chapter tests 1-28 and 36-37 Flashcards
Chapter 6
What is the larger bone of the lower leg?
A. Patella
B. Femur
C. Fibula
D. Tibia
D. Tibia
Chapter 6
The cardiac muscle receives its supply of oxygenated blood by which of the following mechanisms?
A. The brachial artery returning blood from the lungs
B. The pulmonary artery beginning at the right ventricle
C. Coronary veins that branch off the pulmonary vein as it returns oxygenated blood to the heart
D. Coronary arteries that branch off the aorta
D. Coronary arteries that branch off the aorta
Chapter 6
What system is composed of organs, tissues, and vessels that help maintain the fluid balance of the body and contribute to the body’s immune system?
A. Lymphatic system
B. Endocrine system
C. Respiratory system
D. Digestive system
A. Lymphatic system
Chapter 6
At which of the following locations could you palpate a malleolus?
A. Spinal column
B. Ankle
C. Wrist
D. Elbow
B. Ankle
Chapter 6
You are on the scene at an office building where a 32-year-old male is described as having difficulty breathing and chest pain. The patient is allergic to peanuts and thinks he may have accidentally ingested some cookies with peanuts in them this afternoon during his break. He is pale with a pulse rate of 158 and a respiratory rate of 36. You understand that a fight-or-flight response may have been activated in this patient, involving which nervous system and which hormone?
A. Sympathetic nervous system and insulin
B. Parasympathetic nervous system and insulin
C. Parasympathetic nervous system and epinephrine
D. Sympathetic nervous system and epinephrine
D. Sympathetic nervous system and epinephrine
Chapter 6
What is the inferior-most portion of the sternum?
A. Manubrium
B. Sternal notch
C. Body
D. Xiphoid process
D. Xiphoid process
Chapter 7
When the body’s water moves from the bloodstream into the interstitial space, this can often be seen as:
A. edema.
B. hypovolemia.
C. hydrostatic pressure.
D. dehydration.
A. edema.
Chapter 7
A patient breathing in room air should be receiving ________ percent oxygen.
A. 16
B. 21
C. 100
D. 5
B. 21
Chapter 7
Carbon dioxide is transported back to the lungs via:
A. oncotic pressure.
B. plasma.
C. white blood cells.
D. hydrostatic pressure.
B. plasma.
Chapter 7
An infection of the brain is called:
A. meningitis.
B. hypoglycemia.
C. encephalitis.
D. multiple sclerosis.
C. encephalitis.
Chapter 8
You are assessing a female patient with depression. She tells you that her psychologist said that she is dealing with “empty-nest syndrome.” What age group is this associated with?
A. Middle-aged adulthood
B. Early adulthood
C. Middle adulthood
D. Late adulthood
C. Middle adulthood
Chapter 8
What is a normal heart rate for a school age child?
A. 90-160/minute
B. 80-140/minute
C. 70-120/minute
D. 65-120/minute
D. 65-120/minute
Chapter 8
Which of the following would be a normal set of vitals for a 4-year-old male patient?
A. Heart rate 100/minute, respiratory rate 44/minute, and systolic blood pressure of 100 mmHg
B. Heart rate 140/minute, respiratory rate 30/minute, and systolic blood pressure of 60 mmHg
C. Heart rate 60/minute, respiratory rate 24/minute, and systolic blood pressure of 96 mmHg
D. Heart rate 110/minute, respiratory rate 24/minute, and systolic blood pressure of 98 mmHg
D. Heart rate 110/minute, respiratory rate 24/minute, and systolic blood pressure of 98 mmHg
Chapter 8
Which of the following stages is commonly referred to as “the twilight years”?
A. Late adulthood
B. Early adulthood
C. Adolescence
D. Middle adulthood
A. Late adulthood
Chapter 10
Why does a patient involved in an auto crash who has major internal abdominal bleeding require oxygen to maintain internal respiration?
A. A lack of oxygen in the air decreases the oxygen diffused into the bloodstream, which creates an increase of carbon dioxide.
B. The remaining red blood cells have a reduction of hemoglobin that reduces the amount of oxygen that can be transported.
C. The swelling of the abdominal space causes the diaphragm to be restricted, which will reduce the thorax space.
D. A lack of circulating volume decreases the oxygen and carbon dioxide transport capability of the blood.
D. A lack of circulating volume decreases the oxygen and carbon dioxide transport capability of the blood.
Chapter 10
Which of the following statements best describes the exchange of gas in the alveoli?
A. Blood moves by way of the pulmonary capillaries, air arrives at the alveoli, and osmosis occurs.
B. Blood moves from the left heart to the lungs, air arrives in the alveoli sacs, and diffusion occurs.
C. Air moves into the airway, blood arrives via the pulmonary veins, and osmosis occurs.
D. Air moves into the alveoli, blood is transported by the pulmonary capillaries, and diffusion occurs.
D. Air moves into the alveoli, blood is transported by the pulmonary capillaries, and diffusion occurs.
Chapter 10
A nonrebreather mask at 12 to 15 liters per minute will generally provide the patient what percentage of oxygen?
A. 80-90
B. 16-21
C. 24-44
D. 90-100
A. 80-90
Chapter 10
Your patient is a 55-year-old man with a history of chronic bronchitis. You have been called to his home today because of an increase in his level of respiratory distress. The patient is on 2 liters per minute of oxygen by nasal cannula at home. Your assessment reveals difficulty speaking due to shortness of breath, leaning forward to breathe, a productive cough, and a respiratory rate of 32 per minute. Which of the following is true concerning the best course of action for this patient?
A. You should not increase the patient’s oxygen flow rate because of his likely dependence on a hypoxic drive to stimulate breathing.
B. Because increased blood levels of carbon dioxide are the primary stimulus to breathe, you should encourage the patient to rebreathe his exhaled air from a paper bag.
C. You should increase the patient’s oxygen flow rate until his respiratory rate decreases and then resume oxygen administration at 2 liters per minute.
D. You should increase the patient’s oxygen flow rate to deliver adequate amounts of oxygen to his tissues. If his respiratory rate decreases, you can assist him with a bag-valve-mask device.
D. You should increase the patient’s oxygen flow rate to deliver adequate amounts of oxygen to his tissues. If his respiratory rate decreases, you can assist him with a bag-valve-mask device.
Chapter 10
Why is inhalation described as an active process?
A. It requires the diaphragm to contract and use energy to move, creating a positive pressure.
B. It requires chest muscles to relax and use energy to move, creating a positive pressure.
C. It requires the diaphragm to relax and use energy to move, creating a negative pressure.
D. It requires chest muscles to contract and use energy to move, creating a negative pressure.
D. It requires chest muscles to contract and use energy to move, creating a negative pressure.
Chapter 10
A 21-year-old patient presents with labored breathing and audible wheezes, heart rate of 124, respiration 36; he has significantly altered mentation. What is the treatment for this patient?
A. Use a pocket mask, which will provide adequate oxygen to improve the patient’s condition.
B. Ventilate with a bag-valve mask with high oxygen or FROPVD.
C. Supplement the breaths with high-concentration oxygen through a nonrebreather mask.
D. Give mouth-to-mouth breathing with a nasal cannula, providing the patient with an increase of oxygen.
B. Ventilate with a bag-valve mask with high oxygen or FROPVD.
Chapter 10
The oxygen flow rate for a nasal cannula should not exceed ________ liters per minute.
A. 4
B. 2
C. 8
D. 6
D. 6
Chapter 10
The process of air moving in and out of the chest is called:
A. inhalation.
B. tidal volume.
C. respiration.
D. ventilation.
D. ventilation.
Chapter 11
Your patient, a 29-year-old female, was the front seat passenger in a vehicle that was struck in the passenger’s side door by another vehicle that ran a red light. Which of the following is most likely to have occurred?
A. The patient’s body was pushed forcefully out from under her head, causing injury to the cervical spine.
B. The patient took the down-and-under pathway, causing trauma to her lower extremities.
C. The patient took the up-and-over pathway, striking her head on the windshield.
D. The patient impacted the steering wheel with her chest, causing a fracture of the sternum.
A. The patient’s body was pushed forcefully out from under her head, causing injury to the cervical spine.
Chapter 12
Which of the following is the most reliable means of determining whether a patient has any immediately life-threatening conditions?
A. Thorough scene size-up
B. Systematic approach to assessment
C. Obtaining a detailed medical history
D. Use of intuition
B. Systematic approach to assessment
Chapter 12
Which of the following best describes an EMS provider’s “sixth sense”?
A. Clinical judgment
B. General impression
C. Diagnostic ability
D. Scene safety
A. Clinical judgment
Chapter 12
A patient whose mental status can be described as verbal is able to:
A. talk spontaneously and respond to the EMT’s questions.
B. tell you his or her name, his or her location, and what day it is.
C. respond only to a stimulus such as the EMT rubbing his sternum with his knuckles.
D. respond to speaking or shouting by opening the eyes.
D. respond to speaking or shouting by opening the eyes.
Chapter 12
Which term refers to the EMT’s initial sense of the patient’s condition, based on immediate assessment of the patient’s environment, appearance, and chief complaint?
A. General impression
B. Scene size-up
C. Secondary assessment
D. Primary assessment
A. General impression
Chapter 12
Which of the following represents the correct order of assessment for the EMT during the primary assessment from start to end?
A. General impression, mental status, airway, breathing, circulation, patient priority
B. Mental status, general impression, airway, breathing, circulation, patient priority
C. Patient priority, general impression, mental status, airway, breathing, circulation
D. None of the above
A. General impression, mental status, airway, breathing, circulation, patient priority
Chapter 13
You respond to a childcare center for a report of an injured 4-year-old. Her pulse is 130 beats per minute. Which of the following best describes this finding?
A. Normal for the child’s age
B. Bradycardic
C. Tachycardic
D. Unable to determine without knowing the family history
C. Tachycardic
Chapter 13
The normal range for blood glucose is between 70 mg/dL and:
A. 120 mg/dL.
B. 90 mg/dL.
C. 100 mg/dL.
D. 110 mg/dL.
C. 100 mg/dL.
Chapter 13
A(n) ________ set of vital signs is important for critical decision making for the EMT.
A. repeated
B. complete
C. unbiased
D. accurate
D. accurate
Chapter 14
You have a patient who is unresponsive on the floor. What is the best way to rule in or rule out trauma as a cause of the patient’s unresponsiveness?
A. Perform a stroke scale on the patient.
B. Examine the patient for signs of trauma.
C. Look for bystanders and ask them if they witnessed the incident.
D. Check the patient’s blood glucose to rule out hypoglycemia.
C. Look for bystanders and ask them if they witnessed the incident.
Chapter 14
You and another EMT are discussing a call he previously ran. The EMT said the patient had classic chest pain symptoms and he treated it as a possible heart attack, but he later found out the patient just had indigestion and was discharged 2 hours later. The EMT was concerned that his patient assessment skills were not as good as they should be, and that the ED physician will no longer trust his judgment. How should you respond to his concerns?
A. Tell him that his misdiagnosis is a common EMT mistake caused by illusionary correlation.
B. Tell him that his misdiagnosis is a result of anchoring.
C. Tell him that his misdiagnosis is a result of limited information.
D. Tell him that his misdiagnosis is a result of confirmation bias.
C. Tell him that his misdiagnosis is a result of limited information.
Chapter 14
The process by which an EMT forms a field diagnosis is known as:
A. critical thinking.
B. diagnostic thinking.
C. differential thinking.
D. clinical thinking.
A. critical thinking.
Chapter 14
While an EMT forms a field diagnosis on the scene of an emergency, how do the steps differ from the traditional approach to diagnosis?
A. Due to the limited time spent with the patient, the EMT must rely on a differential diagnosis.
B. The EMT does not have time to form a differential diagnosis and must rely on prior experience when treating a patient.
C. The EMT must perform a patient assessment to begin the process of forming a diagnosis.
D. The EMT must rule in or out the most serious conditions associated with the patient’s presentation.
D. The EMT must rule in or out the most serious conditions associated with the patient’s presentation.
Chapter 14
Your elderly patient reports having stomach cramps for several hours. He denies any trauma and he hasn’t eaten for several hours. Which of the following is most important to your assessment of this patient?
A. Finding out if he has any chest pain
B. Asking him if he is able to walk
C. Asking if he has been having regular bowel movements
D. Determining if he has been taking his medications as prescribed
C. Asking if he has been having regular bowel movements
Chapter 14
You are on the scene in the bad part of town for an unresponsive 18-year-old type 1 diabetic patient. His mother states that he is very noncompliant with his diabetes management and often goes unresponsive due to low blood sugar. After performing the primary assessment, you believe that this is the most likely cause of his unresponsiveness. However, after taking a capillary glucose reading you are surprised to see that the patient’s sugar level is normal. How will you now determine the field diagnosis?
A. Continue patient care by getting a complete SAMPLE history and perform a complete secondary assessment.
B. You cannot make a correct diagnosis in the field because you cannot perform all the necessary tests with your limited scope of practice.
C. Recognize that the mother was lying to you. The patient is not diabetic and you now must assume that everything she told you is wrong.
D. Recognize that the mother is probably trying to protect her son from jail. Tell her that it is critical that she tell you what drugs he actually took.
A. Continue patient care by getting a complete SAMPLE history and perform a complete secondary assessment.
Chapter 15
Your patient is a 24-year-old female who swallowed a handful of pills of unknown type. Although she was initially alert and oriented with no complaints, you note that she is now beginning to slur her words and is becoming progressively lethargic. What is the highest priority in dealing with this patient?
