chapter tests 1-28 and 36-37

Question 1

Chapter 6
What is the larger bone of the lower​ leg?
A. Patella
B. Femur
C. Fibula
D. Tibia

Answer 1

D. Tibia

Question 2

Chapter 6
The cardiac muscle receives its supply of oxygenated blood by which of the following​ mechanisms?
A. The brachial artery returning blood from the lungs
B. The pulmonary artery beginning at the right ventricle
C. Coronary veins that branch off the pulmonary vein as it returns oxygenated blood to the heart
D. Coronary arteries that branch off the aorta

Answer 2

D. Coronary arteries that branch off the aorta

Question 3

Chapter 6
What system is composed of​ organs, tissues, and vessels that help maintain the fluid balance of the body and contribute to the​ body’s immune​ system?
A. Lymphatic system
B. Endocrine system
C. Respiratory system
D. Digestive system

Answer 3

A. Lymphatic system

Question 4

Chapter 6
At which of the following locations could you palpate a​ malleolus?
A. Spinal column
B. Ankle
C. Wrist
D. Elbow

Answer 4

B. Ankle

Question 5

Chapter 6
You are on the scene at an office building where a​ 32-year-old male is described as having difficulty breathing and chest pain. The patient is allergic to peanuts and thinks he may have accidentally ingested some cookies with peanuts in them this afternoon during his break. He is pale with a pulse rate of 158 and a respiratory rate of 36. You understand that a​ fight-or-flight response may have been activated in this​ patient, involving which nervous system and which​ hormone?
A. Sympathetic nervous system and insulin
B. Parasympathetic nervous system and insulin
C. Parasympathetic nervous system and epinephrine
D. Sympathetic nervous system and epinephrine

Answer 5

D. Sympathetic nervous system and epinephrine

Question 6

Chapter 6
What is the​ inferior-most portion of the​ sternum?
A. Manubrium
B. Sternal notch
C. Body
D. Xiphoid process

Answer 6

D. Xiphoid process

Question 7

Chapter 7
When the​ body’s water moves from the bloodstream into the interstitial​ space, this can often be seen​ as:
A. edema.
B. hypovolemia.
C. hydrostatic pressure.
D. dehydration.

Answer 7

A. edema.

Question 8

Chapter 7
A patient breathing in room air should be receiving​ ________ percent oxygen.
A. 16
B. 21
C. 100
D. 5

Answer 8

B. 21

Question 9

Chapter 7
Carbon dioxide is transported back to the lungs​ via:
A. oncotic pressure.
B. plasma.
C. white blood cells.
D. hydrostatic pressure.

Answer 9

B. plasma.

Question 10

Chapter 7
An infection of the brain is​ called:
A. meningitis.
B. hypoglycemia.
C. encephalitis.
D. multiple sclerosis.

Answer 10

C. encephalitis.

Question 11

Chapter 8
You are assessing a female patient with depression. She tells you that her psychologist said that she is dealing with​ “empty-nest syndrome.” What age group is this associated​ with?
A. Middle-aged adulthood
B. Early adulthood
C. Middle adulthood
D. Late adulthood

Answer 11

C. Middle adulthood

Question 12

Chapter 8
What is a normal heart rate for a school age​ child?
A. 90-160/minute
B. 80-140/minute
C. 70-120/minute
D. 65-120/minute

Answer 12

D. 65-120/minute

Question 13

Chapter 8
Which of the following would be a normal set of vitals for a​ 4-year-old male​ patient?
A. Heart rate​ 100/minute, respiratory rate​ 44/minute, and systolic blood pressure of 100 mmHg
B. Heart rate​ 140/minute, respiratory rate​ 30/minute, and systolic blood pressure of 60 mmHg
C. Heart rate​ 60/minute, respiratory rate​ 24/minute, and systolic blood pressure of 96 mmHg
D. Heart rate​ 110/minute, respiratory rate​ 24/minute, and systolic blood pressure of 98 mmHg

Answer 13

D. Heart rate​ 110/minute, respiratory rate​ 24/minute, and systolic blood pressure of 98 mmHg

Question 14

Chapter 8
Which of the following stages is commonly referred to as​ “the twilight​ years”?
A. Late adulthood
B. Early adulthood
C. Adolescence
D. Middle adulthood

Answer 14

A. Late adulthood

Question 15

Chapter 10
Why does a patient involved in an auto crash who has major internal abdominal bleeding require oxygen to maintain internal​ respiration?
A. A lack of oxygen in the air decreases the oxygen diffused into the​ bloodstream, which creates an increase of carbon dioxide.
B. The remaining red blood cells have a reduction of hemoglobin that reduces the amount of oxygen that can be transported.
C. The swelling of the abdominal space causes the diaphragm to be​ restricted, which will reduce the thorax space.
D. A lack of circulating volume decreases the oxygen and carbon dioxide transport capability of the blood.

Answer 15

D. A lack of circulating volume decreases the oxygen and carbon dioxide transport capability of the blood.

Question 16

Chapter 10
Which of the following statements best describes the exchange of gas in the​ alveoli?
A. Blood moves by way of the pulmonary​ capillaries, air arrives at the​ alveoli, and osmosis occurs.
B. Blood moves from the left heart to the​ lungs, air arrives in the alveoli​ sacs, and diffusion occurs.
C. Air moves into the​ airway, blood arrives via the pulmonary​ veins, and osmosis occurs.
D. Air moves into the​ alveoli, blood is transported by the pulmonary​ capillaries, and diffusion occurs.

Answer 16

D. Air moves into the​ alveoli, blood is transported by the pulmonary​ capillaries, and diffusion occurs.

Question 17

Chapter 10
A nonrebreather mask at 12 to 15 liters per minute will generally provide the patient what percentage of​ oxygen?
A. 80-90
B. 16-21
C. ​24-44
D. 90-100

Answer 17

A. 80-90

Question 18

Chapter 10
Your patient is a​ 55-year-old man with a history of chronic bronchitis. You have been called to his home today because of an increase in his level of respiratory distress. The patient is on 2 liters per minute of oxygen by nasal cannula at home. Your assessment reveals difficulty speaking due to shortness of​ breath, leaning forward to​ breathe, a productive​ cough, and a respiratory rate of 32 per minute. Which of the following is true concerning the best course of action for this​ patient?
A. You should not increase the​ patient’s oxygen flow rate because of his likely dependence on a hypoxic drive to stimulate breathing.
B. Because increased blood levels of carbon dioxide are the primary stimulus to​ breathe, you should encourage the patient to rebreathe his exhaled air from a paper bag.
C. You should increase the​ patient’s oxygen flow rate until his respiratory rate decreases and then resume oxygen administration at 2 liters per minute.
D. You should increase the​ patient’s oxygen flow rate to deliver adequate amounts of oxygen to his tissues. If his respiratory rate​ decreases, you can assist him with a​ bag-valve-mask device.

Answer 18

D. You should increase the​ patient’s oxygen flow rate to deliver adequate amounts of oxygen to his tissues. If his respiratory rate​ decreases, you can assist him with a​ bag-valve-mask device.

Question 19

Chapter 10
Why is inhalation described as an active​ process?
A. It requires the diaphragm to contract and use energy to​ move, creating a positive pressure.
B. It requires chest muscles to relax and use energy to​ move, creating a positive pressure.
C. It requires the diaphragm to relax and use energy to​ move, creating a negative pressure.
D. It requires chest muscles to contract and use energy to​ move, creating a negative pressure.

Answer 19

D. It requires chest muscles to contract and use energy to​ move, creating a negative pressure.

Question 20

Chapter 10
A​ 21-year-old patient presents with labored breathing and audible​ wheezes, heart rate of​ 124, respiration​ 36; he has significantly altered mentation. What is the treatment for this​ patient?
A. Use a pocket​ mask, which will provide adequate oxygen to improve the​ patient’s condition.
B. Ventilate with a​ bag-valve mask with high oxygen or FROPVD.
C. Supplement the breaths with​ high-concentration oxygen through a nonrebreather mask.
D. Give​ mouth-to-mouth breathing with a nasal​ cannula, providing the patient with an increase of oxygen.

Answer 20

B. Ventilate with a​ bag-valve mask with high oxygen or FROPVD.

Question 21

Chapter 10
The oxygen flow rate for a nasal cannula should not exceed​ ________ liters per minute.
A. 4
B. 2
C. 8
D. 6

Answer 21

D. 6

Question 22

Chapter 10
The process of air moving in and out of the chest is​ called:
A. inhalation.
B. tidal volume.
C. respiration.
D. ventilation.

Answer 22

D. ventilation.

Question 23

Chapter 11
Your​ patient, a​ 29-year-old female, was the front seat passenger in a vehicle that was struck in the​ passenger’s side door by another vehicle that ran a red light. Which of the following is most likely to have​ occurred?
A. The​ patient’s body was pushed forcefully out from under her​ head, causing injury to the cervical spine.
B. The patient took the​ down-and-under pathway, causing trauma to her lower extremities.
C. The patient took the​ up-and-over pathway, striking her head on the windshield.
D. The patient impacted the steering wheel with her​ chest, causing a fracture of the sternum.

Answer 23

A. The​ patient’s body was pushed forcefully out from under her​ head, causing injury to the cervical spine.

Question 24

Chapter 12
Which of the following is the most reliable means of determining whether a patient has any immediately​ life-threatening conditions?
A. Thorough scene​ size-up
B. Systematic approach to assessment
C. Obtaining a detailed medical history
D. Use of intuition

Answer 24

B. Systematic approach to assessment

Question 25

Chapter 12
Which of the following best describes an EMS​ provider’s “sixth​ sense”?
A. Clinical judgment
B. General impression
C. Diagnostic ability
D. Scene safety

Answer 25

A. Clinical judgment

Question 26

Chapter 12
A patient whose mental status can be described as verbal is able​ to:
A. talk spontaneously and respond to the​ EMT’s questions.
B. tell you his or her​ name, his or her​ location, and what day it is.
C. respond only to a stimulus such as the EMT rubbing his sternum with his knuckles.
D. respond to speaking or shouting by opening the eyes.

