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Road Map Gross Anatomy > Chapters 1-3 > Flashcards

Chapters 1-3 Flashcards

1
Q

T/F: CNS axons regenerate if cut

A

F

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2
Q

T/F: PNS myelinated neurons can regenerate if cut

A

T (go down endoneurial sheath formed by Schwann scells)

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3
Q

Rx for Guillain-Barré syndrome

A

Plasmaphoresis; gamma globulin

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4
Q

Dorsal rami innervate ____ (3)

A

Skin of medial 2/3 of back from vertex of skull ; deep intrinsic muscles; facet joints between vertebrae

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5
Q

Alternate name for the suboccipital nerve

A

Dorsal ramus of C1

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6
Q

Alternate name for the dorsal ramus of C2

A

Greater occipital nerve

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7
Q

The 4 cranial nerves that are mixed are derived from. . .

A

Pharyngeal arches

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8
Q

Which CN are derived from pharyngeal arches?

A

V, VII, IX, X

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9
Q

What is the only saddle joint?

A

Carpometacarpal joint of thumb between trapezium/base of first metacarpal

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10
Q

T/F: There are no white rami above/below T1 and L2/3 levels

A

T

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11
Q

T/F: Postganglionic sympathetic fibers in the grey rami rejoin spinal nerves at all levels

A

T

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12
Q

Sympathetic fibers leave in __ rami to enter paravertebral trunk

A

White

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13
Q

Eccrine sweat glands and erectile tissues are triggered by ___

A

Ach (SNS)

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14
Q

Physiologic sensations other than pain travel with sensory fibers nearby to ___

A

Parasympathetic axons in vagus or pelvic splanchnic nerves

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15
Q

Baroreceptors in the arteries controlled by ___

A

PNS

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16
Q

Chemoreceptors in the stomach, arteries controlled by ___

A

PNS

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17
Q

Visceral pain fibers accompany ___ nerves

A

Sympathetic nerves back to CNS

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18
Q

Most visceral pain is referred to ___ dermatomes

A

T1 to L2

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19
Q

Horner’s syndrome triad

A

Ptosis, miosis, anhydrosis

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20
Q

Pathophysiology of Shy Drager Syndrome

A

Degeneration of preganglionic sympathetic/parasympathetic neurons in brainstem & spinal cord, degeneration of neurons in most ganglia

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21
Q

Sx of Shy Drager Syndrome

A

Impotence, urine retention, dizziness on standing, blurred vision, inability to sweat

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22
Q

Reflexes include at minimum ___ and ____

A

1 sensory neuron and 1 motor neuron linked at synapse

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23
Q

Describe muscle stretch reflex

A

Muscle spindles in skeletal muscle stimulated by stretch –> reflex contraction

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24
Q

Describe autonomic reflex

A

Sensory stimuli cause reflex contraction of smooth muscle/secretion of gland/change in rate or force of contraction of heart

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25
Q

Arteries that lack collateral circulation

A

Central artery of retina and interlobular arteries of kidney

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26
Q

Pathophysiology of Raynaud’s

A

Hyperconstriction of arteriovenous shunts in fingers/toes

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27
Q

Where does lymph enter the venous system?

A

Junction of IJV and subclavian vein at neck by way of right lymphatic duct (R) and thoracic duct (L)

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28
Q

Vertebral arch consists of ____

A

2 pedicles and 2 laminae that form a spinous process

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29
Q

Spina bifida is a failure of ___

A

laminae to fuse to form spinal process

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30
Q

Kyphosis

A

Abnormal increase in posterior curvature of the spine

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31
Q

Lordosis

A

Abnormal increase in anterior curvature of the spine

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32
Q

Scoliosis

A

Abnormal increase in lateral curvature of spine

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33
Q

Zygapophyseal (facet) joints

A

Between superior and inferior processes at junction of each pedicle and lamina

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34
Q

Zygapophyseal (facet) joints permit ___ motion

A

Gliding

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35
Q

Disc components

A

Fibrocartilaginous annulus fibrosus surrounding semigelatinous nucleus pulposus

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36
Q

Anterior longitudinal ligaments

A

Covers anterior and lateral parts of vertebrae; limits extension

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37
Q

Posterior longitudinal ligaments

A

Covers posterior parts of vertebrae; limits flexion; weaker than anterior counterpart