A. Notifying the receiving facility of the change in mental status
B. Checking the patient’s pupil size and reactivity to light
C. Finding out exactly what she took
D. Maintaining an open airway
D. Maintaining an open airway
Chapter 15
The ambulance is called for an assaulted patient. While transporting the patient to the hospital, the EMT notes the patient’s jugular veins are flat (nondistended). Which of these is most likely the cause of this finding?
A. Blood collecting around the heart in the pericardial sac
B. Blood loss
C. Closed head injury
D. High blood pressure
B. Blood loss
Chapter 15
What does distention refer to when describing your patient’s abdomen?
A. Larger than normal
B. Harder than normal
C. Having a sunken-in appearance
D. Softer than normal
A. Larger than normal
Chapter 15
Your patient is the 18-year-old male driver of a vehicle that struck a tree. He is conscious and complaining of neck pain. The passenger is obviously dead. You have performed your primary assessment. Which of the following is the next step?
A. Perform a tertiary assessment.
B. Rule out the possibility of cervical spine injury before moving the patient.
C. Perform a rapid trauma assessment.
D. Immobilize the patient on a long backboard and perform a detailed examination in the ambulance.
C. Perform a rapid trauma assessment.
Chapter 15
You respond to a motor vehicle collision and find a patient with an altered mental status and angulated left femur; the other driver is deceased. Your closest trauma center is 45 minutes away. Which of the following would you do next?
A. Apply a traction splint.
B. Perform a detailed physical exam.
C. Request ALS personnel.
D. Transport the patient to a local medical clinic for evaluation by a physician.
C. Request ALS personnel.
Chapter 15
You have performed a rapid trauma assessment on a patient with multiple long-bone injuries. Your next assessment step should be which of the following?
A. Call the ALS unit to determine their ETA before deciding your next step.
B. Transport the patient to the hospital and perform a detailed physical exam.
C. Obtain baseline vital signs and past medical history.
D. Perform a detailed physical exam.
C. Obtain baseline vital signs and past medical history.
Chapter 15
Your patient is a 45-year-old female who complains of “twisting her ankle” when she slipped on a patch of ice. Which of the following is not appropriate?
A. Providing emotional support, if necessary
B. Questioning about any other complaints or areas of pain
C. Detailed physical exam
D. Secondary assessment
C. Detailed physical exam
Chapter 15
Your patient was struck in the chest with a baseball bat during a bar fight. A crackling or crunching sensation that is felt when air escapes from its normal passageways and is trapped under the skin is called:
A. distention.
B. subcutaneous emphysema.
C. crepitation.
D. tension pneumothorax.
B. subcutaneous emphysema.
Chapter 16
You are transporting a patient who has had her neck slashed from side to side. You and your partner are caring for the patient while a police officer drives you to the hospital, which is minutes away. You are focusing all of your efforts to maintain her airway and your partner is controlling her bleeding. Which of the following will you be unlikely to obtain?
A. Primary assessment
B. Pulse and respiratory rates
C. Patient’s gender
D. Reassessment results
D. Reassessment results
Chapter 16
What is the first step in the reassessment process?
A. Focused history and physical exam
B. Primary assessment
C. Vital signs
D. Secondary assessment
B. Primary assessment
Chapter 16
You are called for a 58-year-old male who is concerned that his blood pressure is too high. He tells you that he has had a headache and is feeling a little dizzy. You notice that his skin is flushed and feels warm to the touch. As you finish taking his vital signs, you should:
A. move the patient to the ambulance for transport.
B. assist the patient to take his blood pressure medication.
C. begin your reassessment.
D. write down the patient’s vital signs.
D. write down the patient’s vital signs.
Chapter 16
You are called for an alert patient with respiratory distress. As part of your primary assessment, you place the patient on oxygen via nasal cannula at 2 liters per minute. You continue with the rest of your assessment including taking a set of vital signs. During your reassessment, you notice that the patient’s respiratory rate has increased to 24 times per minute and he is having increasing trouble breathing. You should:
A. assist the patient’s breathing with a bag-valve mask.
B. increase the flow rate of the nasal cannula to 4 liters per minute.
C. call medical direction for orders to administer his inhaler.
D. switch your patient to a nonrebreather mask at 15 liters per minute.
D. switch your patient to a nonrebreather mask at 15 liters per minute.
Chapter 17
Which of the following should be documented as subjective patient information?
A. Description of the surroundings
B. Vital signs
C. Symptoms
D. Medications
C. Symptoms
Chapter 17
Which of the following best describes a repeater?
A. A two-way radio that is mounted in a vehicle
B. A device that receives and amplifies a signal that must be carried over long distances
C. A two-way radio at a fixed site
D. A two-way radio that can be carried on a belt clip
B. A device that receives and amplifies a signal that must be carried over long distances
Chapter 17
In which of the following circumstances is a fully documented prehospital care report not necessary?
A. A patient says that someone else called EMS and he does not want any assistance.
B. Multiple patients come from an office building evacuation.
C. A patient is treated but not transported.
D. A fully documented patient care report is required for all of the above.
B. Multiple patients come from an office building evacuation.
Chapter 17
Which of the following is not an objective element of documented patient information?
A. Patient’s complaint of nausea
B. Patient’s blood pressure
C. Position in which the patient was found
D. Patient’s age
A. Patient’s complaint of nausea
Chapter 17
Which of the following information does not need to be provided to the dispatcher?
A. Which hospital you are transporting to
B. When you depart from the hospital
C. When you arrive at the hospital
D. Estimated time of arrival at the hospital
D. Estimated time of arrival at the hospital
Chapter 17
You are en route to the hospital with a 22-year-old male patient who has suffered a very embarrassing injury to his genitalia. Which method of contacting the receiving facility will afford the patient the most privacy?
A. Using the ambulance radio but not using the patient’s name
B. Using the ambulance radio but not providing details of the injury
C. Providing the receiving hospital with all information via a cell phone
D. Using the handheld radio
C. Providing the receiving hospital with all information via a cell phone
Chapter 17
Which of the following is a possible consequence of using medical terminology about which you are unsure of the meaning in your patient care report?
A. Negative impact on patient care
B. Embarrassment
C. Loss of credibility
D. All of the above
D. All of the above
Chapter 17
When you arrive at the receiving facility, the nurse asks your partner for a verbal report of the patient’s condition. This is in addition to the radio report your partner gave to the hospital en route. Afterwards, you ask your partner why you must give a second verbal report and a written report to the receiving nurse. What is the best reason to provide both reports?
A. The nurse may be too busy to read the written report.
B. The patient’s condition may have changed since the first radio report.
C. The nurse may have to perform critical interventions on the patient before you complete your written report.
D. The nurse may not have heard the first radio report.
C. The nurse may have to perform critical interventions on the patient before you complete your written report.
Chapter 17
Which of the following best describes a mobile radio?
A. A device that receives and amplifies signals that must be sent over a long distance
B. A two-way radio that can be carried on a belt clip
C. A two-way radio at a fixed site
D. A two-way radio that is mounted in a vehicle
D. A two-way radio that is mounted in a vehicle
Chapter 18
What is the first step in administering a prescribed aerosol medication?
A. Make sure the patient is suffering from asthma, emphysema, or bronchitis.
B. Determine that the dose is correct.
C. Determine that the inhaler actually belongs to the patient.
D. Check to make sure the medication is correct.
C. Determine that the inhaler actually belongs to the patient.
Chapter 18
You are on the scene at a fancy hotel room for a 60-year-old male patient who calls 911 at 10 p.m. for chest pains. He states he was about to go to bed when he suddenly had chest pain that would not go away. He rates his pain as a 7 out of 10 and is diaphoretic. His vital signs are stable, and he takes medications for hypertension, high cholesterol, and erectile dysfunction. The patient is allergic to morphine. After placing the patient on oxygen, you contact medical control and request:
A. to administer nitroglycerin to the patient.
B. to administer aspirin to the patient.
C. to administer both aspirin and nitroglycerin to the patient.
D. no orders.
B. to administer aspirin to the patient.
Chapter 18
The epinephrine auto-injector is given via the ________ route.
A. enteral
B. digestive
C. parenteral
D. oral
C. parenteral
Chapter 18
The EMT, after administering any medication, must do which of the following?
A. Reassess the patient, document the medication, and report to the receiving facility.
B. Wait 5 minutes, repeat the medication if needed, and reassess the patient’s vitals.
C. Document the route, dose, and time; reassess the patient; and re-administer the medication.
D. Reconsider the five rights, reassess the patient, and contact medical control.
A. Reassess the patient, document the medication, and report to the receiving facility.
Chapter 18
What is the most important medication that should be administered to a patient experiencing chest pain with difficulty breathing?
A. Oxygen
B. Nitroglycerin
C. Albuterol
D. Aspirin
D. Aspirin
Chapter 18
Which of the following best describes the five rights?
A. Right decision, right medication, right order, right dose, right place
B. In date, right medication, right order, right dose, right time
C. Right patient, right medication, right time, right dose, right route
D. Right patient, right medication, in date, right dose, right route
C. Right patient, right medication, right time, right dose, right route
Chapter 19
Which of the following patients does not necessarily have inadequate breathing?
A. Patient with cyanosis
B. Patient with an irregular respiratory rhythm
C. Patient’s whose breath sounds cannot be heard
D. Patient with agonal respirations
B. Patient with an irregular respiratory rhythm
Chapter 19
When should the EMT most likely expect to hear wheezes in a patient complaining of shortness of breath secondary to an asthma attack?
A. In between breaths
B. While breathing in
C. While breathing out
D. While holding his breath
C. While breathing out
Chapter 19
Which of the following does not occur during inspiration?
A. Diaphragm lowers.
B. Diaphragm relaxes.
C. Chest cavity increases in size.
D. Intercostal muscles contract.
B. Diaphragm relaxes
Chapter 19
Which of the following is a sign of adequate artificial ventilations in a pediatric patient?
A. The breath is delivered easily.
B. Pulse rate slows down.
C. You notice cyanosis developing around the mouth.
D. Pulse rate increases.
D. Pulse rate increases.
Chapter 19
Which of the following inhalers would not be used to reverse an asthma attack?
A. Beclomethasone
B. Ventolin
C. Proventil
D. Albuterol
A. Beclomethasone
Chapter 19
Which of the following statements concerning expiration is true?
A. The ribs move upward and outward.
B. The intercostal muscles contract to force air out of the lungs.
C. The diaphragm moves upward.
D. The chest cavity increases in size.
C. The diaphragm moves upward.
Chapter 19
In what condition does fluid accumulate in the lungs, preventing them from breathing adequately?
A. Pneumonia
B. Asthma
C. Pulmonary edema
D. Pulmonary embolism
C. Pulmonary edema
Chapter 19
You are first on the scene of a 61-year-old female in need of assistance with her respirations. You have a pocket mask with supplemental oxygen. How can you determine that your artificial ventilation is effective?
A. You are assisting respirations at 10 breaths per minute.
B. You assure oxygen is being delivered at 15 liters per minute.
C. Patient’s pulse returns to normal.
D. Patient’s skin color remains the same.
C. Patient’s pulse returns to normal.
Chapter 20
What is not a result of a mechanical malfunction of the heart?
A. Pulmonary edema
B. Cardiac arrest
C. Dysrhythmia
D. Cardiogenic shock
C. Dysrhythmia
Chapter 20
Which of the following is the beneficial action of a beta blocker medication?
A. Increases the strength of myocardial contraction
B. Slows the heart rate
C. Causes vasoconstriction, increasing the blood pressure
D. Increases the amount of oxygen needed by the myocardium
B. Slows the heart rate
Chapter 20
You are treating a male patient with chest pain caused by the complete occlusion of one of the coronary arteries. What would you most likely expect with this patient?
A. His pain will be alleviated with nitroglycerin.
B. His pain will be reduced with aspirin.
C. His pain will not be alleviated with any of the above medications.
D. His pain will go away with oxygen.
C. His pain will not be alleviated with any of the above medications. (alleviated means does not make better)
Chapter 20
Which of the following is the result of a portion of the heart muscle dying due to a lack of oxygen?
A. Heart failure
B. Cardiac arrest
C. Myocardial infarction
D. Angina pectoris
C. Myocardial infarction
Chapter 21
Your patient is a 66-year-old female who has regained a pulse after a shock with an AED; however, she remains unresponsive and is not breathing adequately. Which of the following should be done next?
A. Remove the AED, assist the patient’s ventilations with a bag-valve mask and supplemental oxygen, and keep reassessing the pulse.
B. Deliver a fourth shock to improve the patient’s respiratory status.
C. Ventilate the patient with high-concentration oxygen and transport immediately.
D. Apply a nonrebreather mask with high-concentration oxygen and keep reassessing the pulse.
C. Ventilate the patient with high-concentration oxygen and transport immediately.
Chapter 21
You are transporting a 50-year-old male patient whom you successfully defibrillated at the scene. You are 5 minutes away from the hospital when the patient goes back into cardiac arrest. Which of the following is the BEST course of action?
A. Tell the driver to stop, analyze the cardiac rhythm, and deliver a shock as necessary.
B. Analyze the cardiac rhythm and deliver shocks as necessary.
C. Initiate CPR and continue transporting.
D. Tell the driver to stop and assist you with CPR, and request another unit for assistance.
A. Tell the driver to stop, analyze the cardiac rhythm, and deliver a shock as necessary.
Chapter 21
What does ventricular fibrillation do?