Answer 26

D. respond to speaking or shouting by opening the eyes.

Question 27

Chapter 12
Which term refers to the​ EMT’s initial sense of the​ patient’s condition, based on immediate assessment of the​ patient’s environment,​ appearance, and chief​ complaint?
A. General impression
B. Scene​ size-up
C. Secondary assessment
D. Primary assessment

Answer 27

A. General impression

Question 28

Chapter 12
Which of the following represents the correct order of assessment for the EMT during the primary assessment from start to​ end?
A. General​ impression, mental​ status, airway,​ breathing, circulation, patient priority
B. Mental​ status, general​ impression, airway,​ breathing, circulation, patient priority
C. Patient​ priority, general​ impression, mental​ status, airway,​ breathing, circulation
D. None of the above

Answer 28

A. General​ impression, mental​ status, airway,​ breathing, circulation, patient priority

Question 29

Chapter 13
You respond to a childcare center for a report of an injured​ 4-year-old. Her pulse is 130 beats per minute. Which of the following best describes this​ finding?
A. Normal for the​ child’s age
B. Bradycardic
C. Tachycardic
D. Unable to determine without knowing the family history

Answer 29

C. Tachycardic

Question 30

Chapter 13
The normal range for blood glucose is between 70​ mg/dL and:
A. 120​ mg/dL.
B. 90​ mg/dL.
C. 100​ mg/dL.
D. 110​ mg/dL.

Answer 30

C. 100​ mg/dL.

Question 31

Chapter 13
​A(n) ________ set of vital signs is important for critical decision making for the EMT.
A. repeated
B. complete
C. unbiased
D. accurate

Answer 31

D. accurate

Question 32

Chapter 14
You have a patient who is unresponsive on the floor. What is the best way to rule in or rule out trauma as a cause of the​ patient’s unresponsiveness?
A. Perform a stroke scale on the patient.
B. Examine the patient for signs of trauma.
C. Look for bystanders and ask them if they witnessed the incident.
D. Check the​ patient’s blood glucose to rule out hypoglycemia.

Answer 32

C. Look for bystanders and ask them if they witnessed the incident.

Question 33

Chapter 14
You and another EMT are discussing a call he previously ran. The EMT said the patient had classic chest pain symptoms and he treated it as a possible heart​ attack, but he later found out the patient just had indigestion and was discharged 2 hours later. The EMT was concerned that his patient assessment skills were not as good as they should​ be, and that the ED physician will no longer trust his judgment. How should you respond to his​ concerns?
A. Tell him that his misdiagnosis is a common EMT mistake caused by illusionary correlation.
B. Tell him that his misdiagnosis is a result of anchoring.
C. Tell him that his misdiagnosis is a result of limited information.
D. Tell him that his misdiagnosis is a result of confirmation bias.

Answer 33

C. Tell him that his misdiagnosis is a result of limited information.

Question 34

Chapter 14
The process by which an EMT forms a field diagnosis is known​ as:
A. critical thinking.
B. diagnostic thinking.
C. differential thinking.
D. clinical thinking.

Answer 34

A. critical thinking.

Question 35

Chapter 14
While an EMT forms a field diagnosis on the scene of an​ emergency, how do the steps differ from the traditional approach to​ diagnosis?
A. Due to the limited time spent with the​ patient, the EMT must rely on a differential diagnosis.
B. The EMT does not have time to form a differential diagnosis and must rely on prior experience when treating a patient.
C. The EMT must perform a patient assessment to begin the process of forming a diagnosis.
D. The EMT must rule in or out the most serious conditions associated with the​ patient’s presentation.

Answer 35

D. The EMT must rule in or out the most serious conditions associated with the​ patient’s presentation.

Question 36

Chapter 14
Your elderly patient reports having stomach cramps for several hours. He denies any trauma and he​ hasn’t eaten for several hours. Which of the following is most important to your assessment of this​ patient?
A. Finding out if he has any chest pain
B. Asking him if he is able to walk
C. Asking if he has been having regular bowel movements
D. Determining if he has been taking his medications as prescribed

Answer 36

C. Asking if he has been having regular bowel movements

Question 37

Chapter 14
You are on the scene in the bad part of town for an unresponsive​ 18-year-old type 1 diabetic patient. His mother states that he is very noncompliant with his diabetes management and often goes unresponsive due to low blood sugar. After performing the primary​ assessment, you believe that this is the most likely cause of his unresponsiveness.​ However, after taking a capillary glucose reading you are surprised to see that the​ patient’s sugar level is normal. How will you now determine the field​ diagnosis?

A. Continue patient care by getting a complete SAMPLE history and perform a complete secondary assessment.
B. You cannot make a correct diagnosis in the field because you cannot perform all the necessary tests with your limited scope of practice.
C. Recognize that the mother was lying to you. The patient is not diabetic and you now must assume that everything she told you is wrong.
D. Recognize that the mother is probably trying to protect her son from jail. Tell her that it is critical that she tell you what drugs he actually took.

Answer 37

A. Continue patient care by getting a complete SAMPLE history and perform a complete secondary assessment.

Question 38

Chapter 15
Your patient is a​ 24-year-old female who swallowed a handful of pills of unknown type. Although she was initially alert and oriented with no​ complaints, you note that she is now beginning to slur her words and is becoming progressively lethargic. What is the highest priority in dealing with this​ patient?

A. Notifying the receiving facility of the change in mental status
B. Checking the​ patient’s pupil size and reactivity to light
C. Finding out exactly what she took
D. Maintaining an open airway

Answer 38

D. Maintaining an open airway

Question 39

Chapter 15
The ambulance is called for an assaulted patient. While transporting the patient to the​ hospital, the EMT notes the​ patient’s jugular veins are flat​ (nondistended). Which of these is most likely the cause of this​ finding?

A. Blood collecting around the heart in the pericardial sac
B. Blood loss
C. Closed head injury
D. High blood pressure

Answer 39

B. Blood loss

Question 40

Chapter 15
What does distention refer to when describing your​ patient’s abdomen?

A. Larger than normal
B. Harder than normal
C. Having a​ sunken-in appearance
D. Softer than normal

Answer 40

A. Larger than normal

Question 41

Chapter 15
Your patient is the​ 18-year-old male driver of a vehicle that struck a tree. He is conscious and complaining of neck pain. The passenger is obviously dead. You have performed your primary assessment. Which of the following is the next​ step?

A. Perform a tertiary assessment.
B. Rule out the possibility of cervical spine injury before moving the patient.
C. Perform a rapid trauma assessment.
D. Immobilize the patient on a long backboard and perform a detailed examination in the ambulance.

Answer 41

C. Perform a rapid trauma assessment.

Question 42

Chapter 15
You respond to a motor vehicle collision and find a patient with an altered mental status and angulated left​ femur; the other driver is deceased. Your closest trauma center is 45 minutes away. Which of the following would you do​ next?

A. Apply a traction splint.
B. Perform a detailed physical exam.
C. Request ALS personnel.
D. Transport the patient to a local medical clinic for evaluation by a physician.

Answer 42

C. Request ALS personnel.

Question 43

Chapter 15
You have performed a rapid trauma assessment on a patient with multiple​ long-bone injuries. Your next assessment step should be which of the​ following?

A. Call the ALS unit to determine their ETA before deciding your next step.
B. Transport the patient to the hospital and perform a detailed physical exam.
C. Obtain baseline vital signs and past medical history.
D. Perform a detailed physical exam.

Answer 43

C. Obtain baseline vital signs and past medical history.

Question 44

Chapter 15
Your patient is a​ 45-year-old female who complains of​ “twisting her​ ankle” when she slipped on a patch of ice. Which of the following is not​ appropriate?

A. Providing emotional​ support, if necessary
B. Questioning about any other complaints or areas of pain
C. Detailed physical exam
D. Secondary assessment

Answer 44

C. Detailed physical exam

Question 45

Chapter 15
Your patient was struck in the chest with a baseball bat during a bar fight. A crackling or crunching sensation that is felt when air escapes from its normal passageways and is trapped under the skin is​ called:

A. distention.
B. subcutaneous emphysema.
C. crepitation.
D. tension pneumothorax.

Answer 45

B. subcutaneous emphysema.

Question 46

Chapter 16
You are transporting a patient who has had her neck slashed from side to side. You and your partner are caring for the patient while a police officer drives you to the​ hospital, which is minutes away. You are focusing all of your efforts to maintain her airway and your partner is controlling her bleeding. Which of the following will you be unlikely to​ obtain?

A. Primary assessment
B. Pulse and respiratory rates
C. ​Patient’s gender
D. Reassessment results

Answer 46

D. Reassessment results

Question 47

Chapter 16
What is the first step in the reassessment​ process?

A. Focused history and physical exam
B. Primary assessment
C. Vital signs
D. Secondary assessment

Answer 47

B. Primary assessment

Question 48

Chapter 16
You are called for a​ 58-year-old male who is concerned that his blood pressure is too high. He tells you that he has had a headache and is feeling a little dizzy. You notice that his skin is flushed and feels warm to the touch. As you finish taking his vital​ signs, you​ should:

A. move the patient to the ambulance for transport.
B. assist the patient to take his blood pressure medication.
C. begin your reassessment.
D. write down the​ patient’s vital signs.

Answer 48

D. write down the​ patient’s vital signs.

Question 49

Chapter 16
You are called for an alert patient with respiratory distress. As part of your primary​ assessment, you place the patient on oxygen via nasal cannula at 2 liters per minute. You continue with the rest of your assessment including taking a set of vital signs. During your​ reassessment, you notice that the​ patient’s respiratory rate has increased to 24 times per minute and he is having increasing trouble breathing. You​ should:

A. assist the​ patient’s breathing with a​ bag-valve mask.
B. increase the flow rate of the nasal cannula to 4 liters per minute.
C. call medical direction for orders to administer his inhaler.
D. switch your patient to a nonrebreather mask at 15 liters per minute.

Answer 49

D. switch your patient to a nonrebreather mask at 15 liters per minute.

Question 50

Chapter 17
Which of the following should be documented as subjective patient​ information?

A. Description of the surroundings
B. Vital signs
C. Symptoms
D. Medications

Answer 50

C. Symptoms

Question 51

Chapter 17
Which of the following best describes a​ repeater?