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38
Q

Ligamentum flavum

A

Extends between laminae of adjacent vertebrae; limits flexion

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39
Q

Intervertebral foramina

A

Transmit dorsal and ventral roots of spinal nerves; bounded by pedicles/facets/bodies

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40
Q

Dura mater ends at ___ level

A

S2

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41
Q

Arachnoid mater extends to ___ level

A

S2

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42
Q

____ space contains CSF and has a normal pressure of approximately ____ mm H2O

A

Subarachnoid; 100

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43
Q

Denticulate ligaments

A

Lateral extension of pia that anchor spinal cord to dura

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44
Q

Filum terminale

A

Pia extending from L2 to S2

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45
Q

First 7 cervical nerves exit ___ to cervical vertebrae with same #

A

superior

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46
Q

Most nerves exist ___ to vertebrae of same #

A

inferior (below T1)

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47
Q

Cauda equina

A

Dorsal and ventral roots of lumbar/sacral spinal nerves extending inferior at L2 vertebra

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48
Q

Lumbar puncture sampled between ___

A

L4 and l5

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49
Q

Normal LP will puncture ___ ligaments

A

Supraspinous and interspinous

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50
Q

Midline LP will puncture ____

A

Ligamentum flavum

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51
Q

Radiculopathy

A

Compression of roots of spinal nerve resulting in pain and paresthesias along dermatomes supplied by compressed sensory roots

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52
Q

Spondylitis

A

Additional bone growth by osteophytes at margins of vertebral bodies; ALL and sacroiliac joints may become calcified (“bamboo spine”, ankylosis)

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53
Q

Spondylosis

A

Degenerative changes in intervertebral disks

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54
Q

Herniated disc

A

NP protrudes at posterolateral part of annulus fibrosis; compresses roots of lower cervical or lower lumbar spinal nerves; most common at C6/C7

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55
Q

Herniated disc at C5-C6 will compress the ___ root

A

(more inferior) C6

56
Q

Small bodies, short spinous processes with bifid tips, transverse processes transmitting vertebral a.

A

Cervical vertebrae

57
Q

Heavy facet joints of C3-C7 oriented at 45 degree angle permit ____

A

Flexion, extension, lateral bending, rotation

58
Q

Whiplash

A

Strongly extended–>strongly flexed (may cause anterior dislocation)

59
Q

Uncinate processes (vertebrae)

A

Bodies of C3-C7 vertebrae, form uncovertebral synovial joints with superior bodies

60
Q

No body or spinous process; posterior and anterior arches

A

C1 vertebra (atlas)

61
Q

“Yes” joints

A

Superior articular processes of atlas + occipital condyles of skull

62
Q

“No” joint

A

Dens of C2 (axis) with anterior arch of atlas

63
Q

Spondyolysis

A

Defect or fracture of isthmus with no anterior displacement of body (“Scotty dog” with collar)

64
Q

Spondylolisthesis

A

Unilateral or bilateral fracture of isthmus with anterior displacement (Beheaded “Scotty dog”); most common in L5 vertebra

65
Q

Sx of L5 spondylolisthesis

A

Bilateral lower back pain radiating to lower limbs and weakness of leg muscles

66
Q

Dens attaches to atlas via _____

A

Transverse ligmaent of atlas

67
Q

Dens attaches to margins of foramen magnum by ____

A

Alar ligaments

68
Q

___ vertebra has long spinous process and small transverse formina that do not transmit arteries

A

C7

69
Q

Sx of compression of C7 spinal nerve

A

Referred pain to neck and shoulder; pain and paresthesias in index, middle fingers; weakness of radial n. muscles

70
Q

Sx of compression of C8 spinal nerve

A

Pain in neck and shoulder; pain and paresthesia in ring and little fingers; weakness in hypothenar and interosseous muscles of hand