A. Initiates commotio cordis
B. Forces the heartbeat to become quite rapid
C. Prevents the heart muscle from contracting normally
D. Causes asphyxial cardiac arrest
C. Prevents the heart muscle from contracting normally
Chapter 21
Blunt and penetrating injuries can damage chambers of the heart or cause conditions like:
A. ventricular fibrillation.
B. pericardial tamponade.
C. asphyxial cardiac arrest.
D. ventricular tachycardia.
B. pericardial tamponade.
Chapter 21
Which of the following is NOT a reason that an AED may indicate that there is “no shock advised”?
A. The patient is in ventricular fibrillation or ventricular tachycardia.
B. The patient has organized electrical activity in the heart but no pulse.
C. The patient’s heart has no electrical activity; he is “flat line,” or in asystole.
D. The patient’s heart rhythm is normal.
A. The patient is in ventricular fibrillation or ventricular tachycardia.
Chapter 22
The death of brain tissue due to deprivation of oxygen because of a blocked or ruptured artery in the brain is known as which of the following?
A. Aphasia
B. Transient ischemic attack
C. Stroke
D. Seizure
C. Stroke
Chapter 22
The most common medical emergency for the diabetic is hypoglycemia, or low blood sugar. Which of the factors below is NOT a cause of hypoglycemia?
A. Reduces sugar intake by eating too much
B. Takes too much insulin
C. Vomits a meal
D. Over-exercises or over-exerts himself
A. Reduces sugar intake by eating too much
Chapter 22
Which of the following is characteristic of a patient with hyperglycemia?
A. Sudden onset of altered mental status
B. A “fruity” odor of the breath
C. Use of excessive amounts of insulin or lack of adequate food intake
D. Pale and sweaty skin, confusion, and increased heart rate
B. A “fruity” odor of the breath
Chapter 22
Which of the following blood glucose levels is considered normal for an adult?
A. 80 mg/dL
B. 180 mg/dL
C. 40 mg/dL
D. 150 mg/dL
A. 80 mg/dL
Chapter 22
Your patient is a 25-year-old female with a history of diabetes. She is confused, agitated, and verbally abusive to you, and she is very sweaty. Although she refuses to give a history of the present illness, which of the following should you suspect as the likely cause of the patient’s presentation?
A. A nondiabetic-related problem, such as a head injury or mental illness
B. Excessive intake of foods high in sugar, such as soda or candy
C. Failure to take her insulin
D. Failure to intake sufficient sugar
D. Failure to intake sufficient sugar
Chapter 22
Compared to hypoglycemia, which of the following is TRUE of hyperglycemia?
A. Its onset is preceded by an aura, such as hallucinations or detecting unusual odors.
B. It is more easily treated in the prehospital environment than hypoglycemia.
C. Its onset is more sudden.
D. Its onset is more gradual.
D. Its onset is more gradual.
Chapter 22
Which is NOT one of the steps in managing a patient experiencing dizziness and syncope?
A. Loosen any tight clothing around the neck.
B. Apply cold packs to the patient’s head.
C. Administer oxygen.
D. Lay the patient flat.
B. Apply cold packs to the patient’s head.
Chapter 22
For the EMT, which of the following is the most important question to ask of a diabetic patient or his family members?
A. Do you have a fruity taste in your mouth?
B. Do you have a family history of diabetes?
C. When was the last time you had something to eat?
D. What kind of insulin do you take?
C. When was the last time you had something to eat?
Chapter 22
Your patient is a 70-year-old man whose wife called EMS because her husband began exhibiting unusual behavior. Upon your arrival you introduce yourself to the patient, who responds, “Not until nine o’clock.” This phenomenon is BEST described as:
A. unresponsive to verbal stimuli.
B. disorientation to time.
C. receptive aphasia.
D. expressive aphasia.
C. receptive aphasia.
Chapter 22
Which of the following is the cause of most strokes?
A. A ruptured cerebral artery due to hypertension
B. A spasm in an artery supplying part of the brain
C. Blockage of an artery supplying part of the brain
D. A ruptured cerebral artery due to an aneurysm
C. Blockage of an artery supplying part of the brain
Chapter 22
Which of the following is NOT a sign of a hypoglycemic diabetic emergency?
A. Slow heart rate
B. Anxiety
C. Combativeness
D. Cold, clammy skin
A. Slow heart rate
Chapter 22
You respond to a 32-year-old female who is having a seizure. You arrive on the scene to find the patient drowsy, confused, and complaining of a headache. This patient is demonstrating the:
A. postictal phase.
B. tonic phase.
C. clonic phase.
D. aura phase.
A. postictal phase.
Chapter 22
If the blood sugar level is very high, which of the following may result?
A. Excessive insulin, excessive glucose, and excessive urination
B. Excessive urination, excessive thirst, and excessive hunger
C. Hyperactivity, excessive thirst, and polyuria
D. Polyuria and hyperactivity
B. Excessive urination, excessive thirst, and excessive hunger
Chapter 22
Your patient is a 19-year-old female who is 7 months pregnant. She just experienced a seizure. Although she has no previous history of seizures or any other medical condition, she was just diagnosed with pregnancy-induced hypertension. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the seizure?
A. Hypoglycemia
B. Trauma
C. Eclampsia
D. Any of the above
C. Eclampsia
Chapter 22
During your primary assessment, you find your patient has an altered mental status. This could indicate which of the following?
A. Failing respiratory system
B. The need for suctioning of the airway
C. The need to complete a secondary assessment
D. Problems with the RAS due to hypertension
A. Failing respiratory system
Chapter 22
Which of the following BEST describes status epilepticus?
A. Two or more seizures with tonic-clonic activity without an intervening period of consciousness
B. A seizure involving convulsions on only one side of the body
C. A seizure that occurs without a known cause
D. A period of drowsiness following tonic-clonic seizures
A. Two or more seizures with tonic-clonic activity without an intervening period of consciousness
Chapter 22
Which of the following refers to difficulty in using words or understanding speech as a result of a stroke?
A. Aphasia
B. Ataxia
C. Ischemia
D. Hemiparesis
A. Aphasia
Chapter 22
Your patient is waking up from a seizure; it was the patient’s first seizure ever. When you ask what happened, the patient tells you she had the smell of fresh mown grass just before she seized. This sensation is known as a(n):
A. clonic phase.
B. postictal phase.
C. tonic phase.
D. aura.
D. aura.
Chapter 22
Your patient is an unresponsive 30-year-old male wearing a Medic-Alert bracelet indicating that he is a diabetic. The patient’s coworkers came by his house to check on him when he did not show up for work and did not call in sick. Your assessment does not clearly indicate to you whether the patient may be hypoglycemic or hyperglycemic. Which of the following should you do next?
A. Apply oxygen and begin transport without taking further action.
B. Use your glucometer to check his blood sugar level.
C. Administer oral glucose, as it will not cause additional harm in hyperglycemia but may prevent brain damage if the patient is hypoglycemic.
D. Use the patient’s glucometer to check his blood sugar level.
A. Apply oxygen and begin transport without taking further action.
Chapter 22
A patient who demonstrates any one of the three symptoms from the Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale has a(n) ________% chance of having an acute stroke.
A. 80
B. 60
C. 70
D. 50
C. 70
Chapter 22
Most of the diabetic emergencies that you will be called to deal with will be related to hypoglycemia. However, occasionally you will experience an instance of hyperglycemia. In the list below, which item is NOT likely to be a sign or symptom of hyperglycemia?
A. Nausea
B. Excessive urination
C. Reduced rate of breathing
D. Chronic thirst
C. Reduced rate of breathing
Chapter 22
Which of the following is an action of insulin?
A. It helps the movement of sugar from the bloodstream to the cell.
B. It increases the circulating level of glucose in the blood.
C. It blocks the uptake of sugar by the body’s cells.
D. It assists the transfer of sugar from the stomach and small intestine to the bloodstream.
A. It helps the movement of sugar from the bloodstream to the cell.
Chapter 22
Many stroke patients are candidates for thrombolytic drugs. One of the most important things that an EMT can do to optimize the care of a stroke patient who is a candidate for the drugs is:
A. determine the exact time of onset of symptoms.
B. transport to the closest hospital because the patient must go to the operating room as soon as possible.
C. transport the patient to a Level I trauma center.
D. do a thorough physical exam of the patient.
A. determine the exact time of onset of symptoms.
Chapter 22
Looking at the following list, which of the items does NOT correctly compare the signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia?
A. The hypoglycemic patient usually complains of a headache, whereas the hyperglycemic patient does not.
B. Hyperglycemia usually has a slower onset than hypoglycemia.
C. Hyperglycemic patients often have warm, red, dry skin, whereas hypoglycemic patients have cold, pale, moist, or clammy skin.
D. The hyperglycemic patient often has acetone breath, whereas the hypoglycemic patient does not.
A. The hypoglycemic patient usually complains of a headache, whereas the hyperglycemic patient does not.
Chapter 22
The signs and symptoms of a transient ischemic attack (TIA) may last up to:
A. 24 hours.
B. 6 hours.
C. 30 minutes.
D. 1 hour.
A. 24 hours.
Chapter 22
A hormone called insulin is secreted by the:
A. islets of Langerhans in the liver.
B. islets of Langerhans in the pancreas.
C. gallbladder found in the pancreas.
D. None of the above.
B. islets of Langerhans in the pancreas.
Chapter 22
Which of the following is NOT a sign or symptom of stroke?
A. Sudden impairment of vision
B. Seizure
C. Chest pain
D. Vomiting
C. Chest pain
Chapter 23
Which of the following is not an indication that epinephrine is helping the anaphylaxis patient’s condition?
A. Increased blood pressure
B. Increased heart rate
C. Increased dyspnea
D. Both B and C
C. Increased dyspnea
Chapter 23
You are on the scene of a 22-year-old female patient who is unresponsive. The patient’s mother states that she is deathly allergic to peanuts and accidentally ate stir fry cooked in peanut oil. The patient is unresponsive with agonal respirations at 6 per minute. What is your first action?
A. Perform a complete assessment and confirm that the patient is actually in anaphylaxis.
B. Administer epinephrine with medical control consent.
C. Insert an oral airway and apply oxygen at 15 liters per minute by nonrebreather mask.
D. Insert an oral airway and apply oxygen at 15 liters per minute by bag-valve mask.
D. Insert an oral airway and apply oxygen at 15 liters per minute by bag-valve mask.
Chapter 23
You are on the scene of a motor vehicle collision in which a car has driven off the roadway and is resting at the bottom of an embankment. The driver is in severe respiratory distress and is unable to speak. His skin is flushed and he has hives. A Medic-Alert bracelet indicates an allergy to peanuts. You notice a candy bar wrapper on the floor of the car. Which of the following should you do first?
A. Read the candy wrapper to see if it contains peanuts.
B. Administer high-concentration oxygen.
C. Search the patient for an epinephrine auto-injector.
D. Perform rapid extrication.
B. Administer high-concentration oxygen.
Chapter 23
You are called to a residence for a 50-year-old male complaining of difficulty breathing. He is alert and oriented to time, place, and person. The patient presents with hives over the chest, stridor, a swollen tongue, and wheezing in the upper fields. He is breathing 32 times per minute. He is speaking in two- to three-word sentences. What is the best treatment for the patient?
A. Rapid transport to the nearest facility
B. Administering epinephrine with consent from medical control
C. Oxygen at 15 liters per minute by nonrebreather mask
D. Oxygen at 15 liters per minute by bag-valve mask
B. Administering epinephrine with consent from medical control
Chapter 23
You are on the scene of a 40-year-old male patient who is anaphylactic and still unresponsive following a single epinephrine injection. Prior to giving the injection, you inserted an oral airway and administered oxygen at 15 liters per minute by bag-valve mask and your partner found diminished lung sounds. Following the epinephrine administration, your partner reassesses lung sounds and tells you that the patient is now wheezing loudly in all fields. What is the next action you should perform?
A. Place the patient on a nonrebreather mask.
B. Hyperventilate the patient.
C. Discontinue bagging the patient.
D. Contact medical control and request to administer another dose of epinephrine.
D. Contact medical control and request to administer another dose of epinephrine.
Chapter 24
Which of the following individuals is likely in the incubation period of chickenpox?
A. A patient with a fever and a rash on the abdomen and back that began 3 days ago
B. A patient who was vaccinated last year, exposed 4 weeks ago, and shows no signs
C. A patient whose rash and fever went away a week ago
D. A patient who was exposed 6 days ago but does not yet have a fever or rash
D. A patient who was exposed 6 days ago but does not yet have a fever or rash
Chapter 24
Which of the following statements about bacteria is false?
A. Sepsis is a serious and sometimes deadly complication of bacterial infection.
B. Some bacteria inside the body are good and necessary to survival.
C. Bacteria need to be inside the body in order to reproduce.
D. Over time, bacteria have developed resistance to some antibiotics.
C. Bacteria need to be inside the body in order to reproduce.
Chapter 24
What is the most important thing you can do for a stable septic patient?
A. Notify the emergency department that the patient is septic.
B. Open and maintain the patient’s airway.
C. Attempt to lower the patient’s temperature.
D. Assess the patient using capnography.
A. Notify the emergency department that the patient is septic.
Chapter 24
According to the signs of systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS), which of the following infection patients has an increased risk of sepsis?
A. A patient with a temperature of 95.4F and a respiratory rate of 28
B. A patient with a heart rate of 88 and a temperature of 99.6F
C. A patient with respiratory rate of 19 and a heart rate of 112
D. A patient with a systolic blood pressure of 75 mmHg and a respiratory rate of 18
A. A patient with a temperature of 95.4F and a respiratory rate of 28
Chapter 24
Which of the following most accurately describes the pathophysiology of sepsis?