A. A​ two-way radio that is mounted in a vehicle
B. A device that receives and amplifies a signal that must be carried over long distances
C. A​ two-way radio at a fixed site
D. A​ two-way radio that can be carried on a belt clip

Answer 51

B. A device that receives and amplifies a signal that must be carried over long distances

Question 52

Chapter 17
In which of the following circumstances is a fully documented prehospital care report not​ necessary?

A. A patient says that someone else called EMS and he does not want any assistance.
B. Multiple patients come from an office building evacuation.
C. A patient is treated but not transported.
D. A fully documented patient care report is required for all of the above.

Answer 52

B. Multiple patients come from an office building evacuation.

Question 53

Chapter 17
Which of the following is not an objective element of documented patient​ information?

A. ​Patient’s complaint of nausea
B. Patient’s blood pressure
C. Position in which the patient was found
D. Patient’s age

Answer 53

A. ​Patient’s complaint of nausea

Question 54

Chapter 17
Which of the following information does not need to be provided to the​ dispatcher?

A. Which hospital you are transporting to
B. When you depart from the hospital
C. When you arrive at the hospital
D. Estimated time of arrival at the hospital

Answer 54

D. Estimated time of arrival at the hospital

Question 55

Chapter 17
You are en route to the hospital with a​ 22-year-old male patient who has suffered a very embarrassing injury to his genitalia. Which method of contacting the receiving facility will afford the patient the most​ privacy?

A. Using the ambulance radio but not using the​ patient’s name
B. Using the ambulance radio but not providing details of the injury
C. Providing the receiving hospital with all information via a cell phone
D. Using the handheld radio

Answer 55

C. Providing the receiving hospital with all information via a cell phone

Question 56

Chapter 17
Which of the following is a possible consequence of using medical terminology about which you are unsure of the meaning in your patient care​ report?

A. Negative impact on patient care
B. Embarrassment
C. Loss of credibility
D. All of the above

Answer 56

D. All of the above

Question 57

Chapter 17
When you arrive at the receiving​ facility, the nurse asks your partner for a verbal report of the​ patient’s condition. This is in addition to the radio report your partner gave to the hospital en route.​ Afterwards, you ask your partner why you must give a second verbal report and a written report to the receiving nurse. What is the best reason to provide both​ reports?

A. The nurse may be too busy to read the written report.
B. The​ patient’s condition may have changed since the first radio report.
C. The nurse may have to perform critical interventions on the patient before you complete your written report.
D. The nurse may not have heard the first radio report.

Answer 57

C. The nurse may have to perform critical interventions on the patient before you complete your written report.

Question 58

Chapter 17
Which of the following best describes a mobile​ radio?

A. A device that receives and amplifies signals that must be sent over a long distance
B. A​ two-way radio that can be carried on a belt clip
C. A​ two-way radio at a fixed site
D. A​ two-way radio that is mounted in a vehicle

Answer 58

D. A​ two-way radio that is mounted in a vehicle

Question 59

Chapter 18
What is the first step in administering a prescribed aerosol​ medication?

A. Make sure the patient is suffering from​ asthma, emphysema, or bronchitis.
B. Determine that the dose is correct.
C. Determine that the inhaler actually belongs to the patient.
D. Check to make sure the medication is correct.

Answer 59

C. Determine that the inhaler actually belongs to the patient.

Question 60

Chapter 18
You are on the scene at a fancy hotel room for a​ 60-year-old male patient who calls 911 at 10 p.m. for chest pains. He states he was about to go to bed when he suddenly had chest pain that would not go away. He rates his pain as a 7 out of 10 and is diaphoretic. His vital signs are​ stable, and he takes medications for​ hypertension, high​ cholesterol, and erectile dysfunction. The patient is allergic to morphine. After placing the patient on​ oxygen, you contact medical control and​ request:

A. to administer nitroglycerin to the patient.
B. to administer aspirin to the patient.
C. to administer both aspirin and nitroglycerin to the patient.
D. no orders.

Answer 60

B. to administer aspirin to the patient.

Question 61

Chapter 18
The epinephrine​ auto-injector is given via the​ ________ route.

A. enteral
B. digestive
C. parenteral
D. oral

Answer 61

C. parenteral

Question 62

Chapter 18
The​ EMT, after administering any​ medication, must do which of the​ following?

A. Reassess the​ patient, document the​ medication, and report to the receiving facility.
B. Wait 5​ minutes, repeat the medication if​ needed, and reassess the​ patient’s vitals.
C. Document the​ route, dose, and​ time; reassess the​ patient; and​ re-administer the medication.
D. Reconsider the five​ rights, reassess the​ patient, and contact medical control.

Answer 62

A. Reassess the​ patient, document the​ medication, and report to the receiving facility.

Question 63

Chapter 18
What is the most important medication that should be administered to a patient experiencing chest pain with difficulty​ breathing?

A. Oxygen
B. Nitroglycerin
C. Albuterol
D. Aspirin

Answer 63

D. Aspirin

Question 64

Chapter 18
Which of the following best describes the five​ rights?

A. Right​ decision, right​ medication, right​ order, right​ dose, right place
B. In​ date, right​ medication, right​ order, right​ dose, right time
C. Right​ patient, right​ medication, right​ time, right​ dose, right route
D. Right​ patient, right​ medication, in​ date, right​ dose, right route

Answer 64

C. Right​ patient, right​ medication, right​ time, right​ dose, right route

Question 65

Chapter 19
Which of the following patients does not necessarily have inadequate​ breathing?

A. Patient with cyanosis
B. Patient with an irregular respiratory rhythm
C. ​Patient’s whose breath sounds cannot be heard
D. Patient with agonal respirations

Answer 65

B. Patient with an irregular respiratory rhythm

Question 66

Chapter 19
When should the EMT most likely expect to hear wheezes in a patient complaining of shortness of breath secondary to an asthma​ attack?

A. In between breaths
B. While breathing in
C. While breathing out
D. While holding his breath

Answer 66

C. While breathing out

Question 67

Chapter 19
Which of the following does not occur during​ inspiration?

A. Diaphragm lowers.
B. Diaphragm relaxes.
C. Chest cavity increases in size.
D. Intercostal muscles contract.

Answer 67

B. Diaphragm relaxes

Question 68

Chapter 19
Which of the following is a sign of adequate artificial ventilations in a pediatric​ patient?

A. The breath is delivered easily.
B. Pulse rate slows down.
C. You notice cyanosis developing around the mouth.
D. Pulse rate increases.

Answer 68

D. Pulse rate increases.

Question 69

Chapter 19
Which of the following inhalers would not be used to reverse an asthma​ attack?

A. Beclomethasone
B. Ventolin
C. Proventil
D. Albuterol

Answer 69

A. Beclomethasone

Question 70

Chapter 19
Which of the following statements concerning expiration is true​?

A. The ribs move upward and outward.
B. The intercostal muscles contract to force air out of the lungs.
C. The diaphragm moves upward.
D. The chest cavity increases in size.

Answer 70

C. The diaphragm moves upward.

Question 71

Chapter 19
In what condition does fluid accumulate in the​ lungs, preventing them from breathing​ adequately?

A. Pneumonia
B. Asthma
C. Pulmonary edema
D. Pulmonary embolism

Answer 71

C. Pulmonary edema

Question 72

Chapter 19
You are first on the scene of a​ 61-year-old female in need of assistance with her respirations. You have a pocket mask with supplemental oxygen. How can you determine that your artificial ventilation is​ effective?

A. You are assisting respirations at 10 breaths per minute.
B. You assure oxygen is being delivered at 15 liters per minute.
C. Patient’s pulse returns to normal.
D. ​Patient’s skin color remains the same.

Answer 72

C. Patient’s pulse returns to normal.

Question 73

Chapter 20
What is not a result of a mechanical malfunction of the​ heart?

A. Pulmonary edema
B. Cardiac arrest
C. Dysrhythmia
D. Cardiogenic shock

Answer 73

C. Dysrhythmia

Question 74

Chapter 20
Which of the following is the beneficial action of a beta blocker​ medication?

A. Increases the strength of myocardial contraction
B. Slows the heart rate
C. Causes​ vasoconstriction, increasing the blood pressure
D. Increases the amount of oxygen needed by the myocardium

Answer 74

B. Slows the heart rate

Question 75

Chapter 20
You are treating a male patient with chest pain caused by the complete occlusion of one of the coronary arteries. What would you most likely expect with this​ patient?

A. His pain will be alleviated with nitroglycerin.
B. His pain will be reduced with aspirin.
C. His pain will not be alleviated with any of the above medications.
D. His pain will go away with oxygen.

Answer 75

C. His pain will not be alleviated with any of the above medications. (alleviated means does not make better)

Question 76

Chapter 20
Which of the following is the result of a portion of the heart muscle dying due to a lack of​ oxygen?

A. Heart failure
B. Cardiac arrest
C. Myocardial infarction
D. Angina pectoris

Answer 76

C. Myocardial infarction

Question 77

Chapter 21
Your patient is a​ 66-year-old female who has regained a pulse after a shock with an​ AED; however, she remains unresponsive and is not breathing adequately. Which of the following should be done​ next?

A. Remove the​ AED, assist the​ patient’s ventilations with a​ bag-valve mask and supplemental​ oxygen, and keep reassessing the pulse.
B. Deliver a fourth shock to improve the​ patient’s respiratory status.
C. Ventilate the patient with​ high-concentration oxygen and transport immediately.
D. Apply a nonrebreather mask with​ high-concentration oxygen and keep reassessing the pulse.

Answer 77

C. Ventilate the patient with​ high-concentration oxygen and transport immediately.

Question 78

Chapter 21
You are transporting a​ 50-year-old male patient whom you successfully defibrillated at the scene. You are 5 minutes away from the hospital when the patient goes back into cardiac arrest. Which of the following is the BEST course of​ action?

A. Tell the driver to​ stop, analyze the cardiac​ rhythm, and deliver a shock as necessary.
B. Analyze the cardiac rhythm and deliver shocks as necessary.
C. Initiate CPR and continue transporting.
D. Tell the driver to stop and assist you with​ CPR, and request another unit for assistance.