71
Q

____ may be compressed from cervical rib causing ____

A

Subclavian artery and T1 nerve /// diminished radial pulse/pain and paresthesias in medial forearm, Horner’s syndrome

72
Q

Heart-shaped bodies, long oblique spinous processes, costal facets on bodies/transverse processes

A

Thoracic vertebrae

73
Q

Thoracic facet joints tilt at 60 degrees and permit ___

A

Lateral bending and rotation; limited flexion/extension by ribs

74
Q

Large kidney-shaped bodies, short/horizontal spinous processes, long transverse processes

A

Lumbar vertebrae

75
Q

Lumbar facet joints are perpendicular to transverse plane and permit ___

A

Flexion and extension and lateral bending; no rotation

76
Q

Superior and inferior articular processes of lumbar vertebrae connected by ___

A

Isthmus (pars interarticularis)

77
Q

Compression of L5 spinal nerve roots

A

Sciatica, pain/paresthesia in posterior thigh, anterolateral leg, dorsum of foot; weakness in hallicus extension and dorsiflexion

78
Q

Compression of S1 spinal nerve roots

A

Sciatica, pain/pares in posterolateral leg, heel, lateral foot; weakness in flexion of knee, planarflexion, tendon reflex

79
Q

Epidural block

A

Anesthetic to sacral hiatus; diffuses thru meninges and blocks roots of sacral (S5)/coccygeal spinal nerves in cauda equina

80
Q

Diaphragm attaches to the ___ of the sternum

A

Xiphoid process

81
Q

What happens at the sternal angle? (List 3)

A

Trachea bifurcates; arch of the aorta arises from ascending aorta and continues as descending aorta; azygos vein drains into SVC

82
Q

True ribs during inspiration move like ____

A

Pump handle (increase AP diameter)

83
Q

False ribs during inspiration move like ___

A

Bucket handle (increase transverse diameter)

84
Q

Rib fracture MC occurs anterior to ___ of rib and may cause ___

A

Angle; PTX

85
Q

Formal name of ventral rami of T1-T11 nerves

A

Intercostal n.

86
Q

Formal name of ventral ramus of T12

A

Subcostal n.

87
Q

L posterior intercostal vein drains into ___

A

Hemiazygos vein (–> azygos)

88
Q

R posterior intercostal vein drains into ___

A

Azygos vein (–> SVC)

89
Q

Organization of neurovascular bundle on ribs

A

Superior part of intercostal space; VAN (sup–>inf)

90
Q

Most breast adeno is ____ and emerges in the ___ quadrant

A

Ductal; upper lateral

91
Q

___ may be damaged in mastectomy leading to scapular winging

A

LTN

92
Q

Breast adeno metastasizes to _____

A

Opposite breast, axillary nodes, parasternal nodes, and anterior abdominal wall nodes

93
Q

Radical mastectomy

A

Removes breast, pectoralis major/minor, axillary LN and vessels

94
Q

Lung extends into ____

A

Root of neck superior to medial one third of clavicle and first rib (cupula)

95
Q

Thoracocentesis is usually performed on top of the ____

A

10th rib

96
Q

Inferior extent of lungs at midclavicular line, midaxillary line, and paravertebral line?

A

Rib 6, Rib 8, Rib 10 (parietal pleura is 2 beneath, i.e. 8-10-12)

97
Q

____ is filled by lingula of superior lobe of L lung in maximal inspiration

A

Costomediastinal recess

98
Q

Does parietal pleura or visceral pleura feel pain?