A. More than one type of infectious agent invades the body, limiting the immune system’s response to each agent.
B. The body overreacts to an infection and secretes substances that hurt cells, tissues, and organs.
C. An infectious agent in the body multiplies very rapidly, overwhelming the body’s natural immune response.
D. Vasoconstriction and internal fluid retention lead to shock that does not respond to intravenous fluids.
B. The body overreacts to an infection and secretes substances that hurt cells, tissues, and organs.
Chapter 24
You have been called to the scene of an 83-year-old woman with a high fever who reports chills and shortness of breath. She is tachypneic and showing signs of pain upon inspiration. You talk with her a bit and she seems confused and unaware of where she is, who she is, or who you are. Based on this presentation, the patient likely has:
A. pneumonia.
B. tuberculosis.
C. croup.
D. pertussis.
A. pneumonia.
Chapter 24
Which of the following best describes a difference between the systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS) and the quick sepsis-related organ failure assessment (qSOFA)?
A. SIRS is more commonly used in the intensive care setting, whereas qSOFA is more commonly used in field assessments.
B. SIRS relies on the measurement of exhaled carbon dioxide to detect sepsis, whereas qSOFA uses a variety of measures.
C. SIRS creates a score based on the number of abnormal findings, whereas qSOFA uses the presence of two or more specific criteria.
D. SIRS is used to predict the likelihood a patient will develop sepsis, whereas qSOFA is used to predict the likelihood of patient death from sepsis.
D. SIRS is used to predict the likelihood a patient will develop sepsis, whereas qSOFA is used to predict the likelihood of patient death from sepsis.
Chapter 24
According to the systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS) system, which of the following criteria would not contribute to a patient’s likelihood of developing sepsis?
A. Systolic blood pressure of 76
B. Temperature of 95.3F
C. Respiratory rate of 32
D. Heart rate of 87
D. Heart rate of 87
Chapter 25
Barbiturates may be referred to as which of the following?
A. Uppers
B. Acid
C. Meth
D. Downers
D. Downers
Chapter 25
What clinical finding is most suggestive of an inhaled poison?
A. Swollen tongue
B. Black-colored sputum
C. Altered mental status
D. Tachypnea
B. Black-colored sputum
Chapter 25
Which of the following is a trade name for activated charcoal?
A. Charcoal
B. Mesquite
C. Actidose
D. Actifed
C. Actidose
Chapter 25
Which of the following is not part of the treatment for a 15-year-old female who has swallowed drain cleaner?\
A. Administer activated charcoal.
B. Administer milk or water.
C. Maintain the airway.
D. Call medical control.
A. Administer activated charcoal.
Chapter 25
Which of the following statements regarding syrup of ipecac is not true?
A. It removes only about one-third of stomach contents.
B. It causes vomiting in all patients with a single dose.
C. It can cause a patient to aspirate stomach contents into the lungs.
D. It has an immediate action.
D. It has an immediate action.
Chapter 25
You respond to the county jail for a 48-year-old inmate arrested two days ago for public intoxication. Guards state the patient is a known alcoholic and “frequent flier.” The guards state that for several hours the patient was “acting crazy” and seeing “bugs on the walls.” The patient then began seizing and they called for an ambulance. You notice the patient is no longer seizing, diaphoretic, or confused. What condition do you suspect?
A. Alcohol poisoning
B. LSD abuse
C. Acute episode of paranoid schizophrenia
D. Delirium tremens
D. Delirium tremens
Chapter 25
Your patient has come in contact with a strong acid substance. Using an alkaline solution to treat the patient may result in which of the following?
A. Further damage to the patient’s tissues
B. Production of heat when the acid and alkali interact
C. Neutralization of the acid substance
D. All of the above
D. All of the above
Chapter 25
Which of the following is an injury that commonly occurs in alcoholic patients with even minor head injuries?
A. Subdural hematoma
B. Skull fracture
C. Concussion
D. Intracerebral hematoma
A. Subdural hematoma
Chapter 25
A patient who has abused “uppers” will display which of the following signs and symptoms?
A. Constricted pupils, hypotension, and blurred vision
B. Dilated pupils, excessive salivation, and food cravings
C. Excessive talkativeness, dilated pupils, and dry mouth
D. Slurred speech, constricted pupils, and frequent urination
C. Excessive talkativeness, dilated pupils, and dry mouth
Chapter 25
The drug ecstasy is classified as what type of drug?
A. Barbiturate
B. Tranquilizer
C. Hallucinogen
D. Depressant
C. Hallucinogen
Chapter 25
Your patient is a 17-year-old male who is spitting and coughing after swallowing some gasoline while siphoning from a gas tank. Which of the following should you do first?
A. Administer syrup of ipecac.
B. Contact medical control.
C. Have the patient drink a glass of milk.
D. Insert a Combitube or another blind insertion device, if you are trained to do so.
B. Contact medical control.
Chapter 25
The opioid triad includes all of the following except:
A. pinpoint pupils.
B. coma.
C. hypertension.
D. respiratory depression.
C. hypertension.
Chapter 25
You are called to the scene of a 17-year-old female patient who is unresponsive. Her mother suspects that she tried to commit suicide by taking her pain pills. The patient is unresponsive to painful stimuli, has agonal respirations, and has vomited. She has a weak carotid pulse. After securing the airway and providing oxygen by bag-valve mask, what is your next action?
A. Ask the mother the name of her pain medication.
B. Perform a secondary assessment of the patient.
C. Question the mother about the patient’s suicidal tendencies.
D. Perform a focused assessment.
B. Perform a secondary assessment of the patient.
Chapter 25
Which of the following is the cause of the black residue found in a patient’s mouth and nose following smoke inhalation?
A. Carbon
B. Cyanide
C. Carbon monoxide
D. Tar
A. Carbon
Chapter 25
Most cases of accidental poisoning involve which of the following?
A. Adults
B. Infants
C. Young children
D. Adolescents
C. Young children
Chapter 25
Your patient is a 23-year-old male who is unresponsive in the restroom of a bar. His respirations are slow and shallow, he has a heart rate of 50 beats per minute, he is sweating profusely, and he has constricted pupils. Which of the following substances is most likely responsible for the patient’s condition?
A. LSD
B. Heroin
C. PCP
D. Ecstasy
B. Heroin
Chapter 25
Which of the following types of drugs may induce sleep or stupor?
A. Both Narcotics and Tranquilizers
B. Tranquilizers
C. Hallucinogens
D. Narcotics
A. Both Narcotics and Tranquilizers
Chapter 26
You are called to the scene of a patient with abdominal pain. Upon arrival, you find a 38-year-old Asian man on the floor next to his desk writhing in pain. He is complaining of severe right-sided flank pain. His blood pressure is 140/90, pulse 100, and his skin is ashen and diaphoretic. You suspect:
A. renal colic.
B. mid-cycle pain.
C. cholecystitis.
D. myocardial infarction.
A. renal colic.
Chapter 26
You respond to a 75-year-old female who is complaining of epigastric pain that feels like heartburn. The pain radiates to the right shoulder. Her vital signs are stable and she has a previous history of a myocardial infarction. She has prescription nitroglycerin tablets. She is most likely suffering from:
A. renal colic.
B. cholecystitis.
C. abdominal aortic aneurysm.
D. ectopic pregnancy.
B. cholecystitis.
Chapter 26
Most organs of the abdomen are enclosed within the:
A. peritoneum.
B. retroperitoneal space.
C. midline.
D. extraperitoneal space.
A. peritoneum.
Chapter 26
Which patient is experiencing visceral pain?
A. 19-year-old female complaining of severe cramps in the lower abdominal quadrants
B. 45-year-old female complaining of abdominal pain “all over”
C. 24-year-old male complaining of severe left flank pain
D. 28-year-old male with sharp pain in the right lower quadrant
B. 45-year-old female complaining of abdominal pain “all over”
Chapter 26
The detection of a bulging mass through the belly button that is not pulsating should make the EMT suspicious that the patient may be suffering from which of the following?
A. Ulcer
B. Abdominal aortic aneurysm
C. Gastroenteritis
D. Hernia
D. Hernia
Chapter 26
Pain that originates in an organ, such as the intestines, is called ________ pain.
A. visceral
B. acute
C. referred
D. parietal
A. visceral
Chapter 26
Which abdominal quadrant contains the appendix?
A. Left upper
B. Right lower
C. Left lower
D. Right upper
B. Right lower
Chapter 26
Which of the following is not a cause of parietal pain?
A. Bleeding into the abdominal cavity
B. Infection
C. Inflammation
D. Muscle spasm
D. Muscle spasm
Chapter 26
Organs of the right upper quadrant include:
A. pancreas, spleen, and part of the liver.
B. small intestine, stomach, and spleen.
C. most of the liver, gallbladder, and part of the large intestine.
D. most of the liver, spleen, and gallbladder.
C. most of the liver, gallbladder, and part of the large intestine.
Chapter 26
You are called to a 25-year-old male complaining of right lower quadrant (RLQ) pain. His other symptoms are nausea and vomiting, fever, and decreasing pain in the umbilicus area. As an EMT, you feel this patient might have:
A. pancreatitis.
B. peritonitis.
C. appendicitis.
D. cholecystitis.
C. appendicitis.
Chapter 26
Pain felt in the epigastric region of the abdomen is of concern because of the possibility of which of the following?
A. Kidney stones
B. Extreme diarrhea with dehydration
C. Myocardial infarction
D. Influenza
C. Myocardial infarction
Chapter 26
With the exception of the ________, most abdominal organs are not able to sense tearing sensations.
A. liver
B. ovaries
C. colon
D. aorta
D. aorta
Chapter 26
Which of the following organs is located in the retroperitoneal space?
A. Liver
B. Kidneys
C. Stomach
D. Uterus
B. Kidneys
Chapter 26
You respond to the scene of a 50-year-old male complaining of severe abdominal pain. He has a history of alcohol and drug abuse. His vital signs are stable and he presents with epigastric pain that radiates to the back. He has guarding and point tenderness in the upper quadrants. You suspect:
A. cholecystitis.
B. gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD).
C. myocardial infarction.
D. pancreatitis.
D. pancreatitis.
Chapter 26
Your patient is a 40-year-old female who has been experiencing abdominal pain and vomiting for 2 days. She is now responsive to verbal stimulus; has cool, dry skin; a heart rate of 116; respirations of 24; and a blood pressure of 100/70. Which of the following is the best position for transporting this patient?
A. Sitting up at a 45-degree angle
B. Sitting up at a 90-degree angle
C. Supine with the knees bent
D. Left lateral recumbent with the legs bent
D. Left lateral recumbent with the legs bent
Chapter 26
You are called to a residence for a 48-year-old male patient. He is lying in bed, groaning in pain and curled into a fetal position. His blood pressure is 88/50, pulse 136, and respiratory rate of 32. His wife states that he complained of lower right abdominal pain for several days that got progressively worse, until about an hour ago when it became suddenly unbearable. The wife states the husband had been refusing to see a doctor, but she finally called 911. You suspect appendicitis and are concerned about the subsequent onset of:
A. pancreatitis.
B. renal colic.
C. splenic rupture.
D. peritonitis.
D. peritonitis.
Chapter 26
Which of the following is true concerning parietal pain?
A. It is often described as “crampy” or “colicky.”
B. It is generally localized to a particular area.
C. It arises from solid organs.
D. It is usually intermittent in nature.
B. It is generally localized to a particular area.
Chapter 27
Neurotransmitters are chemicals within the body that transmit the message from the distal end of one neuron (presynaptic neuron) to the proximal end of the next neuron (postsynaptic neuron). While it sounds like a complicated process, it takes only milliseconds. Which one of the following sentences is false?
A. After the impulse is transmitted, the neurotransmitter goes through a process called reuptake, in which the neurotransmitter is returned to the postsynaptic neuron.
B. The receptors on the postsynaptic neuron receive the neurotransmitter.
C. This is the mechanism by which the impulse is moved along the nervous system.
D. Neurotransmitters are released from a neuron, then travel across the synapse to the next neuron.
A. After the impulse is transmitted, the neurotransmitter goes through a process called reuptake, in which the neurotransmitter is returned to the postsynaptic neuron.
Chapter 27
You respond to the scene of a private residence for a patient who is known to have insulin-dependent diabetes. The patient is combative and cursing as you approach. Should this patient be restrained?
A. There is not enough information to answer this question.
B. No, this patient is not likely experiencing a behavioral emergency.
C. Yes, he is combative and all combative patients can be restrained.
D. Yes, he likely has a medical condition that requires treatment.
A. There is not enough information to answer this question.
Chapter 27
You are confronted with a patient experiencing personality changes ranging from irritability to irrational behavior, altered mental status, amnesia or confusion, irregular respirations, elevated blood pressure, and decreasing pulse. It appears to be a psychiatric emergency. What else could cause this behavior?
A. Head injury
B. Low blood sugar
C. Lack of oxygen
D. Stroke
A. Head injury
Chapter 27
Which of the following statements concerning forcible restraint of patients is true?
A. It causes irreparable emotional harm to most patients.
B. This is necessary only with mentally ill individuals.
C. It is easily accomplished by two EMTs with a good plan.
D. This is normally considered to be within the jurisdiction of law enforcement.
D. This is normally considered to be within the jurisdiction of law enforcement.
Chapter 27
EMTs may come across a situation where a patient begins to act extremely agitated or psychotic. Uncontrolled psychiatric illness and sometimes drug intoxication may be present. The patient may suddenly cease struggling, and often within minutes the patient develops inadequate or absent respirations and subsequently dies. It is important for the EMT to be alert for this sequence of events in a patient who exhibits this behavior and monitor the patient constantly throughout the call. This condition is called:
A. bipolar disorder.
B. psychotic delirium.
C. excited psychosis.
D. excited or agitated delirium.
D. excited or agitated delirium.
Chapter 27
When a patient or bystander at the scene of an emergency displays fear, anger, or grief, this is best described as which of the following?