Answer 78

A. Tell the driver to​ stop, analyze the cardiac​ rhythm, and deliver a shock as necessary.

Question 79

Chapter 21
What does ventricular fibrillation​ do?

A. Initiates commotio cordis
B. Forces the heartbeat to become quite rapid
C. Prevents the heart muscle from contracting normally
D. Causes asphyxial cardiac arrest

Answer 79

C. Prevents the heart muscle from contracting normally

Question 80

Chapter 21
Blunt and penetrating injuries can damage chambers of the heart or cause conditions​ like:

A. ventricular fibrillation.
B. pericardial tamponade.
C. asphyxial cardiac arrest.
D. ventricular tachycardia.

Answer 80

B. pericardial tamponade.

Question 81

Chapter 21
Which of the following is NOT a reason that an AED may indicate that there is​ “no shock​ advised”?

A. The patient is in ventricular fibrillation or ventricular tachycardia.
B. The patient has organized electrical activity in the heart but no pulse.
C. The​ patient’s heart has no electrical​ activity; he is​ “flat line,” or in asystole.
D. The​ patient’s heart rhythm is normal.

Answer 81

A. The patient is in ventricular fibrillation or ventricular tachycardia.

Question 82

Chapter 22
The death of brain tissue due to deprivation of oxygen because of a blocked or ruptured artery in the brain is known as which of the​ following?

A. Aphasia
B. Transient ischemic attack
C. Stroke
D. Seizure

Answer 82

C. Stroke

Question 83

Chapter 22
The most common medical emergency for the diabetic is​ hypoglycemia, or low blood sugar. Which of the factors below is NOT a cause of​ hypoglycemia?

A. Reduces sugar intake by eating too much
B. Takes too much insulin
C. Vomits a meal
D. Over-exercises or​ over-exerts himself

Answer 83

A. Reduces sugar intake by eating too much

Question 84

Chapter 22
Which of the following is characteristic of a patient with​ hyperglycemia?

A. Sudden onset of altered mental status
B. A​ “fruity” odor of the breath
C. Use of excessive amounts of insulin or lack of adequate food intake
D. Pale and sweaty​ skin, confusion, and increased heart rate

Answer 84

B. A​ “fruity” odor of the breath

Question 85

Chapter 22
Which of the following blood glucose levels is considered normal for an​ adult?

A. 80​ mg/dL
B. 180​ mg/dL
C. 40​ mg/dL
D. 150​ mg/dL

Answer 85

A. 80​ mg/dL

Question 86

Chapter 22
Your patient is a​ 25-year-old female with a history of diabetes. She is​ confused, agitated, and verbally abusive to​ you, and she is very sweaty. Although she refuses to give a history of the present​ illness, which of the following should you suspect as the likely cause of the​ patient’s presentation?

A. A​ nondiabetic-related problem, such as a head injury or mental illness
B. Excessive intake of foods high in​ sugar, such as soda or candy
C. Failure to take her insulin
D. Failure to intake sufficient sugar

Answer 86

D. Failure to intake sufficient sugar

Question 87

Chapter 22

Compared to​ hypoglycemia, which of the following is TRUE of​ hyperglycemia?

A. Its onset is preceded by an​ aura, such as hallucinations or detecting unusual odors.
B. It is more easily treated in the prehospital environment than hypoglycemia.
C. Its onset is more sudden.
D. Its onset is more gradual.

Answer 87

D. Its onset is more gradual.

Question 88

Chapter 22
Which is NOT one of the steps in managing a patient experiencing dizziness and​ syncope?

A. Loosen any tight clothing around the neck.
B. Apply cold packs to the​ patient’s head.
C. Administer oxygen.
D. Lay the patient flat.

Answer 88

B. Apply cold packs to the​ patient’s head.

Question 89

Chapter 22
For the​ EMT, which of the following is the most important question to ask of a diabetic patient or his family​ members?

A. Do you have a fruity taste in your​ mouth?
B. Do you have a family history of​ diabetes?
C. When was the last time you had something to​ eat?
D. What kind of insulin do you​ take?

Answer 89

C. When was the last time you had something to​ eat?

Question 90

Chapter 22
Your patient is a​ 70-year-old man whose wife called EMS because her husband began exhibiting unusual behavior. Upon your arrival you introduce yourself to the​ patient, who​ responds, “Not until nine​ o’clock.” This phenomenon is BEST described​ as:

A. unresponsive to verbal stimuli.
B. disorientation to time.
C. receptive aphasia.
D. expressive aphasia.

Answer 90

C. receptive aphasia.

Question 91

Chapter 22
Which of the following is the cause of most​ strokes?

A. A ruptured cerebral artery due to hypertension
B. A spasm in an artery supplying part of the brain
C. Blockage of an artery supplying part of the brain
D. A ruptured cerebral artery due to an aneurysm

Answer 91

C. Blockage of an artery supplying part of the brain

Question 92

Chapter 22
Which of the following is NOT a sign of a hypoglycemic diabetic​ emergency?

A. Slow heart rate
B. Anxiety
C. Combativeness
D. Cold, clammy skin

Answer 92

A. Slow heart rate

Question 93

Chapter 22
You respond to a​ 32-year-old female who is having a seizure. You arrive on the scene to find the patient​ drowsy, confused, and complaining of a headache. This patient is demonstrating​ the:

A. postictal phase.
B. tonic phase.
C. clonic phase.
D. aura phase.

Answer 93

A. postictal phase.

Question 94

Chapter 22
If the blood sugar level is very​ high, which of the following may​ result?

A. Excessive​ insulin, excessive​ glucose, and excessive urination
B. Excessive​ urination, excessive​ thirst, and excessive hunger
C. Hyperactivity, excessive​ thirst, and polyuria
D. Polyuria and hyperactivity

Answer 94

B. Excessive​ urination, excessive​ thirst, and excessive hunger

Question 95

Chapter 22
Your patient is a​ 19-year-old female who is 7 months pregnant. She just experienced a seizure. Although she has no previous history of seizures or any other medical​ condition, she was just diagnosed with​ pregnancy-induced hypertension. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the​ seizure?

A. Hypoglycemia
B. Trauma
C. Eclampsia
D. Any of the above

Answer 95

C. Eclampsia

Question 96

Chapter 22
During your primary​ assessment, you find your patient has an altered mental status. This could indicate which of the​ following?

A. Failing respiratory system
B. The need for suctioning of the airway
C. The need to complete a secondary assessment
D. Problems with the RAS due to hypertension

Answer 96

A. Failing respiratory system

Question 97

Chapter 22
Which of the following BEST describes status​ epilepticus?

A. Two or more seizures with​ tonic-clonic activity without an intervening period of consciousness
B. A seizure involving convulsions on only one side of the body
C. A seizure that occurs without a known cause
D. A period of drowsiness following​ tonic-clonic seizures

Answer 97

A. Two or more seizures with​ tonic-clonic activity without an intervening period of consciousness

Question 98

Chapter 22
Which of the following refers to difficulty in using words or understanding speech as a result of a​ stroke?

A. Aphasia
B. Ataxia
C. Ischemia
D. Hemiparesis

Answer 98

A. Aphasia

Question 99

Chapter 22
Your patient is waking up from a​ seizure; it was the​ patient’s first seizure ever. When you ask what​ happened, the patient tells you she had the smell of fresh mown grass just before she seized. This sensation is known as​ a(n):

A. clonic phase.
B. postictal phase.
C. tonic phase.
D. aura.

Answer 99

D. aura.

Question 100

Chapter 22
Your patient is an unresponsive​ 30-year-old male wearing a​ Medic-Alert bracelet indicating that he is a diabetic. The​ patient’s coworkers came by his house to check on him when he did not show up for work and did not call in sick. Your assessment does not clearly indicate to you whether the patient may be hypoglycemic or hyperglycemic. Which of the following should you do​ next?

A. Apply oxygen and begin transport without taking further action.
B. Use your glucometer to check his blood sugar level.
C. Administer oral​ glucose, as it will not cause additional harm in hyperglycemia but may prevent brain damage if the patient is hypoglycemic.
D. Use the​ patient’s glucometer to check his blood sugar level.

Answer 100

A. Apply oxygen and begin transport without taking further action.

Question 101

Chapter 22
A patient who demonstrates any one of the three symptoms from the Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale has​ a(n) ________% chance of having an acute stroke.

A. 80
B. 60
C. 70
D. 50

Answer 101

C. 70

Question 102

Chapter 22
Most of the diabetic emergencies that you will be called to deal with will be related to hypoglycemia.​ However, occasionally you will experience an instance of hyperglycemia. In the list​ below, which item is NOT likely to be a sign or symptom of​ hyperglycemia?

A. Nausea
B. Excessive urination
C. Reduced rate of breathing
D. Chronic thirst

Answer 102

C. Reduced rate of breathing

Question 103

Chapter 22
Which of the following is an action of​ insulin?

A. It helps the movement of sugar from the bloodstream to the cell.
B. It increases the circulating level of glucose in the blood.
C. It blocks the uptake of sugar by the​ body’s cells.
D. It assists the transfer of sugar from the stomach and small intestine to the bloodstream.

Answer 103

A. It helps the movement of sugar from the bloodstream to the cell.

Question 104

Chapter 22
Many stroke patients are candidates for thrombolytic drugs. One of the most important things that an EMT can do to optimize the care of a stroke patient who is a candidate for the drugs​ is:

A. determine the exact time of onset of symptoms.
B. transport to the closest hospital because the patient must go to the operating room as soon as possible.
C. transport the patient to a Level I trauma center.
D. do a thorough physical exam of the patient.

Answer 104

A. determine the exact time of onset of symptoms.

Question 105

Chapter 22
Looking at the following​ list, which of the items does NOT correctly compare the signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia and​ hyperglycemia?

A. The hypoglycemic patient usually complains of a​ headache, whereas the hyperglycemic patient does not.
B. Hyperglycemia usually has a slower onset than hypoglycemia.
C. Hyperglycemic patients often have​ warm, red, dry​ skin, whereas hypoglycemic patients have​ cold, pale,​ moist, or clammy skin.
D. The hyperglycemic patient often has acetone​ breath, whereas the hypoglycemic patient does not.