A

Parietal - intercostal nerves/phrenic nerves

99
Q

Sx of costal pleurisy

A

Sharp pain localized over adhesion site increased with inspiration

100
Q

Mediastinal and diaphragmatic pain is referred to ____

A

Supraclavicular region (C3-C5)

101
Q

Tension pneumothorax

A

Heart and mediastinal structures moved progressively to other side, compressing opposite lung and impeding CO/venous return –> “valve” effect with closing of wound and increased intrapleural pressure during expiration

102
Q

Organization of hilus of R lung

A

Upper lobar bronchus superior to PA/PV

103
Q

Organization of hilus of L lung

A

PA superior to main bronchus and PV

104
Q

R main bronchus is ____ compared to L main bronchus

A

Shorter, wider, and more vertical (and more apt to take a foreign body)

105
Q

Foreign body tends to be lodged in ____ if patient was standing/sitting

A

Posterobasal segment of inferior lobe of R lung

106
Q

MC site of spontaneous pneumothorax

A

Visceral pleura of superior lobe of lung

107
Q

Enlarged R supraclavicular node indicates malignancy of ____

A

Thorax

108
Q

Enlarged L supraclavicular node indicates malignancy of ____

A

Thorax, abdomen, or pelvis

109
Q

Pancoast tumor may cause ____ syndrome

A

Thoracic outlet - compression of sympathetic trunk, subclavian vessels, recurrent laryngeal n., and inferior trunk of brachial plexus

110
Q

Sx of thoracic outlet syndrome

A

Horner’s syndrome, decreased radial pulse, hoarseness/dysphagia, paresthesia in forearm/hand

111
Q

Sx of SVC syndrome

A

Headache, head/neck edema, prominent superficial veins, cyanosis

112
Q

Branches of arch of aorta

A

L subclavian, L common carotid, brachiocephalic artery

113
Q

Ligamentum arteriosus

A

Between L PA and arch of aorta

114
Q

Coarctation of the aorta (infantile form)

A

PROXIMAL to LA; blood pressure reduced in lower limbs, elevated in upper limbs

115
Q

Coarctation of the aorta (adult form)

A

DISTAL to LA; blood pressure reduced in lower limbs, elevated in upper limbs; “notching” of ribs due to dilation of anterior/posterior intercostal a. due to retrograde flow into descending aorta

116
Q

L recurrent laryngeal n. hooks under ___

A

Arch of aorta posterior to LA

117
Q

R recurrent laryngeal n. hooks under ___

A

R subclavian a.

118
Q

Kussmaul’s sign

A

Distension of neck veins on inspiration (paradoxical)

119
Q

Pericardiocentesis is performed at ___

A

Left xiphocostal angle (passes skin/fascia/rectus sheath/rectus abdominis/fibrous layer/serous layer of parietal pericardium)

120
Q

The smooth-walled part of the RA is ___

A

Sinus venarum

121
Q

The rough-walled part of the RA is ____

A

Pectinate muscle-containing

122
Q

The _____ separates the sinus venarum from the pectinate muscles

A

Crista terminalis

123
Q

The smooth part of the RV is ___

A

Conus arteriosus or infundibulum

124
Q

The rough part of the RV is ___

A

Trabeculae carneae

125
Q

The RV contains ___ (#) papillary muscles

A

3; anterior, left, right

126
Q

Papillary muscles attach via _____ to leaflets

A

Chordae tendinae

127
Q

Where is the right bundle branch of the bundle of His?

A

Moderator band (base of anterior papillary muscle–>IV septum)

128
Q

The pulmonary veins empty into the ___ aspect of the LA

A

Posterior

129
Q

The trabeculae carneae of the LV are ___ size of those of the RV

A

2x

130
Q

The LV contains ____ (#) papillary muscles

A

2; anterior & posterior

131
Q

The aortic valve contains ___ (#) leaflets

A

3; Right, left, and posterior

132
Q

Coronary arteries arise from ___

A

Aortic sinuses of ascending aorta (distal to semilunar cusps of AV)

133
Q

RCA supplies. . .

A

AV/SA nodes, RA, RV (marginal branch), posterior interventricular artery (right/left ventricles; posterior IV septum)

134
Q

LCA supplies. . .

A

R/LV and 2/3 of IV septum (LAD), LA/LV (circumflex artery), LV (marginal branch)

135
Q

Collateral circulations in the <3

A

(1) Between anterior/posterior IV arteries in posterior IV sulcus ; (2) between circumflex branch and RCA in posterior coronary sulcus

136
Q

Frequency of occlusions

A

LAD > RCA > LCx

Road Map Gross Anatomy (2 decks)

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