A. Neurosis
B. Post-traumatic stress disorder
C. Stress reaction
D. Catharsis
C. Stress reaction
Chapter 27
According to coworkers, your 25-year-old female patient suddenly began acting aggressively and being verbally abusive. She tells you she is “starving” and you notice that she is pale and diaphoretic. Which of the following would be an appropriate general impression?
A. Sudden onset of schizophrenia
B. An underlying physical illness
C. Alcoholic intoxication
D. Alcohol withdrawal
B. An underlying physical illness
Chapter 27
It is important that, as an EMS provider, you avoid creating a situation where positional asphyxia could occur. Which of the following is positional asphyxia?
A. Positional asphyxia is inadequate breathing or respiratory arrest caused by a body position that restricts breathing.
B. Positional asphyxia is a birth defect that causes psychiatric issues and is initiated because of the way the fetus was positioned in the uterus.
C. Positional asphyxia is the position the person is seated in when you approach him.
D. Positional asphyxia is the name for the position someone assumes after she has been hit with a taser.
A. Positional asphyxia is inadequate breathing or respiratory arrest caused by a body position that restricts breathing.
Chapter 28
What is one of the most common diseases to affect the renal and urinary system?
A. End-stage renal disease
B. Acute renal failure
C. Kidney stones
D. Urinary tract infections
D. Urinary tract infections
Chapter 28
What is the purpose of the red blood cells?
A. They are crucial in the formation of clots.
B. They are critical in response to infection and are mediators of the body’s immune response.
C. They are responsible for the removal of oxygen from the cells.
D. They are responsible for the delivery of oxygen to the cells.
D. They are responsible for the delivery of oxygen to the cells.
Chapter 28
Which of the following pathologies put patients at high risk for acute renal failure?
A. Shock
B. Polycystic kidney disease
C. Uncontrolled diabetes
D. Hypertension
A. Shock
Chapter 28
You are dispatched to a private residence for a sick person. When you arrive, you are told by the patient that due to the snow storm yesterday he missed his scheduled appointment at the dialysis center and is not feeling well. Your assessment does not reveal anything remarkable outside of the fact that he has missed his dialysis. Which of the steps below would not be part of your care?
A. Assess the ABCs.
B. Place the patient in a supine position.
C. When you obtain vital signs, obtain a blood pressure on an arm that does not have a fistula.
D. Administer oxygen at 15 lpm by nonrebreather mask.
B. Place the patient in a supine position.
Chapter 28
You encounter a patient who has been having diffuse abdominal pain for one week. The patient has a pulse rate of 86, a blood pressure of 140/90, and a respiratory rate of 20. However, the patient appears pale and complains of generalized weakness and shortness of breath during everyday activities. You suspect the patient is experiencing:
A. chronic anemia.
B. acute anemia.
C. sickle cell anemia.
D. anxiety disorder.
A. chronic anemia.
Chapter 28
The most frequently transplanted organ is the:
A. pancreas.
B. liver.
C. kidney.
D. heart.
C. kidney.
Chapter 28
Which of the following medications does not interfere with the blood-clotting process?
A. Aspirin
B. Acetaminophen
C. Clopidogrel
D. Warfarin
B. Acetaminophen
Chapter 28
Which of the following abbreviations is not correct?
A. RBC for red blood cells
B. SCA for sickle cell anemia
C. WBC for white blood cells
D. CAPD for continuous acute peripheral disease
D. CAPD for continuous acute peripheral disease
Chapter 28
The medications that transplant patients need to take for the rest of their lives to prevent organ rejection also often lead to high susceptibility of:
A. renal failure.
B. congestive heart failure.
C. infection.
D. ulcers.
C. infection.
Chapter 28
Approximately what percentage of United States dialysis patients treat themselves at home?
A. 16 percent
B. 50 percent
C. 25 percent
D. 8 percent
D. 8 percent
Chapter 28
Dialysis patients who have missed an appointment may present with signs of ________, which is a similar presentation to ________.
A. fluid accumulation; congestive heart failure
B. chest pain; acute myocardial infarction
C. neurological disturbances; stroke
D. shortness of breath; pneumonia
A. fluid accumulation; congestive heart failure
Chapter 28
You are dispatched to a sick call. The patient was just extricated from a bathtub where he was trapped under the shower door for 2 days. The 72-year-old male had limited access to water from the bathtub faucet. The patient is complaining of disorientation, nausea, and vomiting. What do you think is the underlying cause for the illness?
A. Gastrointestinal infection
B. End-stage renal disease
C. Chronic renal failure
D. Acute renal failure
D. Acute renal failure
Chapter 28
Under which of the following circumstances do the kidneys help the body retain fluid?
A. Urinary tract infection
B. Electrolyte imbalance
C. Kidney stones
D. Dehydration
D. Dehydration
Chapter 28
Because of abnormally shaped hemoglobin, sickle cell anemia (SCA) patients may occasionally experience ________, causing a blockage of small blood vessels.
A. aggregation
B. clotting
C. sludging
D. clumping
C. sludging
Chapter 28
One of the more serious diseases of the body is renal failure. Renal failure occurs when the:
A. kidneys fail to function as required.
B. liver fails to function properly.
C. adrenal glands stop working.
D. pancreas stops working.
A. kidneys fail to function as required.
Chapter 28
How frequently is peritoneal dialysis treatment required?
A. Once a day
B. Once a week
C. Three to five times per week
D. Multiple treatments per day
D. Multiple treatments per day
Chapter 28
Two chronic medical conditions that dialysis patients frequently have in addition to kidney failure are ________ and ________.
A. hypertension; diabetes
B. high cholesterol; cerebral aneurysms
C. heart failure; stroke
D. blood clots; COPD
A. hypertension; diabetes
Chapter 28
A patient with renal disease who is currently on dialysis and missed an appointment may present with dangerously high levels of the electrolyte:
A. sodium.
B. calcium.
C. phosphorous.
D. potassium.
D. potassium.
Chapter 28
What is continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis?
.
A. A gravity exchange process for peritoneal dialysis in which a bag of dialysis fluid is lowered below the level of an abdominal catheter to fill the abdominal cavity and raised above the level of the abdominal catheter to drain the fluid out
B. A type of dialysis that is performed while walking
C. A mechanical process for peritoneal dialysis in which a machine fills and empties the abdominal cavity of dialysis solution
D. A gravity exchange process for peritoneal dialysis in which a bag of dialysis fluid is raised above the level of an abdominal catheter to fill the abdominal cavity and lowered below the level of the abdominal catheter to drain the fluid out
D. A gravity exchange process for peritoneal dialysis in which a bag of dialysis fluid is raised above the level of an abdominal catheter to fill the abdominal cavity and lowered below the level of the abdominal catheter to drain the fluid out
Chapter 1
Which of the following is a personal trait an EMT should demonstrate?
A. Self-starter
B. Strong communication
C. Good eyesight
D. Strong student
A. Self-starter
Chapter 1
The application of oxygen for a patient who is short of breath without having to contact the physician in the emergency department because of existing protocols is an example of which of the following?
A. Standards of care
B. On-line medical direction
C. Breach of duty
D. Standing orders
D. Standing orders
Chapter 1
Upon arrival at the hospital, the EMT advises hospital personnel of the patient’s condition, observations from the scene, treatment rendered, and other pertinent data to assure continuity of care. This process is known as which of the following?
A. Definitive care
B. Breach of duty
C. Transfer of care
D. Patient advocacy
C. Transfer of care
Chapter 2
Which of the following is a physiologic effect of the stress triad as described by the physician Hans Selye?
A. Atrophy of the adrenal glands
B. Hypertrophy of the lymph nodes
C. Bleeding gastric ulcers
D. Amnesia for stressful events
C. Bleeding gastric ulcers
Chapter 2
Which of the following parts of the nervous system is responsible for the fight-or-flight response experienced in response to a stressor?
A. Peripheral nervous system
B. Parasympathetic nervous system
C. Sympathetic nervous system
D. Central nervous system
C. Sympathetic nervous system
Chapter 2
You are treating a patient who has a productive cough and who reports weight loss, loss of appetite, weakness, night sweats, and fever. Which of the following diseases is most likely the cause of these signs and symptoms?
A. AIDS
B. Pneumonia
C. Tuberculosis
D. Hepatitis B
C. Tuberculosis
Chapter 2
Which of the following terms is best defined as “a state of physical and/or psychological arousal to a stimulus”?
A. Homeostasis
B. Stress
C. Distress
D. Eustress
B. Stress
Chapter 2
You are approaching the scene of a motor vehicle crash. Which of the following would be the first way to safeguard your well-being as an EMT?
A. Request additional resources.
B. Take personal protective equipment (PPE) precautions.
C. Ensure scene safety.
D. Utilize DOT-approved reflective safety clothing.
C. Ensure scene safety.
Chapter 2
The body’s three-stage response to a stressful stimulation is known as general ________ syndrome.
A. resistance
B. incident
C. reaction
D. adaptation
D. adaptation
Chapter 2
Which hormone helps the body control stress, regulate metabolism, and influence an immune response?
A. Cortisol
B. Epinephrine
C. Immunoglobulin
D. Serotonin
A. Cortisol
Chapter 2
Which of the following behaviors would be considered a common sign of stress rather than an acute psychological problem?
A. Increased speeding and reckless driving
B. Flashbacks, nightmares, and feelings of detachment
C. Irritability with friends, family, and coworkers
D. Failure to use PPE appropriately on a regular basis
C. Irritability with friends, family, and coworkers
Chapter 3
Which of the following best describes body mechanics?
A. Equipment designed to minimize stress on the user’s body
B. Proper use of the body to facilitate lifting and moving objects
C. Proper use of the body to protect patient safety
D. Maintaining correct body posture to improve ergonomics
B. Proper use of the body to facilitate lifting and moving objects
Chapter 3
Which of the following should you use when you want to move a patient from a wheelchair to a stretcher?
A. Extremity lift
B. Modified direct lift
C. Clothing lift
D. Ground transfer
A. Extremity lift
Chapter 3
You are treating an unconscious patient who does not have a possibility of spinal injury and who is breathing adequately. Which of the following is the best position for transporting the patient?
A. Fowler position
B. Supine
C. Recovery position
D. Semi-Fowler position
C. Recovery position
Chapter 4
Which of the following refers to the set of regulations that defines the legal actions expected of and limitations placed on the EMT?
A. Protocols and standing orders
B. Scope of practice
C. Professional standards
D. Legal standards of practice
B. Scope of practice
Chapter 4
Which of the following is not required to prove a claim of negligence against an EMT?
A. The EMT had a duty to act.
B. The patient was in fear of bodily harm at the time of the incident.
C. Proximate causation existed.
D. The EMT failed to act according to the standard of care.
B. The patient was in fear of bodily harm at the time of the incident.
Chapter 4
The EMT’s obligation to provide care to a patient either as a formal or ethical responsibility is known as which of the following?
A. Standard of care
B. Scope of practice
C. Duty to act
D. Legal responsibility
C. Duty to act
Chapter 6
Which of the following types of blood vessels allow the exchange of substances directly between the blood and the cells of the body?
A. Capillaries
B. Arterioles
C. Veins
D. Alveoli
A. Capillaries
Chapter 6
What is not one of the primary organs for the female reproductive system?
A. Urethra
B. Ovaries
C. Uterus
D. Vagina
A. Urethra
Chapter 6
Which of the following structures closes over the trachea to protect it during swallowing?
A. Pharynx
B. Diaphragm
C. Epiglottis
D. Cricoid cartilage
C. Epiglottis
Chapter 7
Stroke volume depends on a series of factors: one is the force the myocardial muscle exerts to move the blood. This is known as:
A. contractility.
B. preload.
C. afterload.
D. automaticity
A. contractility.
Chapter 7
The sympathetic nervous response causes which of the following to occur?
A. Breathing becomes faster and deeper, blood vessels constrict, heart beats stronger and faster, skins sweats, pupils constrict, and skin becomes warm.
B. Breathing becomes faster and deeper, blood vessels dilate, heart beats stronger and slower, skin sweats, pupils dilate, and skin becomes pale.
C. Breathing becomes slower and deeper, blood vessels dilate, heart beats stronger and faster, skin sweats, pupils constrict, and skin becomes pale.
D. Breathing becomes faster and deeper, blood vessels constrict, heart beats stronger and faster, skin sweats, pupils dilate, and skin becomes pale.
D. Breathing becomes faster and deeper, blood vessels constrict, heart beats stronger and faster, skin sweats, pupils dilate, and skin becomes pale.
Chapter 7
When the body’s water moves from the bloodstream into the interstitial space, this can often be seen as:
A. hypovolemia.
B. hydrostatic pressure.
C. edema.
D. dehydration.
C. edema.
Chapter 7
Your patient is an 86-year-old male with congestive heart failure. He called for help tonight because he cannot breathe and feels like he is “drowning in his own lungs.” The patient has had several heart attacks in the past and he tells you his “heart is shot.” What is not a likely reason the patient’s cardiac output is diminished?
A. The heart’s force of contraction is reduced (contractility diminished).
B. Less blood fills his heart with each contraction (preload diminished).
C. The pressure in the system against which the heart must pump is increased (afterload increased).
D. Chemoreceptors are signaling that he has high levels of carbon dioxide in his bloodstream.
D. Chemoreceptors are signaling that he has high levels of carbon dioxide in his bloodstream.
Chapter 7
A 12-year-old female patient is having an asthma attack after participating in some strenuous activity during recess at school. She’s taken several doses of her own bronchodilator with little relief. Your partner immediately administers oxygen. Providing supplemental oxygen will increase the amount of oxygen molecules carried by the ________ in her blood, helping oxygenate critical organs like the brain.