Answer 105

A. The hypoglycemic patient usually complains of a​ headache, whereas the hyperglycemic patient does not.

Question 106

Chapter 22
The signs and symptoms of a transient ischemic attack​ (TIA) may last up​ to:

A. 24 hours.
B. 6 hours.
C. 30 minutes.
D. 1 hour.

Answer 106

A. 24 hours.

Question 107

Chapter 22
A hormone called insulin is secreted by​ the:

A. islets of Langerhans in the liver.
B. islets of Langerhans in the pancreas.
C. gallbladder found in the pancreas.
D. None of the above.

Answer 107

B. islets of Langerhans in the pancreas.

Question 108

Chapter 22
Which of the following is NOT a sign or symptom of​ stroke?

A. Sudden impairment of vision
B. Seizure
C. Chest pain
D. Vomiting

Answer 108

C. Chest pain

Question 109

Chapter 23
Which of the following is not an indication that epinephrine is helping the anaphylaxis​ patient’s condition?

A. Increased blood pressure
B. Increased heart rate
C. Increased dyspnea
D. Both B and C

Answer 109

C. Increased dyspnea

Question 110

Chapter 23
You are on the scene of a​ 22-year-old female patient who is unresponsive. The​ patient’s mother states that she is deathly allergic to peanuts and accidentally ate stir fry cooked in peanut oil. The patient is unresponsive with agonal respirations at 6 per minute. What is your first​ action?

A. Perform a complete assessment and confirm that the patient is actually in anaphylaxis.
B. Administer epinephrine with medical control consent.
C. Insert an oral airway and apply oxygen at 15 liters per minute by nonrebreather mask.
D. Insert an oral airway and apply oxygen at 15 liters per minute by​ bag-valve mask.

Answer 110

D. Insert an oral airway and apply oxygen at 15 liters per minute by​ bag-valve mask.

Question 111

Chapter 23
You are on the scene of a motor vehicle collision in which a car has driven off the roadway and is resting at the bottom of an embankment. The driver is in severe respiratory distress and is unable to speak. His skin is flushed and he has hives. A​ Medic-Alert bracelet indicates an allergy to peanuts. You notice a candy bar wrapper on the floor of the car. Which of the following should you do​ first?

A. Read the candy wrapper to see if it contains peanuts.
B. Administer​ high-concentration oxygen.
C. Search the patient for an epinephrine​ auto-injector.
D. Perform rapid extrication.

Answer 111

B. Administer​ high-concentration oxygen.

Question 112

Chapter 23
You are called to a residence for a​ 50-year-old male complaining of difficulty breathing. He is alert and oriented to​ time, place, and person. The patient presents with hives over the​ chest, stridor, a swollen​ tongue, and wheezing in the upper fields. He is breathing 32 times per minute. He is speaking in​ two- to​ three-word sentences. What is the best treatment for the​ patient?

A. Rapid transport to the nearest facility
B. Administering epinephrine with consent from medical control
C. Oxygen at 15 liters per minute by nonrebreather mask
D. Oxygen at 15 liters per minute by​ bag-valve mask

Answer 112

B. Administering epinephrine with consent from medical control

Question 113

Chapter 23
You are on the scene of a​ 40-year-old male patient who is anaphylactic and still unresponsive following a single epinephrine injection. Prior to giving the​ injection, you inserted an oral airway and administered oxygen at 15 liters per minute by​ bag-valve mask and your partner found diminished lung sounds. Following the epinephrine​ administration, your partner reassesses lung sounds and tells you that the patient is now wheezing loudly in all fields. What is the next action you should​ perform?

A. Place the patient on a nonrebreather mask.
B. Hyperventilate the patient.
C. Discontinue bagging the patient.
D. Contact medical control and request to administer another dose of epinephrine.

Answer 113

D. Contact medical control and request to administer another dose of epinephrine.

Question 114

Chapter 24
Which of the following individuals is likely in the incubation period of​ chickenpox?

A. A patient with a fever and a rash on the abdomen and back that began 3 days ago
B. A patient who was vaccinated last​ year, exposed 4 weeks​ ago, and shows no signs
C. A patient whose rash and fever went away a week ago
D. A patient who was exposed 6 days ago but does not yet have a fever or rash

Answer 114

D. A patient who was exposed 6 days ago but does not yet have a fever or rash

Question 115

Chapter 24
Which of the following statements about bacteria is false​?

A. Sepsis is a serious and sometimes deadly complication of bacterial infection.
B. Some bacteria inside the body are good and necessary to survival.
C. Bacteria need to be inside the body in order to reproduce.
D. Over​ time, bacteria have developed resistance to some antibiotics.

Answer 115

C. Bacteria need to be inside the body in order to reproduce.

Question 116

Chapter 24
What is the most important thing you can do for a stable septic​ patient?

A. Notify the emergency department that the patient is septic.
B. Open and maintain the​ patient’s airway.
C. Attempt to lower the​ patient’s temperature.
D. Assess the patient using capnography.

Answer 116

A. Notify the emergency department that the patient is septic.

Question 117

Chapter 24
According to the signs of systemic inflammatory response syndrome​ (SIRS), which of the following infection patients has an increased risk of​ sepsis?

A. A patient with a temperature of 95.4F and a respiratory rate of 28
B. A patient with a heart rate of 88 and a temperature of 99.6F
C. A patient with respiratory rate of 19 and a heart rate of 112
D. A patient with a systolic blood pressure of 75 mmHg and a respiratory rate of 18

Answer 117

A. A patient with a temperature of 95.4F and a respiratory rate of 28

Question 118

Chapter 24
Which of the following most accurately describes the pathophysiology of​ sepsis?

A. More than one type of infectious agent invades the​ body, limiting the immune​ system’s response to each agent.
B. The body overreacts to an infection and secretes substances that hurt​ cells, tissues, and organs.
C. An infectious agent in the body multiplies very​ rapidly, overwhelming the​ body’s natural immune response.
D. Vasoconstriction and internal fluid retention lead to shock that does not respond to intravenous fluids.

Answer 118

B. The body overreacts to an infection and secretes substances that hurt​ cells, tissues, and organs.

Question 119

Chapter 24
You have been called to the scene of an​ 83-year-old woman with a high fever who reports chills and shortness of breath. She is tachypneic and showing signs of pain upon inspiration. You talk with her a bit and she seems confused and unaware of where she​ is, who she​ is, or who you are. Based on this​ presentation, the patient likely​ has:

A. pneumonia.
B. tuberculosis.
C. croup.
D. pertussis.

Answer 119

A. pneumonia.

Question 120

Chapter 24
Which of the following best describes a difference between the systemic inflammatory response syndrome​ (SIRS) and the quick​ sepsis-related organ failure assessment​ (qSOFA)?

A. SIRS is more commonly used in the intensive care​ setting, whereas qSOFA is more commonly used in field assessments.
B. SIRS relies on the measurement of exhaled carbon dioxide to detect​ sepsis, whereas qSOFA uses a variety of measures.
C. SIRS creates a score based on the number of abnormal​ findings, whereas qSOFA uses the presence of two or more specific criteria.
D. SIRS is used to predict the likelihood a patient will develop​ sepsis, whereas qSOFA is used to predict the likelihood of patient death from sepsis.

Answer 120

D. SIRS is used to predict the likelihood a patient will develop​ sepsis, whereas qSOFA is used to predict the likelihood of patient death from sepsis.

Question 121

Chapter 24
According to the systemic inflammatory response syndrome​ (SIRS) system, which of the following criteria would not contribute to a​ patient’s likelihood of developing​ sepsis?

A. Systolic blood pressure of 76
B. Temperature of 95.3F
C. Respiratory rate of 32
D. Heart rate of 87

Answer 121

D. Heart rate of 87

Question 122

Chapter 25
Barbiturates may be referred to as which of the​ following?

A. Uppers
B. Acid
C. Meth
D. Downers

Answer 122

D. Downers

Question 123

Chapter 25
What clinical finding is most suggestive of an inhaled​ poison?

A. Swollen tongue
B. Black-colored sputum
C. Altered mental status
D. Tachypnea

Answer 123

B. Black-colored sputum

Question 124

Chapter 25
Which of the following is a trade name for activated​ charcoal?

A. Charcoal
B. Mesquite
C. Actidose
D. Actifed

Answer 124

C. Actidose

Question 125

Chapter 25
Which of the following is not part of the treatment for a​ 15-year-old female who has swallowed drain​ cleaner?\

A. Administer activated charcoal.
B. Administer milk or water.
C. Maintain the airway.
D. Call medical control.

Answer 125

A. Administer activated charcoal.

Question 126

Chapter 25
Which of the following statements regarding syrup of ipecac is not​ true?

A. It removes only about​ one-third of stomach contents.
B. It causes vomiting in all patients with a single dose.
C. It can cause a patient to aspirate stomach contents into the lungs.
D. It has an immediate action.

Answer 126

D. It has an immediate action.

Question 127

Chapter 25
You respond to the county jail for a​ 48-year-old inmate arrested two days ago for public intoxication. Guards state the patient is a known alcoholic and​ “frequent flier.” The guards state that for several hours the patient was​ “acting crazy” and seeing​ “bugs on the​ walls.” The patient then began seizing and they called for an ambulance. You notice the patient is no longer​ seizing, diaphoretic, or confused. What condition do you​ suspect?

A. Alcohol poisoning
B. LSD abuse
C. Acute episode of paranoid schizophrenia
D. Delirium tremens

Answer 127

D. Delirium tremens

Question 128

Chapter 25
Your patient has come in contact with a strong acid substance. Using an alkaline solution to treat the patient may result in which of the​ following?

A. Further damage to the​ patient’s tissues
B. Production of heat when the acid and alkali interact
C. Neutralization of the acid substance
D. All of the above

Answer 128

D. All of the above

Question 129

Chapter 25
Which of the following is an injury that commonly occurs in alcoholic patients with even minor head​ injuries?

A. Subdural hematoma
B. Skull fracture
C. Concussion
D. Intracerebral hematoma

Answer 129

A. Subdural hematoma

Question 130

Chapter 25
A patient who has abused​ “uppers” will display which of the following signs and​ symptoms?

