses (movement) when reacting to different sensations from the body.

179
Q

how can electroencephalograms (EEGs) be used to study epilepsy?

A

EEG is used to study epilepsy by having patients with epilepsy wear the EEG cap for a couple of days. When a seizure occurs, it will show up as a spike in activity on the sensors that are near the brain area that started the seizure. So, the EEG will help the doctors see which brain areas started the seizure.

180
Q

When would you use naturalistic observation as your research design?

A

Naturalistic observations are unobtrusively observing and recording behaviour as it occurs in the participants natural environment. Researchers must have a precise definition for variable and their measurement.

181
Q

Many medical studies involve surveys of thousands of people. These studies often show statistically significant results. Based on what we discussed about significance, why should we be cautious about these studies?

A

researchers sometimes test thousands of participants in medical studies. As a result, there are times when tiny differences between groups still end up being statistically meaningful. It is important for everyone to notice when the differences are small. We don’t want to recommend huge lifestyle changes for people when the effect (i.e., the difference) isn’t that big.