A. white blood cells
B. plasma
C. albumin
D. hemoglobin
D. hemoglobin
Chapter 7
The cellular structure that is responsible for synthesizing proteins is the:
A. nucleus.
B. mitochondria.
C. endoplasmic reticulum.
D. sodium pump.
C. endoplasmic reticulum.
Chapter 7
The balance between oncotic pressure and hydrostatic pressure is critical to regulating:
A. oxygenation and perfusion.
B. waste removal and urine.
C. blood pressure and cell hydration.
D. perfusion and proper circulation to the tissues.
C. blood pressure and cell hydration.
Chapter 7
Which of the following is not an indicator that a patient’s nervous system has been impaired?
A. Pale, sweaty skin
B. Changes in pupil dilation
C. Hearing disturbances
D. General weakness
A. Pale, sweaty skin
Chapter 7
The potential space between the lung and chest wall is called the:
A. dead space.
B. pleural space.
C. carina space.
D. lung space.
B. pleural space.
Chapter 8
When you startle a 4-month-old, he throws his arms out, spreads his fingers, then grabs with his fingers and arms. The reaction is known as the:
A. rooting reflex.
B. scaffolding reflex.
C. startle reflex.
D. Moro reflex.
D. Moro reflex.
Chapter 8
Patients in late adulthood are likely to face which of the following challenges?
A. Tax burden
B. Self-worth
C. Hygiene
D. All of the above
B. Self-worth
Chapter 8
Which of the following would be a normal set of vitals for a 4-year-old male patient?
A. Heart rate 110/minute, respiratory rate 24/minute, and systolic blood pressure of 98 mmHg
B. Heart rate 60/minute, respiratory rate 24/minute, and systolic blood pressure of 96 mmHg
C. Heart rate 140/minute, respiratory rate 30/minute, and systolic blood pressure of 60 mmHg
D. Heart rate 100/minute, respiratory rate 44/minute, and systolic blood pressure of 100 mmHg
A. Heart rate 110/minute, respiratory rate 24/minute, and systolic blood pressure of 98 mmHg
Chapter 10
Which of the following is necessary to deliver oxygen to patients at a safe pressure?
A. Flowmeter
B. Filter
C. Regulator
D. Float ball
C. Regulator
Chapter 10
The movement of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the alveoli and circulating blood is called:
A. pulmonary respiration.
B. diffusion.
C. internal respiration.
D. cellular respiration.
A. pulmonary respiration.
Chapter 10
Why does a patient involved in an auto crash who has major internal abdominal bleeding require oxygen to maintain internal respiration?
A. The swelling of the abdominal space causes the diaphragm to be restricted, which will reduce the thorax space.
B. A lack of circulating volume decreases the oxygen and carbon dioxide transport capability of the blood.
C. A lack of oxygen in the air decreases the oxygen diffused into the bloodstream, which creates an increase of carbon dioxide.
D. The remaining red blood cells have a reduction of hemoglobin that reduces the amount of oxygen that can be transported.
B. A lack of circulating volume decreases the oxygen and carbon dioxide transport capability of the blood.
Chapter 10
You are aggressively ventilating an adult patient with a bag-valve mask when you notice that his previously strong pulse is getting weaker. You should:
A. increase the concentration of oxygen.
B. reduce the concentration of oxygen.
C. begin chest compressions.
D. reduce the volume of the ventilations.
D. reduce the volume of the ventilations.
Chapter 10
While ventilating an intubated patient with a bag-valve-mask-unit, you notice increased resistance to the ventilations. This may indicate that:
A. air is escaping through a hole in the lung and filling the pleural space.
B. the gag reflex is returning.
C. cardiac arrest is imminent.
D. the patient is becoming more alert and is breathing independently.
A. air is escaping through a hole in the lung and filling the pleural space.
Chapter 10
Which of the following oxygen cylinders would normally run out after 50 minutes when flowing at 10 liters per minute? Assume a pressure of 2,000 psi displayed on the pressure gauge.
A. M cylinder
B. E cylinder
C. G cylinder
D. D cylinder
B. E cylinder
Chapter 11
You should have a keen awareness that there may be injuries based on your scene size-up. This is known as which of the following?
A. Nature of illness
B. Index of suspicion
C. Mechanism of injury
D. Law of inertia
B. Index of suspicion
Chapter 12
In the primary assessment, which of the following is not an acceptable method of assessing the patient’s circulatory status?
A. Assessing the patient’s skin color
B. Looking for serious bleeding
C. Taking a blood pressure reading
D. Checking a radial pulse
C. Taking a blood pressure reading
Chapter 13
What category would include a patient with a blood pressure of 134/84 mmHg?
A. Hypotension
B. Hypertension
C. Prehypertension
D. Normotension
C. Prehypertension
Chapter 13
You respond to a childcare center for a report of an injured 4-year-old. Her pulse is 130 beats per minute. Which of the following best describes this finding?
A. Normal for the child’s age
B. Tachycardic
C. Bradycardic
D. Unable to determine without knowing the family history
B. Tachycardic
Chapter 13
Which of the following best describes the proper placement of the blood pressure cuff?
A. One inch below the armpit
B. Covering two-thirds of the upper arm
C. Midway between the elbow and shoulder
D. Covering the patient’s elbow
B. Covering two-thirds of the upper arm
Chapter 15
In which of the following patients should you check for the possibility of spinal injury?
A. A responsive patient with no history of injury who is complaining of a headache and neck pain
B. An unresponsive patient found in her bed with no obvious injury
C. An unresponsive diabetic who appears to have fallen down
D. All of the above
C. An unresponsive diabetic who appears to have fallen down
Chapter 15
Immediately following a rapid physical exam on an unresponsive medical patient, which of the following should you do next?
A. Obtain baseline vital signs.
B. Find out who the patient’s doctor is.
C. Perform a focused physical exam.
D. Check the scene for medications.
A. Obtain baseline vital signs.
Chapter 15
Your patient was struck in the chest with a baseball bat during a bar fight. A crackling or crunching sensation that is felt when air escapes from its normal passageways and is trapped under the skin is called:
A. subcutaneous emphysema.
B. tension pneumothorax.
C. distention.
D. crepitation.
A. subcutaneous emphysema.
Chapter 15
You are called for a patient who was discovered unconscious in his bed this morning. You immediately complete a primary assessment and determine that he is breathing and has a good pulse. What should you do next?
A. Complete a rapid physical exam.
B. Try to locate all of his medications.
C. Ask the family what happened.
D. Begin transport immediately.
A. Complete a rapid physical exam.
Chapter 15
Your patient is an unresponsive 40-year-old woman. Which of the following should you do first?
A. Ask her husband if she has any known allergies.
B. Perform a rapid physical exam.
C. Take her blood pressure.
D. Immediately request advanced life support.
B. Perform a rapid physical exam.
Chapter 15
Your patient has been hit in the arm with a baseball during practice. He is alert and oriented, complaining of pain to his left arm with obvious black discoloration of the skin. What type of assessment is called for in this situation?
A. Detailed physical exam
B. Rapid trauma exam
C. Focused exam
D. Area exam
C. Focused exam
Chapter 15
Your patient is the 18-year-old male driver of a vehicle that struck a tree. He is conscious and complaining of neck pain. The passenger is obviously dead. You have performed your primary assessment. Which of the following is the next step?
A. Immobilize the patient on a long backboard and perform a detailed examination in the ambulance.
B. Rule out the possibility of cervical spine injury before moving the patient.
C. Perform a tertiary assessment.
D. Perform a rapid trauma assessment.
D. Perform a rapid trauma assessment.
Chapter 17
Which of the following is not appropriate to document on your patient care report?
A. Patient’s mental status
B. Patient’s attitude
C. Patient’s race
D. All should be documented
D. All should be documented
Chapter 17
Which of the following is not an objective element of documented patient information?
A. Patient’s blood pressure
B. Patient’s complaint of nausea
C. Patient’s age
D. Position in which the patient was found
B. Patient’s complaint of nausea
Chapter 19
Which of the following signs of inadequate breathing is more prominent in children than in adults?
A. Grunting respirations
B. Seesawing of the chest and abdomen
C. Nasal flaring
D. All of the above
D. All of the above
Chapter 20
You respond to the scene of a 56-year-old obese female complaining of respiratory distress. She states that she has been feeling weak and a “little sick” for the past two days, but the respiratory distress has been getting progressively worse for the past several hours. She states she has “heart problems,” suffers from high blood pressure, and takes a “water pill.” She is afebrile and has coarse crackles bilaterally. What is most likely the cause of her respiratory distress?
A. Aortic aneurysm
B. Congestive heart failure
C. Acute myocardial infarction
D. Dysrhythmia
B. Congestive heart failure
Chapter 20
Which of the following is a condition that can result from fatty deposits forming in the inner lining of the arteries?
A. Coronary thrombosis
B. Aneurysm
C. Coronary artery disease
D. Arteriosclerosis
C. Coronary artery disease
Chapter 20
What stimulates a mechanical contraction of the cells of the heart, creating a mechanical squeeze used to push blood?
A. Left and right atria
B. Electrical energy
C. Left ventricle
D. Right ventricle
B. Electrical energy
Chapter 20
Which of the following is the beneficial action of a beta blocker medication?
A. Causes vasoconstriction, increasing the blood pressure
B. Slows the heart rate
C. Increases the strength of myocardial contraction
D. Increases the amount of oxygen needed by the myocardium
B. Slows the heart rate
Chapter 20
What is not a result of a mechanical malfunction of the heart?
A. Cardiogenic shock
B. Dysrhythmia
C. Cardiac arrest
D. Pulmonary edema
B. Dysrhythmia
Chapter 21
Your patient is a 66-year-old female who has regained a pulse after a shock with an AED; however, she remains unresponsive and is not breathing adequately. Which of the following should be done next?
A. Ventilate the patient with high-concentration oxygen and transport immediately.
B. Remove the AED, assist the patient’s ventilations with a bag-valve mask and supplemental oxygen, and keep reassessing the pulse.
C. Apply a nonrebreather mask with high-concentration oxygen and keep reassessing the pulse.
D. Deliver a fourth shock to improve the patient’s respiratory status.
A. Ventilate the patient with high-concentration oxygen and transport immediately.
Chapter 22
Your patient is a 25-year-old female with a history of diabetes. She is confused, agitated, and verbally abusive to you, and she is very sweaty. Although she refuses to give a history of the present illness, which of the following should you suspect as the likely cause of the patient’s presentation?
A. Excessive intake of foods high in sugar, such as soda or candy
B. Failure to take her insulin
C. Failure to intake sufficient sugar
D. A nondiabetic-related problem, such as a head injury or mental illness
C. Failure to intake sufficient sugar
Chapter 22
For the reticular activating system (RAS) to work correctly, what three substances are needed?
A. Oxygen to perfuse brain tissue, insulin to nourish brain tissue, and water to keep the brain hydrated
B. Oxygen to perfuse brain tissue, glucose to nourish brain tissue, and sodium to keep the brain hydrated
C. Oxygen to perfuse brain tissue, insulin to nourish brain tissue, and sodium to keep the brain hydrated
D. Oxygen to perfuse brain tissue, glucose to nourish brain tissue, and water to keep the brain hydrated
D. Oxygen to perfuse brain tissue, glucose to nourish brain tissue, and water to keep the brain hydrated
Chapter 22
Looking at the following list, which of the items does NOT correctly compare the signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia?
A. The hyperglycemic patient often has acetone breath, whereas the hypoglycemic patient does not.
B. The hypoglycemic patient usually complains of a headache, whereas the hyperglycemic patient does not.
C. Hyperglycemia usually has a slower onset than hypoglycemia.
D. Hyperglycemic patients often have warm, red, dry skin, whereas hypoglycemic patients have cold, pale, moist, or clammy skin.
B. The hypoglycemic patient usually complains of a headache, whereas the hyperglycemic patient does not.
Chapter 22
The most common medical emergency for the diabetic is hypoglycemia, or low blood sugar. Which of the factors below is NOT a cause of hypoglycemia?
A. Takes too much insulin
B. Vomits a meal
C. Reduces sugar intake by eating too much
D. Over-exercises or over-exerts himself
C. Reduces sugar intake by eating too much
Chapter 22
Which of the following conditions may be mimicked by hypoglycemia?
A. Intoxication
B. Heart attack
C. Respiratory distress
D. All of the above
A. Intoxication
Chapter 22
You have arrived on the scene of a call for a possible stroke. On your arrival, the patient denies signs and symptoms, is alert and oriented, and moves all extremities well. Her husband states that before you arrived the patient could not move her right arm and the left side of her face seemed to be “slack.” Which of the following has most likely occurred?
A. The patient suffered a stroke.
B. The patient is suffering from aphasia.
C. The patient has had a subarachnoid hemorrhage.
D. The patient suffered a transient ischemic attack.
D. The patient suffered a transient ischemic attack.
Chapter 22
Compared to hypoglycemia, which of the following is TRUE of hyperglycemia?
A. It is more easily treated in the prehospital environment than hypoglycemia.
B. Its onset is more gradual.
C. Its onset is more sudden.
D. Its onset is preceded by an aura, such as hallucinations or detecting unusual odors.
B. Its onset is more gradual.
Chapter 22
Which of the following BEST describes status epilepticus?