A. Constricted​ pupils, hypotension, and blurred vision
B. Dilated​ pupils, excessive​ salivation, and food cravings
C. Excessive​ talkativeness, dilated​ pupils, and dry mouth
D. Slurred​ speech, constricted​ pupils, and frequent urination

Answer 130

C. Excessive​ talkativeness, dilated​ pupils, and dry mouth

Question 131

Chapter 25
The drug ecstasy is classified as what type of​ drug?

A. Barbiturate
B. Tranquilizer
C. Hallucinogen
D. Depressant

Answer 131

C. Hallucinogen

Question 132

Chapter 25
Your patient is a​ 17-year-old male who is spitting and coughing after swallowing some gasoline while siphoning from a gas tank. Which of the following should you do​ first?

A. Administer syrup of ipecac.
B. Contact medical control.
C. Have the patient drink a glass of milk.
D. Insert a Combitube or another blind insertion​ device, if you are trained to do so.

Answer 132

B. Contact medical control.

Question 133

Chapter 25
The opioid triad includes all of the following except​:

A. pinpoint pupils.
B. coma.
C. hypertension.
D. respiratory depression.

Answer 133

C. hypertension.

Question 134

Chapter 25
You are called to the scene of a​ 17-year-old female patient who is unresponsive. Her mother suspects that she tried to commit suicide by taking her pain pills. The patient is unresponsive to painful​ stimuli, has agonal​ respirations, and has vomited. She has a weak carotid pulse. After securing the airway and providing oxygen by​ bag-valve mask, what is your next​ action?

A. Ask the mother the name of her pain medication.
B. Perform a secondary assessment of the patient.
C. Question the mother about the​ patient’s suicidal tendencies.
D. Perform a focused assessment.

Answer 134

B. Perform a secondary assessment of the patient.

Question 135

Chapter 25
Which of the following is the cause of the black residue found in a​ patient’s mouth and nose following smoke​ inhalation?

A. Carbon
B. Cyanide
C. Carbon monoxide
D. Tar

Answer 135

A. Carbon

Question 136

Chapter 25
Most cases of accidental poisoning involve which of the​ following?

A. Adults
B. Infants
C. Young children
D. Adolescents

Answer 136

C. Young children

Question 137

Chapter 25
Your patient is a​ 23-year-old male who is unresponsive in the restroom of a bar. His respirations are slow and​ shallow, he has a heart rate of 50 beats per​ minute, he is sweating​ profusely, and he has constricted pupils. Which of the following substances is most likely responsible for the​ patient’s condition?

A. LSD
B. Heroin
C. PCP
D. Ecstasy

Answer 137

B. Heroin

Question 138

Chapter 25
Which of the following types of drugs may induce sleep or​ stupor?

A. Both Narcotics and Tranquilizers
B. Tranquilizers
C. Hallucinogens
D. Narcotics

Answer 138

A. Both Narcotics and Tranquilizers

Question 139

Chapter 26
You are called to the scene of a patient with abdominal pain. Upon​ arrival, you find a​ 38-year-old Asian man on the floor next to his desk writhing in pain. He is complaining of severe​ right-sided flank pain. His blood pressure is​ 140/90, pulse​ 100, and his skin is ashen and diaphoretic. You​ suspect:

A. renal colic.
B. mid-cycle pain.
C. cholecystitis.
D. myocardial infarction.

Answer 139

A. renal colic.

Question 140

Chapter 26
You respond to a​ 75-year-old female who is complaining of epigastric pain that feels like heartburn. The pain radiates to the right shoulder. Her vital signs are stable and she has a previous history of a myocardial infarction. She has prescription nitroglycerin tablets. She is most likely suffering​ from:

A. renal colic.
B. cholecystitis.
C. abdominal aortic aneurysm.
D. ectopic pregnancy.

Answer 140

B. cholecystitis.

Question 141

Chapter 26
Most organs of the abdomen are enclosed within​ the:

A. peritoneum.
B. retroperitoneal space.
C. midline.
D. extraperitoneal space.

Answer 141

A. peritoneum.

Question 142

Chapter 26
Which patient is experiencing visceral​ pain?

A. ​19-year-old female complaining of severe cramps in the lower abdominal quadrants
B. 45-year-old female complaining of abdominal pain​ “all over”
C. 24-year-old male complaining of severe left flank pain
D. ​28-year-old male with sharp pain in the right lower quadrant

Answer 142

B. 45-year-old female complaining of abdominal pain​ “all over”

Question 143

Chapter 26
The detection of a bulging mass through the belly button that is not pulsating should make the EMT suspicious that the patient may be suffering from which of the​ following?

A. Ulcer
B. Abdominal aortic aneurysm
C. Gastroenteritis
D. Hernia

Answer 143

D. Hernia

Question 144

Chapter 26
Pain that originates in an​ organ, such as the​ intestines, is called​ ________ pain.

A. visceral
B. acute
C. referred
D. parietal

Answer 144

A. visceral

Question 145

Chapter 26
Which abdominal quadrant contains the​ appendix?

A. Left upper
B. Right lower
C. Left lower
D. Right upper

Answer 145

B. Right lower

Question 146

Chapter 26
Which of the following is not a cause of parietal​ pain?

A. Bleeding into the abdominal cavity
B. Infection
C. Inflammation
D. Muscle spasm

Answer 146

D. Muscle spasm

Question 147

Chapter 26
Organs of the right upper quadrant​ include:

A. pancreas, spleen, and part of the liver.
B. small​ intestine, stomach, and spleen.
C. most of the​ liver, gallbladder, and part of the large intestine.
D. most of the​ liver, spleen, and gallbladder.

Answer 147

C. most of the​ liver, gallbladder, and part of the large intestine.

Question 148

Chapter 26
You are called to a​ 25-year-old male complaining of right lower quadrant​ (RLQ) pain. His other symptoms are nausea and​ vomiting, fever, and decreasing pain in the umbilicus area. As an​ EMT, you feel this patient might​ have:

A. pancreatitis.
B. peritonitis.
C. appendicitis.
D. cholecystitis.

Answer 148

C. appendicitis.

Question 149

Chapter 26
Pain felt in the epigastric region of the abdomen is of concern because of the possibility of which of the​ following?

A. Kidney stones
B. Extreme diarrhea with dehydration
C. Myocardial infarction
D. Influenza

Answer 149

C. Myocardial infarction

Question 150

Chapter 26
With the exception of the​ ________, most abdominal organs are not able to sense tearing sensations.

A. liver
B. ovaries
C. colon
D. aorta

Answer 150

D. aorta

Question 151

Chapter 26
Which of the following organs is located in the retroperitoneal​ space?

A. Liver
B. Kidneys
C. Stomach
D. Uterus

Answer 151

B. Kidneys

Question 152

Chapter 26
You respond to the scene of a​ 50-year-old male complaining of severe abdominal pain. He has a history of alcohol and drug abuse. His vital signs are stable and he presents with epigastric pain that radiates to the back. He has guarding and point tenderness in the upper quadrants. You​ suspect:

A. cholecystitis.
B. gastroesophageal reflux disease​ (GERD).
C. myocardial infarction.
D. pancreatitis.

Answer 152

D. pancreatitis.

Question 153

Chapter 26
Your patient is a​ 40-year-old female who has been experiencing abdominal pain and vomiting for 2 days. She is now responsive to verbal​ stimulus; has​ cool, dry​ skin; a heart rate of​ 116; respirations of​ 24; and a blood pressure of​ 100/70. Which of the following is the best position for transporting this​ patient?

A. Sitting up at a​ 45-degree angle
B. Sitting up at a​ 90-degree angle
C. Supine with the knees bent
D. Left lateral recumbent with the legs bent

Answer 153

D. Left lateral recumbent with the legs bent

Question 154

Chapter 26
You are called to a residence for a​ 48-year-old male patient. He is lying in​ bed, groaning in pain and curled into a fetal position. His blood pressure is​ 88/50, pulse​ 136, and respiratory rate of 32. His wife states that he complained of lower right abdominal pain for several days that got progressively​ worse, until about an hour ago when it became suddenly unbearable. The wife states the husband had been refusing to see a​ doctor, but she finally called 911. You suspect appendicitis and are concerned about the subsequent onset​ of:

A. pancreatitis.
B. renal colic.
C. splenic rupture.
D. peritonitis.

Answer 154

D. peritonitis.

Question 155

Chapter 26
Which of the following is true concerning parietal​ pain?

A. It is often described as​ “crampy” or​ “colicky.”
B. It is generally localized to a particular area.
C. It arises from solid organs.
D. It is usually intermittent in nature.

Answer 155

B. It is generally localized to a particular area.

Question 156

Chapter 27
Neurotransmitters are chemicals within the body that transmit the message from the distal end of one neuron​ (presynaptic neuron) to the proximal end of the next neuron​ (postsynaptic neuron). While it sounds like a complicated​ process, it takes only milliseconds. Which one of the following sentences is false​?

A. After the impulse is​ transmitted, the neurotransmitter goes through a process called​ reuptake, in which the neurotransmitter is returned to the postsynaptic neuron.
B. The receptors on the postsynaptic neuron receive the neurotransmitter.
C. This is the mechanism by which the impulse is moved along the nervous system.
D. Neurotransmitters are released from a​ neuron, then travel across the synapse to the next neuron.

Answer 156

A. After the impulse is​ transmitted, the neurotransmitter goes through a process called​ reuptake, in which the neurotransmitter is returned to the postsynaptic neuron.

Question 157

Chapter 27
You respond to the scene of a private residence for a patient who is known to have​ insulin-dependent diabetes. The patient is combative and cursing as you approach. Should this patient be​ restrained?

A. There is not enough information to answer this question.
B. ​No, this patient is not likely experiencing a behavioral emergency.
C. ​Yes, he is combative and all combative patients can be restrained.
D. Yes, he likely has a medical condition that requires treatment.

Answer 157

A. There is not enough information to answer this question.

Question 158

Chapter 27
You are confronted with a patient experiencing personality changes ranging from irritability to irrational​ behavior, altered mental​ status, amnesia or​ confusion, irregular​ respirations, elevated blood​ pressure, and decreasing pulse. It appears to be a psychiatric emergency. What else could cause this​ behavior?

A. Head injury
B. Low blood sugar
C. Lack of oxygen
D. Stroke

Answer 158

A. Head injury

Question 159

Chapter 27
Which of the following statements concerning forcible restraint of patients is true​?

A. It causes irreparable emotional harm to most patients.
B. This is necessary only with mentally ill individuals.
C. It is easily accomplished by two EMTs with a good plan.
D. This is normally considered to be within the jurisdiction of law enforcement.

Answer 159

D. This is normally considered to be within the jurisdiction of law enforcement.

Question 160

Chapter 27
EMTs may come across a situation where a patient begins to act extremely agitated or psychotic. Uncontrolled psychiatric illness and sometimes drug intoxication may be present. The patient may suddenly cease​ struggling, and often within minutes the patient develops inadequate or absent respirations and subsequently dies. It is important for the EMT to be alert for this sequence of events in a patient who exhibits this behavior and monitor the patient constantly throughout the call. This condition is​ called:

A. bipolar disorder.
B. psychotic delirium.
C. excited psychosis.
D. excited or agitated delirium.

Answer 160

D. excited or agitated delirium.

Question 161

Chapter 27
When a patient or bystander at the scene of an emergency displays​ fear, anger, or​ grief, this is best described as which of the​ following?

A. Neurosis
B. ​Post-traumatic stress disorder
C. Stress reaction
D. Catharsis

Answer 161

C. Stress reaction

Question 162

Chapter 27
According to​ coworkers, your​ 25-year-old female patient suddenly began acting aggressively and being verbally abusive. She tells you she is​ “starving” and you notice that she is pale and diaphoretic. Which of the following would be an appropriate general​ impression?

A. Sudden onset of schizophrenia
B. An underlying physical illness
C. Alcoholic intoxication
D. Alcohol withdrawal

Answer 162

B. An underlying physical illness

Question 163

Chapter 27
It is important​ that, as an EMS​ provider, you avoid creating a situation where positional asphyxia could occur. Which of the following is positional​ asphyxia?

A. Positional asphyxia is inadequate breathing or respiratory arrest caused by a body position that restricts breathing.
B. Positional asphyxia is a birth defect that causes psychiatric issues and is initiated because of the way the fetus was positioned in the uterus.
C. Positional asphyxia is the position the person is seated in when you approach him.
D. Positional asphyxia is the name for the position someone assumes after she has been hit with a taser.

Answer 163

A. Positional asphyxia is inadequate breathing or respiratory arrest caused by a body position that restricts breathing.

Question 164

Chapter 28
What is one of the most common diseases to affect the renal and urinary​ system?

A. ​End-stage renal disease
B. Acute renal failure
C. Kidney stones
D. Urinary tract infections

Answer 164

D. Urinary tract infections

Question 165

Chapter 28
What is the purpose of the red blood​ cells?

A. They are crucial in the formation of clots.
B. They are critical in response to infection and are mediators of the​ body’s immune response.
C. They are responsible for the removal of oxygen from the cells.
D. They are responsible for the delivery of oxygen to the cells.

Answer 165

D. They are responsible for the delivery of oxygen to the cells.

Question 166

Chapter 28
Which of the following pathologies put patients at high risk for acute renal​ failure?

A. Shock
B. Polycystic kidney disease
C. Uncontrolled diabetes
D. Hypertension

Answer 166

A. Shock

Question 167

Chapter 28
You are dispatched to a private residence for a sick person. When you​ arrive, you are told by the patient that due to the snow storm yesterday he missed his scheduled appointment at the dialysis center and is not feeling well. Your assessment does not reveal anything remarkable outside of the fact that he has missed his dialysis. Which of the steps below would not be part of your​ care?

A. Assess the ABCs.
B. Place the patient in a supine position.
C. When you obtain vital​ signs, obtain a blood pressure on an arm that does not have a fistula.
D. Administer oxygen at 15 lpm by nonrebreather mask.

Answer 167

B. Place the patient in a supine position.

Question 168

Chapter 28
You encounter a patient who has been having diffuse abdominal pain for one week. The patient has a pulse rate of​ 86, a blood pressure of​ 140/90, and a respiratory rate of 20.​ However, the patient appears pale and complains of generalized weakness and shortness of breath during everyday activities. You suspect the patient is​ experiencing:

A. chronic anemia.
B. acute anemia.
C. sickle cell anemia.
D. anxiety disorder.

Answer 168

A. chronic anemia.

Question 169

Chapter 28
The most frequently transplanted organ is​ the:

A. pancreas.
B. liver.
C. kidney.
D. heart.

Answer 169

C. kidney.

Question 170

Chapter 28
Which of the following medications does not interfere with the​ blood-clotting process?

A. Aspirin
B. Acetaminophen
C. Clopidogrel
D. Warfarin

Answer 170

B. Acetaminophen

Question 171

Chapter 28
Which of the following abbreviations is not​ correct?

A. RBC for red blood cells
B. SCA for sickle cell anemia
C. WBC for white blood cells
D. CAPD for continuous acute peripheral disease

Answer 171

D. CAPD for continuous acute peripheral disease

Question 172

Chapter 28
The medications that transplant patients need to take for the rest of their lives to prevent organ rejection also often lead to high susceptibility​ of:

A. renal failure.
B. congestive heart failure.
C. infection.
D. ulcers.

Answer 172

C. infection.

Question 173

Chapter 28
Approximately what percentage of United States dialysis patients treat themselves at​ home?

A. 16 percent
B. 50 percent
C. 25 percent
D. 8 percent

Answer 173

D. 8 percent

Question 174

Chapter 28
Dialysis patients who have missed an appointment may present with signs of​ ________, which is a similar presentation to​ ________.

A. fluid​ accumulation; congestive heart failure
B. chest​ pain; acute myocardial infarction
C. neurological​ disturbances; stroke
D. shortness of​ breath; pneumonia

Answer 174

A. fluid​ accumulation; congestive heart failure

Question 175

Chapter 28
You are dispatched to a sick call. The patient was just extricated from a bathtub where he was trapped under the shower door for 2 days. The​ 72-year-old male had limited access to water from the bathtub faucet. The patient is complaining of​ disorientation, nausea, and vomiting. What do you think is the underlying cause for the​ illness?

A. Gastrointestinal infection
B. ​End-stage renal disease
C. Chronic renal failure
D. Acute renal failure

Answer 175

D. Acute renal failure

Question 176

Chapter 28
Under which of the following circumstances do the kidneys help the body retain​ fluid?

A. Urinary tract infection
B. Electrolyte imbalance
C. Kidney stones
D. Dehydration

Answer 176

D. Dehydration

Question 177

Chapter 28
Because of abnormally shaped​ hemoglobin, sickle cell anemia​ (SCA) patients may occasionally experience​ ________, causing a blockage of small blood vessels.

A. aggregation
B. clotting
C. sludging
D. clumping

Answer 177

C. sludging

Question 178

Chapter 28
One of the more serious diseases of the body is renal failure. Renal failure occurs when​ the:

A. kidneys fail to function as required.
B. liver fails to function properly.
C. adrenal glands stop working.
D. pancreas stops working.

Answer 178

A. kidneys fail to function as required.

Question 179

Chapter 28
How frequently is peritoneal dialysis treatment​ required?

A. Once a day
B. Once a week
C. Three to five times per week
D. Multiple treatments per day

Answer 179

D. Multiple treatments per day

Question 180

Chapter 28
Two chronic medical conditions that dialysis patients frequently have in addition to kidney failure are​ ________ and​ ________.

A. hypertension; diabetes
B. high​ cholesterol; cerebral aneurysms
C. heart​ failure; stroke
D. blood​ clots; COPD

Answer 180

A. hypertension; diabetes

Question 181

Chapter 28
A patient with renal disease who is currently on dialysis and missed an appointment may present with dangerously high levels of the​ electrolyte:

A. sodium.
B. calcium.
C. phosphorous.
D. potassium.

Answer 181

D. potassium.

Question 182

Chapter 28
What is continuous ambulatory peritoneal​ dialysis?

.
A. A gravity exchange process for peritoneal dialysis in which a bag of dialysis fluid is lowered below the level of an abdominal catheter to fill the abdominal cavity and raised above the level of the abdominal catheter to drain the fluid out
B. A type of dialysis that is performed while walking
C. A mechanical process for peritoneal dialysis in which a machine fills and empties the abdominal cavity of dialysis solution
D. A gravity exchange process for peritoneal dialysis in which a bag of dialysis fluid is raised above the level of an abdominal catheter to fill the abdominal cavity and lowered below the level of the abdominal catheter to drain the fluid out

Answer 182

D. A gravity exchange process for peritoneal dialysis in which a bag of dialysis fluid is raised above the level of an abdominal catheter to fill the abdominal cavity and lowered below the level of the abdominal catheter to drain the fluid out

Question 183

Chapter 1
Which of the following is a personal trait an EMT should​ demonstrate?

A. Self-starter
B. Strong communication
C. Good eyesight
D. Strong student

Answer 183

A. Self-starter

Question 184

Chapter 1
The application of oxygen for a patient who is short of breath without having to contact the physician in the emergency department because of existing protocols is an example of which of the​ following?

A. Standards of care
B. On-line medical direction
C. Breach of duty
D. Standing orders

Answer 184

D. Standing orders

Question 185

Chapter 1
Upon arrival at the​ hospital, the EMT advises hospital personnel of the​ patient’s condition, observations from the​ scene, treatment​ rendered, and other pertinent data to assure continuity of care. This process is known as which of the​ following?

A. Definitive care
B. Breach of duty
C. Transfer of care
D. Patient advocacy

Answer 185

C. Transfer of care

Question 186

Chapter 2
Which of the following is a physiologic effect of the stress triad as described by the physician Hans​ Selye?

A. Atrophy of the adrenal glands
B. Hypertrophy of the lymph nodes
C. Bleeding gastric ulcers
D. Amnesia for stressful events

Answer 186

C. Bleeding gastric ulcers

Question 187

Chapter 2
Which of the following parts of the nervous system is responsible for the​ fight-or-flight response experienced in response to a​ stressor?