A. A seizure that occurs without a known cause
B. A seizure involving convulsions on only one side of the body
C. A period of drowsiness following tonic-clonic seizures
D. Two or more seizures with tonic-clonic activity without an intervening period of consciousness
D. Two or more seizures with tonic-clonic activity without an intervening period of consciousness
Chapter 22
Which of the following statements about seizures is NOT true?
A. The most common seizure that EMTs are likely to be called on is a tonic-clonic seizure.
B. Many seizures are followed by an aura.
C. A partial seizure affects one part, or one side, of the brain.
D. A generalized seizure affects the entire brain.
B. Many seizures are followed by an aura.
Chapter 23
You are unsure whether a patient’s condition requires the administration of an epinephrine auto-injector. Which of the following actions is most appropriate?
A. Administer the epinephrine, just in case.
B. Ask a family member if this is the type of situation when the patient usually takes his auto-injector.
C. Consult with a paramedic on your service for advice.
D. None of the above
D. None of the above
Chapter 23
You are called to a farmhouse on a sunny spring afternoon. Upon arrival, a frantic mother tells you that her 3-year-old daughter was playing in the yard, accidentally stepped on a hornets’ nest, and was stung repeatedly. The patient is alert, screaming and crying, and can follow her mother’s commands. Her arms and legs are swollen and show the marks of several stings. Her body is covered in hives. Her vital signs are blood pressure 90/40, pulse 110, respiratory rate 24, and oxygen saturation 99 percent. Her lung sounds are clear and equal bilaterally. Her mother states she put “nox-a-sting” on the bites but the bites only seemed to get worse. What condition is the patient suffering from?
A. Allergic reaction from the hornets’ stings
B. Anaphylactic reaction from the “nox-a-sting” swabs
C. Moderate anaphylactic reaction
D. Minor anaphylactic reaction
A. Allergic reaction from the hornets’ stings
Chapter 23
A 35-year-old female has just eaten lobster and is now complaining of itchy, watery eyes. Her blood pressure is beginning to fall, but she denies difficulty breathing. Which of the following best describes her condition?
A. Shock
B. Anaphylaxis
C. Dyspnea
D. Mild allergy
B. Anaphylaxis
Chapter 23
Which of the following is included in the primary assessment of a conscious patient suffering from anaphylactic shock?
A. Determining whether the patient’s systolic blood pressure is over 100 mmHg
B. Looking for hives and swelling
C. Assessing whether the patient is able to speak without difficulty
D. Finding out how the patient was exposed to the substance to which she is allergic
C. Assessing whether the patient is able to speak without difficulty
Chapter 23
You are on the scene of a motor vehicle collision in which a car has driven off the roadway and is resting at the bottom of an embankment. The driver is in severe respiratory distress and is unable to speak. His skin is flushed and he has hives. A Medic-Alert bracelet indicates an allergy to peanuts. You notice a candy bar wrapper on the floor of the car. Which of the following should you do first?
A. Read the candy wrapper to see if it contains peanuts.
B. Administer high-concentration oxygen.
C. Perform rapid extrication.
D. Search the patient for an epinephrine auto-injector.
B. Administer high-concentration oxygen.
Chapter 36
During which stage of labor is the baby born?
A. First
B. Second
C. Third
D. Primary
B. Second
Chapter 36
You are assessing a pregnant woman whose chief complaint is vaginal bleeding. She is 8 months pregnant and has moderate, bright red bleeding with no abdominal pain. She says that her doctor was concerned about the location of the placenta. This condition is known as:
A. abruptio placentae.
B. placenta disruption.
C. unstable placenta.
D. placenta previa.
D. placenta previa.
Chapter 36
Normal maternal blood loss during delivery of an infant usually does not exceed how much?
500 cc
Chapter 36
Which of the following is the highest priority for the EMT when delivering an infant with meconium-stained amniotic fluid?
A. Vigorously rubbing the infant’s back immediately upon delivery to stimulate breathing
B. Checking for fever
C. Being prepared to suction the infant immediately before he takes a breath
D. None of the above
C. Being prepared to suction the infant immediately before he takes a breath
Chapter 36
You are assessing a newborn patient 1 minute after delivery. You notice the patient has blue extremities with a pink trunk, a pulse of 120, and strong crying with good movement of all extremities. What is the newborn’s APGAR score?
A. 8
B. 9
C. 7
D. 10
B. 9
Chapter 36
By which of the following means does the fetal blood pick up nourishment from the mother?
A. Osmosis
B. Diffusion
C. Indirect circulation
D. Direct circulation
B. Diffusion
Chapter 36
Which of the following is true concerning trauma in the pregnant woman?
A. She may lose up to 15 percent of her blood volume before exhibiting signs of shock.
B. She may lose up to 35 percent of her blood volume before exhibiting signs of shock.
C. The mother’s body will preferentially protect the life of the fetus over that of the mother.
D. The increase in blood volume during pregnancy makes shock an unlikely cause of death.
B. She may lose up to 35 percent of her blood volume before exhibiting signs of shock.
Chapter 36
Which of the following is true regarding ectopic pregnancies?
A. It usually occurs during the second trimester.
B. The fallopian tubes cannot stretch to accommodate a fetus.
C. The fertilized egg usually implants in the wall of the uterus.
D. It may cause painless bright red bleeding.
B. The fallopian tubes cannot stretch to accommodate a fetus.
Chapter 36
Which of the following is a common sign of a pre-delivery emergency?
A. A sensation of lightening as the baby drops into the birth canal.
B. The amniotic sac ruptures.
C. There is profuse vaginal bleeding.
D. Contractions become more intense and closer together.
C. There is profuse vaginal bleeding.
Chapter 36
Which of the following is of greatest concern for the EMT in the prehospital care of a woman with vaginal bleeding?
A. Finding out if the patient is currently sexually active
B. Obtaining a thorough gynecological history
C. Monitoring for hypovolemic shock
D. Preventing infection
. Monitoring for hypovolemic shock
Chapter 36
Which of the following describes a breech presentation?
A. The infant presents buttocks first.
B. The infant presents with both feet first.
C. The infant presents face first.
D. Both A and B
D. Both A and B
Chapter 36
Which of the following best describes placenta previa?
A. The placenta prematurely separates from the uterine wall.
B. The umbilical cord is the presenting part.
C. The placenta is implanted over the opening of the cervix.
D. The pregnancy is lost before the 20th week of gestation.
C. The placenta is implanted over the opening of the cervix.
Chapter 37
Obesity is defined as a body mass index greater than:
A. 35
B. 40
C. 25
D. 30
D. 30
Chapter 37
Which of the following is the best course of action for the EMT to take when caring for a patient with an AICD who goes into cardiac arrest?
A. No action beyond transport is required because the patient already has an implanted defibrillator.
B. The AED should be applied and used, but CPR should not be started while on-scene or transporting the patient.
C. CPR should be started, but the AED should not be used while on-scene or transporting the patient.
D. CPR and an AED should be used as indicated while on-scene and transporting the patient.
D. CPR and an AED should be used as indicated while on-scene and transporting the patient.
Chapter 37
You are transporting a resident of a nursing home to the hospital for a complaint of abdominal pain that has lasted for 3 days. During your assessment, you note a tube protruding from the patient’s nose, which is connected to a bag of milky-white fluid. This tube is known as a(n):
A. nasogastric tube.
B. endotracheal tube.
C. gastric tube.
D. J-tube
A. nasogastric tube.
Chapter 37
Where are automatic implanted cardiac defibrillators typically placed in patients who require one?
A. In the lower left chest
B. In the upper right chest
C. In the upper left chest
D. In the lower right chest
C. In the upper left chest
Chapter 37
How does the pain felt by a patient when receiving a shock from a pacemaker compare to the pain felt when receiving a shock from an automatic implanted cardiac defibrillator (AICD)?
A. Pacemakers are painless and AICDs are painful.
B. Both are painful.
C. Pacemakers are painful and AICDs are painless.
D. Both are painless.
A. Pacemakers are painless and AICDs are painful.
Chapter 26
You are called to the scene of a patient with abdominal pain. Upon arrival, you find a 38-year-old Asian man on the floor next to his desk writhing in pain. He is complaining of severe right-sided flank pain. His blood pressure is 140/90, pulse 100, and his skin is ashen and diaphoretic. You suspect:
A. mid-cycle pain.
B. cholecystitis.
C. renal colic.
D. myocardial infarction.
C. renal colic (R for RIGHT)
Chapter 26
Which of the following is true concerning parietal pain?
A. It is generally localized to a particular area.
B. It is usually intermittent in nature.
C. It is often described as “crampy” or “colicky.”
D. It arises from solid organs.
A. It is generally localized to a particular area.
Chapter 26
Which of the following is a characteristic of referred pain?
A. It is only felt in hollow organs.
B. It is caused by psychological stress.
C. It is usually described as “crampy” or “colicky.”
D. It is felt in a location other than the organ causing it.
D. It is felt in a location other than the organ causing it.
Chapter 26
When the gallbladder is diseased, the pain is not only felt in the right upper quadrant (RUQ) but also in the right shoulder. This is known as:
A. visceral pain.
B. parietal pain.
C. tearing pain.
D. referred pain
D. referred pain
Chapter 26
The detection of a bulging mass through the belly button that is not pulsating should make the EMT suspicious that the patient may be suffering from which of the following?
A. Gastroenteritis
B. Abdominal aortic aneurysm
C. Ulcer
D. Hernia
D. Hernia
Chapter 26
Pain that the patient feels in a body part or area of the body that has nothing to do with a diseased organ is termed:
A. retroperitoneal pain.
B. abdominal pain.
C. referred pain.
D. epigastric pain.
C. referred pain.
Chapter 26
Which of the following organs is located in the retroperitoneal space?
A. Uterus
B. Liver
C. Kidneys
D. Stomach
C. Kidneys
Chapter 26
You respond to the scene of a 50-year-old male complaining of severe abdominal pain. He has a history of alcohol and drug abuse. His vital signs are stable and he presents with epigastric pain that radiates to the back. He has guarding and point tenderness in the upper quadrants. You suspect:
A. pancreatitis.
B. gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD).
C. cholecystitis.
D. myocardial infarction.
A. pancreatitis.
Chapter 27
When providing emergency care to an aggressive or hostile patient, what is the highest priority?
A. Finding out if the patient is oriented to person, time, and place
B. Checking the patient for possible physical causes of the behavior
C. Performing a scene size-up
D. Calming the patient down
C. Performing a scene size-up
Chapter 27
You are confronted with a patient experiencing personality changes ranging from irritability to irrational behavior, altered mental status, amnesia or confusion, irregular respirations, elevated blood pressure, and decreasing pulse. It appears to be a psychiatric emergency. What else could cause this behavior?
A. Lack of oxygen
B. Head injury
C. Low blood sugar
D. Stroke
B. Head injury
Chapter 27
Which of the following factors suggest that a patient is at risk for suicide?
A. Sudden improvement in depression
B. Alcohol and drug abuse
C. Recent emotional trauma
D. All of the above
D. All of the above
Chapter 28
The kidney’s major function(s) include(s):
A. balancing electrolytes.
B. excreting urea.
C. maintaining blood volume.
D. All of the above
D. All of the above
Chapter 28
A patient with renal disease who is currently on dialysis and missed an appointment may present with dangerously high levels of the electrolyte
A. phosphorous.
B. calcium.
C. sodium.
D. potassium.
D. potassium.
Chapter 28
Peritoneal dialysis allows patients to dialyze at home through:
A. a dialysis machine.
B. the urethra.
C. the abdomen.
D. an AV fistula.
C. the abdomen.
Chapter 28
Patients with a history of chronic sickle cell anemia (SCA) may present with which of the following signs and symptoms?
A. Bluish discoloration of the skin and shortness of breath
B. Yellowing of the skin and dyspnea on exertion
C. Pale appearance and dyspnea on exertion
D. Flushed appearance and shortness of breath
B. Yellowing of the skin and dyspnea on exertion
Chapter 27
You are attending to an end-stage renal disease (ESRD) patient who has missed dialysis. Which of the following statements is most accurate?
A. Patients who have missed dialysis and who become unresponsive and pulseless respond very well to the use of an AED.
B. Calling for ALS would not be very helpful because they cannot really do anything that an EMT cannot do in these situations.
C. Patients who have missed dialysis and who become unresponsive and pulseless do not respond very well to the use of an AED.
D. You should delay transport if necessary to wait for ALS.
C. Patients who have missed dialysis and who become unresponsive and pulseless do not respond very well to the use of an AED.
Chapter 28
Once you encounter uncontrolled bleeding from an AV fistula, which of the following methods would you consider using to control bleeding in addition to direct pressure and elevation?
A. Pressure points
B. Hemostatic dressings
C. Tourniquet
D. Internal wound management
B. Hemostatic dressings
Chapter 28
One of the more serious diseases of the body is renal failure. Renal failure occurs when the:
A. liver fails to function properly.
B. adrenal glands stop working.
C. pancreas stops working.
D. kidneys fail to function as required.
D. kidneys fail to function as required.
Chapter 28
Certain drugs are commonly referred as “blood thinners” or drugs that inhibit clotting. Which of the following would not be considered such a drug?
A. Lovenox (enoxaparin)
B. Coumadin (warfarin)
C. Prilosec
D. Aspirin
C. Prilosec
Chapter 28
What is the purpose of the red blood cells?
A. They are critical in response to infection and are mediators of the body’s immune response.
B. They are crucial in the formation of clots.
C. They are responsible for the removal of oxygen from the cells.
D. They are responsible for the delivery of oxygen to the cells.
D. They are responsible for the delivery of oxygen to the cells.
Chapter 28
Which of the following pathologies put patients at high risk for acute renal failure?
A. Shock
B. Uncontrolled diabetes
C. Polycystic kidney disease
D. Hypertension
A. Shock
Chapter 28
You suspect a patient who has been having a difficult time controlling the bleeding following a small laceration to the foot may have a history of:
A. sickle cell anemia.
B. high blood pressure.
C. taking blood thinners.
D. poorly controlled diabetes.
C. taking blood thinners.
Chapter 28
A patient with a medical history of sickle cell anemia is complaining of chest pain and shortness of breath. The patient is breathing 26 times per minute in short, shallow respirations. However, the patient’s oxygen saturation via pulse oximetry is 100% on room air. The best approach regarding supplemental oxygen is to:
A. place the patient on a nonrebreather mask.
B. place the patient on a nasal cannula.
C. place the patient on a simple face mask.
D. do nothing; no supplemental oxygen is necessary.
A. place the patient on a nonrebreather mask.
Chapter 28
You are dispatched to an unconscious hemodialysis patient. On arrival to the dialysis clinic, the patient is unresponsive, apneic, and pulseless. You secure the ABCs, begin ventilation, and initiate chest compressions. However, the patient’s cardiac arrest rhythm is continuously unresponsive to defibrillations with your AED. The best approach is to:
A. run a “no-electricity” code in which compressions and ventilation are continued. No additional defibrillations are necessary.
B. call online medical control to terminate the code. The probability of survival is too low to continue resuscitation efforts.
C. continue defibrillating as the monitor recommends. The myocardium becomes increasingly responsive to successive defibrillations.
D. begin transporting and contact an ALS intercept. The patient’s dysrhythmia may be related to kidney failure.
D. begin transporting and contact an ALS intercept. The patient’s dysrhythmia may be related to kidney failure.
Chapter 28
You are dispatched to a sick call. The patient was just extricated from a bathtub where he was trapped under the shower door for 2 days. The 72-year-old male had limited access to water from the bathtub faucet. The patient is complaining of disorientation, nausea, and vomiting. What do you think is the underlying cause for the illness?
A. Chronic renal failure
B. Gastrointestinal infection
C. End-stage renal disease
D. Acute renal failure
D. Acute renal failure
Chapter 1
A written authorization for an ems provider to perform a particular skill in a specific situation is a:
Standing order
Chapter 1
Primary responsibility of the EMT:
Maintain personal health and safety
Chapter 1
EMT role in the quality improvement is:
Maintaining equipment
Chapter 1
What is a physical trait necessary for performing the duties of an EMT:
Ability to speak clearly
Chapter 1
Most common gateway for hospital services for patients:
Emergency department
Chapter 2
Which one of these groups is at greatest risk of contracting and transmitting tuberculosis?
A. Current and former smokers
B. Uranium mine workers
C. Healthcare practitioners
D. Immunosuppressed patients
D. Immunosuppressed patients
Chapter 2
One’s “cognitive ability” refers to his or her ability to do which of the following?
A. Think and solve problems
B. Use fine motor skills
C. Adapt to stress
D. Control his or her emotions
A. Think and solve problems
Chapter 3
Chapter 3
Which of the following best describes an urgent move?
A. Pulling a patient by her feet across a parking lot
B. Using a sheet to move a patient from a bed to the stretcher
C. Moving a patient from a car directly to a long spine board
D. Dragging a patient from a burning house using his shirt
C. Moving a patient from a car directly to a long spine board
Chapter 3
Which of the following is another name for the squat-lift position?
A. Direct carry
B. Power lift
C. Power grip
D. Weight-lifter technique
B. Power lift
Chapter 3
What is the contraindication for the use of a scoop or orthopedic stretcher?
A. Hip fracture
B. Spinal injury
C. Pelvic injury
D. Internal injuries
B. Spinal injury
Chapter 4
You respond to the report of an unconscious female patient. You can acquire important medical information about the patient through which of the following?
A. Medical identification device
B. On-call Medical Director
C. Driver’s license
D. Medical history identifier
A. Medical identification device
Chapter 4
While documenting a call, you add a false statement that was made about a local doctor. This could constitute which of the following?
A. Degradation of character
B. Libel
C. Slander
D. HIPAA violation
B. Libel
Chapter 6
Which of the following structures receives deoxygenated blood from the body via the venae cavae?
A. Right atrium
B. Left atrium
C. Left ventricle
D. Right ventricle
A. Right atrium
Chapter 6
What vessel carries deoxygenated blood to the lungs?
A. Pulmonary veins
B. Venae cavae
C. Aorta
D. Pulmonary artery
D. Pulmonary artery
Chapter 6
What is the strongest and most muscular part of the heart?
A. Right ventricle
B. Left atrium
C. Right atrium
D. Left ventricle
D. Left ventricle
Chapter 6
our patient is an 84-year-old male with difficulty breathing and peripheral edema. He tells you he has been suffering for many years with “heart failure,” and his condition is worsening, especially with trouble breathing at night. Your knowledge of cardiovascular physiology suggests that his condition could have resulted from the failure of either the right or left side of his heart. Which chamber of the heart is the strongest, most muscular part of the heart and is primarily responsible for pumping oxygenated blood to the rest of the body?
A. Right atrium
B. Left ventricle
C. Right ventricle
D. Left atrium
B. Left ventricle
Chapter 6
What is the long bone of the upper portion of the arm?
A. Radius
B. Ulna
C. Humerus
D. Scapula
C. Humerus
Chapter 6
You have been dispatched to a local shopping mall where a 63-year-old female patient has slipped and fallen in a department store. Upon your arrival, you find her supine on the ground, conscious and oriented with stable vital signs, complaining of severe pain in the upper portion of her left leg and hip. Her left leg is slightly shortened and rotated outward. The bone most commonly fractured with a “broken hip” is the:
A. tibia.
B. fibula.
C. femur.
D. ilium.
C. femur.
Chapter 6
What causes the “seesaw” breathing pattern of young children?
A. They rely more on the diaphragm during breathing difficulty.
B. The cricoid cartilage and trachea are both more flexible than in adults, making breathing more difficult.
C. The size of their tongues in proportion to their mouths is larger than an adult’s.
D. Young children have a pronounced inward curvature at the bottom of the ribcage.
A. They rely more on the diaphragm during breathing difficulty.
Chapter 6
What condition of immediate concern results from a loss of red blood cells due to hemorrhage?
A. Decreased oxygen delivery to the tissues
B. Decrease in pulse rate
C. Decreased ability to fight infection
D. Decreased production of carbon dioxide
A. Decreased oxygen delivery to the tissues
Ch 7
What is the best description of the chest’s mechanical functions?
A. The chest is a closed space, and the pleural space surrounds the lungs; when the diaphragm contracts and the intercostal muscles expand, the chest and lungs move outward and downward, allowing expiration and gas exchange in the lungs.
B. The diaphragm contracts, causing the intercostal muscles that are attached to the lungs to also contract, which moves the air into the lungs.
C. The chest is a closed space with only one opening; the trachea, to inspire air; the diaphragm contracts down and the intercostal muscles expand the ribs, causing a negative pressure that fills the lungs with air.
D. With the chest being an airtight space, the act of breathing occurs when the the diaphragm and intercostal muscles relax, which causes the lungs to expand and air to flow into the lungs.
C. The chest is a closed space with only one opening; the trachea, to inspire air; the diaphragm contracts down and the intercostal muscles expand the ribs, causing a negative pressure that fills the lungs with air.
Ch 7
In the normal drive to breathe, chemoreceptors are stimulated by:
A. high carbon dioxide.
B. high oxygen.
C. low carbon dioxide.
D. diffusion.
A. high carbon dioxide.
Ch7
In Type 1 diabetes, which gland does not secret enough of the hormone insulin?
A. Adrenal glands
B. Pancreas
C. Thyroid
D. Pituitary
B. Pancreas
Ch 7
Which of the following best defines adenosine triphosphate (ATP)?
A. It is the form of energy produced in the mitochondria and is the cell’s internally created fuel responsible for powering all cell function.
B. It is the form of energy produced in the endoplasmic reticulum and is the cell’s engine responsible for all cell function.
C. It is the form of energy that is produced in the mitochondria from glucose and DNA.
D. It is the form of energy that is produced in the nucleus from glucose and other nutrients.
A. It is the form of energy produced in the mitochondria and is the cell’s internally created fuel responsible for powering all cell function.
Ch 7
Injuries to the brain and spinal cord, sepsis, and systemic allergic reactions can cause what similar cardiovascular problem?
A. Hypertension
B. Loss of tone
C. Permeability
D. Increased SVR
B. Loss of tone
Ch 7
Which of the following statements provides reasons for the disruption of respiratory control?
A.
Mechanical failure, soft-tissue damage, obstruction, and lack of perfusion will interrupt this control.
B.
Stroke, infection, brain trauma, toxins and drugs, and neurologic disorders can interrupt this control.
This is the correct answer.C.
A structural reason that has caused collapse of the upper and lower airways to block the flow of oxygen to the alveoli can interrupt this control.
D.
A medical, structural, and mechanical failure that has initiated the cascade of life-threatening problems will interrupt this control.
Ch 7
Which of the following statements provides reasons for the disruption of respiratory control?
A. Mechanical failure, soft-tissue damage, obstruction, and lack of perfusion will interrupt this control.
B. Stroke, infection, brain trauma, toxins and drugs, and neurologic disorders can interrupt this control.
C. A structural reason that has caused collapse of the upper and lower airways to block the flow of oxygen to the alveoli can interrupt this control.
D. A medical, structural, and mechanical failure that has initiated the cascade of life-threatening problems will interrupt this control.
B. Stroke, infection, brain trauma, toxins and drugs, and neurologic disorders can interrupt this control.
Ch 7
Plasma oncotic pressure is created by the movement of which of the following?
A. Dilation of the vessels
B. Large proteins
C. Constriction of the vessels
D. Contraction of the heart
B. Large proteins
Ch 7
What is the correct order of air flow from the nose to the alveoli in the lungs?
A. Nose, pharynx, hypopharynx, epiglottis, trachea, crania, mainstem bronchi, alveoli
B. Nose, nasopharynx, hypopharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, alveoli
C. Mouth, pharynx, epiglottis, hypopharynx, trachea, mainstem bronchi, crania, alveoli
D. Nose, hyperpharynx, nasopharynx, hypopharynx, trachea, mainstem bronchi, bronchi, alveoli
B. Nose, nasopharynx, hypopharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi, alveoli
Ch 7
Graves’ disease is an example of a condition caused by:
Too many hormones
Ch 7
In normal exhalation, the diaphragm and intercostal muscles relax to contract the chest, which creates a positive pressure. This is what type of process?
Passive process
Ch 7
A 12-year-old female patient is having an asthma attack after participating in some strenuous activity during recess at school. She’s taken several doses of her own bronchodilator with little relief. Your partner immediately administers oxygen. Providing supplemental oxygen will increase the amount of oxygen molecules carried by the ________ in her blood, helping oxygenate critical organs like the brain.
A. plasma
B. hemoglobin
C. white blood cells
D. albumin
B. hemoglobin
Ch 7
The cellular structure that is responsible for synthesizing proteins is the:
A. nucleus.
B. mitochondria.
C. endoplasmic reticulum.
D. sodium pump.
C. endoplasmic reticulum.
Ch 9
Which of the following is the correct method of suctioning?
A. Suction intermittently, both while inserting and withdrawing the suction tip or catheter.
B. Insert the catheter or tip to the desired depth prior to applying suction.
C. Begin suctioning as you insert the suction tip or catheter into the mouth.
D. Suction continuously, both while inserting and withdrawing the suction tip or catheter.
B. Insert the catheter or tip to the desired depth prior to applying suction.
Ch 9
Which of the following should be kept in mind when assessing and managing the airway of a pediatric patient?
A. Due to their short necks, pediatric patients require a greater degree of hyperextension to open the airway than do adults.
B. The trachea is easily obstructed by swelling.
C. Gastric distention is unlikely.
D. The tongue is not as likely to obstruct the airway as in an adult.
B. The trachea is easily obstructed by swelling.
Because EMS personnel are often exposed to both acute and chronic stressors, ________ management may be helpful to cope with on-the-job experiences.
A. crisis intervention
B. chronic stress
C. critical incident stress
D. stress prevention
C. critical incident stress
You are treating a patient who has a productive cough and who reports weight loss, loss of appetite, weakness, night sweats, and fever. Which of the following diseases is most likely the cause of these signs and symptoms?
A. Tuberculosis
B. Pneumonia
C. AIDS
D. Hepatitis B
A. Tuberculosis
Which hormone helps the body control stress, regulate metabolism, and influence an immune response?
Cortisol
Which of the following is a physiologic effect of the stress triad as described by the physician Hans Selye?
A. Bleeding gastric ulcers
B. Atrophy of the adrenal glands
C. Amnesia for stressful events
D. Hypertrophy of the lymph nodes
A. Bleeding gastric ulcers
One’s “cognitive ability” refers to his or her ability to do which of the following?
think and solve problems
Which of the following is the form of stress that can cause immediate and long-term problems with an EMT’s health and well-being?
A. Distress
B. Hypertropy
C. Eustress
D. Megastress
A. Distress
What is the contraindication for the use of a scoop or orthopedic stretcher?
spinal injury
How far apart should your hands be when using a power grip?
10 inches
Which of the following should you use when you want to move a patient from a wheelchair to a stretcher?
extremity lift
While documenting a call, you add a false statement that was made about a local doctor. This could constitute which of the following?
libel