A. Peripheral nervous system
B. Parasympathetic nervous system
C. Sympathetic nervous system
D. Central nervous system

Answer 187

C. Sympathetic nervous system

Question 188

Chapter 2
You are treating a patient who has a productive cough and who reports weight​ loss, loss of​ appetite, weakness, night​ sweats, and fever. Which of the following diseases is most likely the cause of these signs and​ symptoms?

A. AIDS
B. Pneumonia
C. Tuberculosis
D. Hepatitis B

Answer 188

C. Tuberculosis

Question 189

Chapter 2
Which of the following terms is best defined as​ “a state of physical​ and/or psychological arousal to a​ stimulus”?

A. Homeostasis
B. Stress
C. Distress
D. Eustress

Answer 189

B. Stress

Question 190

Chapter 2
You are approaching the scene of a motor vehicle crash. Which of the following would be the first way to safeguard your​ well-being as an​ EMT?

A. Request additional resources.
B. Take personal protective equipment​ (PPE) precautions.
C. Ensure scene safety.
D. Utilize​ DOT-approved reflective safety clothing.

Answer 190

C. Ensure scene safety.

Question 191

Chapter 2
The​ body’s three-stage response to a stressful stimulation is known as general​ ________ syndrome.

A. resistance
B. incident
C. reaction
D. adaptation

Answer 191

D. adaptation

Question 192

Chapter 2
Which hormone helps the body control​ stress, regulate​ metabolism, and influence an immune​ response?

A. Cortisol
B. Epinephrine
C. Immunoglobulin
D. Serotonin

Answer 192

A. Cortisol

Question 193

Chapter 2
Which of the following behaviors would be considered a common sign of stress rather than an acute psychological​ problem?

A. Increased speeding and reckless driving
B. ​Flashbacks, nightmares, and feelings of detachment
C. Irritability with​ friends, family, and coworkers
D. Failure to use PPE appropriately on a regular basis

Answer 193

C. Irritability with​ friends, family, and coworkers

Question 194

Chapter 3
Which of the following best describes body​ mechanics?

A. Equipment designed to minimize stress on the​ user’s body
B. Proper use of the body to facilitate lifting and moving objects
C. Proper use of the body to protect patient safety
D. Maintaining correct body posture to improve ergonomics

Answer 194

B. Proper use of the body to facilitate lifting and moving objects

Question 195

Chapter 3
Which of the following should you use when you want to move a patient from a wheelchair to a​ stretcher?

A. Extremity lift
B. Modified direct lift
C. Clothing lift
D. Ground transfer

Answer 195

A. Extremity lift

Question 196

Chapter 3
You are treating an unconscious patient who does not have a possibility of spinal injury and who is breathing adequately. Which of the following is the best position for transporting the​ patient?

A. Fowler position
B. Supine
C. Recovery position
D. Semi-Fowler position

Answer 196

C. Recovery position

Question 197

Chapter 4
Which of the following refers to the set of regulations that defines the legal actions expected of and limitations placed on the​ EMT?

A. Protocols and standing orders
B. Scope of practice
C. Professional standards
D. Legal standards of practice

Answer 197

B. Scope of practice

Question 198

Chapter 4
Which of the following is not required to prove a claim of negligence against an​ EMT?

A. The EMT had a duty to act.
B. The patient was in fear of bodily harm at the time of the incident.
C. Proximate causation existed.
D. The EMT failed to act according to the standard of care.

Answer 198

B. The patient was in fear of bodily harm at the time of the incident.

Question 199

Chapter 4
The​ EMT’s obligation to provide care to a patient either as a formal or ethical responsibility is known as which of the​ following?

A. Standard of care
B. Scope of practice
C. Duty to act
D. Legal responsibility

Answer 199

C. Duty to act

Question 200

Chapter 6
Which of the following types of blood vessels allow the exchange of substances directly between the blood and the cells of the​ body?

A. Capillaries
B. Arterioles
C. Veins
D. Alveoli

Answer 200

A. Capillaries

Question 201

Chapter 6
What is not one of the primary organs for the female reproductive​ system?

A. Urethra
B. Ovaries
C. Uterus
D. Vagina

Answer 201

A. Urethra

Question 202

Chapter 6
Which of the following structures closes over the trachea to protect it during​ swallowing?

A. Pharynx
B. Diaphragm
C. Epiglottis
D. Cricoid cartilage

Answer 202

C. Epiglottis

Question 203

Chapter 7
Stroke volume depends on a series of​ factors: one is the force the myocardial muscle exerts to move the blood. This is known​ as:

A. contractility.
B. preload.
C. afterload.
D. automaticity

Answer 203

A. contractility.

Question 204

Chapter 7
The sympathetic nervous response causes which of the following to​ occur?

A. Breathing becomes faster and​ deeper, blood vessels​ constrict, heart beats stronger and​ faster, skins​ sweats, pupils​ constrict, and skin becomes warm.
B. Breathing becomes faster and​ deeper, blood vessels​ dilate, heart beats stronger and​ slower, skin​ sweats, pupils​ dilate, and skin becomes pale.
C. Breathing becomes slower and​ deeper, blood vessels​ dilate, heart beats stronger and​ faster, skin​ sweats, pupils​ constrict, and skin becomes pale.
D. Breathing becomes faster and​ deeper, blood vessels​ constrict, heart beats stronger and​ faster, skin​ sweats, pupils​ dilate, and skin becomes pale.

Answer 204

D. Breathing becomes faster and​ deeper, blood vessels​ constrict, heart beats stronger and​ faster, skin​ sweats, pupils​ dilate, and skin becomes pale.

Question 205

Chapter 7
When the​ body’s water moves from the bloodstream into the interstitial​ space, this can often be seen​ as:

A. hypovolemia.
B. hydrostatic pressure.
C. edema.
D. dehydration.

Answer 205

C. edema.

Question 206

Chapter 7
Your patient is an​ 86-year-old male with congestive heart failure. He called for help tonight because he cannot breathe and feels like he is​ “drowning in his own​ lungs.” The patient has had several heart attacks in the past and he tells you his​ “heart is​ shot.” What is not a likely reason the​ patient’s cardiac output is​ diminished?

A. The​ heart’s force of contraction is reduced​ (contractility diminished).
B. Less blood fills his heart with each contraction​ (preload diminished).
C. The pressure in the system against which the heart must pump is increased​ (afterload increased).
D. Chemoreceptors are signaling that he has high levels of carbon dioxide in his bloodstream.

Answer 206

D. Chemoreceptors are signaling that he has high levels of carbon dioxide in his bloodstream.

Question 207

Chapter 7
A​ 12-year-old female patient is having an asthma attack after participating in some strenuous activity during recess at school.​ She’s taken several doses of her own bronchodilator with little relief. Your partner immediately administers oxygen. Providing supplemental oxygen will increase the amount of oxygen molecules carried by the​ ________ in her​ blood, helping oxygenate critical organs like the brain.

A. white blood cells
B. plasma
C. albumin
D. hemoglobin

Answer 207

D. hemoglobin

Question 208

Chapter 7
The cellular structure that is responsible for synthesizing proteins is​ the:

A. nucleus.
B. mitochondria.
C. endoplasmic reticulum.
D. sodium pump.

Answer 208

C. endoplasmic reticulum.

Question 209

Chapter 7
The balance between oncotic pressure and hydrostatic pressure is critical to​ regulating:

A. oxygenation and perfusion.
B. waste removal and urine.
C. blood pressure and cell hydration.
D. perfusion and proper circulation to the tissues.

Answer 209

C. blood pressure and cell hydration.

Question 210

Chapter 7
Which of the following is not an indicator that a​ patient’s nervous system has been​ impaired?

A. Pale, sweaty skin
B. Changes in pupil dilation
C. Hearing disturbances
D. General weakness

Answer 210

A. Pale, sweaty skin

Question 211

Chapter 7
The potential space between the lung and chest wall is called​ the:

A. dead space.
B. pleural space.
C. carina space.
D. lung space.

Answer 211

B. pleural space.

Question 212

Chapter 8
When you startle a​ 4-month-old, he throws his arms​ out, spreads his​ fingers, then grabs with his fingers and arms. The reaction is known as​ the:

A. rooting reflex.
B. scaffolding reflex.
C. startle reflex.
D. Moro reflex.

Answer 212

D. Moro reflex.

Question 213

Chapter 8
Patients in late adulthood are likely to face which of the following​ challenges?

A. Tax burden
B. Self-worth
C. Hygiene
D. All of the above

Answer 213

B. Self-worth

Question 214

Chapter 8
Which of the following would be a normal set of vitals for a​ 4-year-old male​ patient?

A. Heart rate​ 110/minute, respiratory rate​ 24/minute, and systolic blood pressure of 98 mmHg
B. Heart rate​ 60/minute, respiratory rate​ 24/minute, and systolic blood pressure of 96 mmHg
C. Heart rate​ 140/minute, respiratory rate​ 30/minute, and systolic blood pressure of 60 mmHg
D. Heart rate​ 100/minute, respiratory rate​ 44/minute, and systolic blood pressure of 100 mmHg

Answer 214

A. Heart rate​ 110/minute, respiratory rate​ 24/minute, and systolic blood pressure of 98 mmHg

Question 215

Chapter 10
Which of the following is necessary to deliver oxygen to patients at a safe​ pressure?

A. Flowmeter
B. Filter
C. Regulator
D. Float ball

Answer 215

C. Regulator

Question 216

Chapter 10
The movement of oxygen and carbon dioxide between the alveoli and circulating blood is​ called:

A. pulmonary respiration.
B. diffusion.
C. internal respiration.
D. cellular respiration.

Answer 216

A. pulmonary respiration.

Question 217

Chapter 10
Why does a patient involved in an auto crash who has major internal abdominal bleeding require oxygen to maintain internal​ respiration?

A. The swelling of the abdominal space causes the diaphragm to be​ restricted, which will reduce the thorax space.
B. A lack of circulating volume decreases the oxygen and carbon dioxide transport capability of the blood.
C. A lack of oxygen in the air decreases the oxygen diffused into the​ bloodstream, which creates an increase of carbon dioxide.
D. The remaining red blood cells have a reduction of hemoglobin that reduces the amount of oxygen that can be transported.

Answer 217

B. A lack of circulating volume decreases the oxygen and carbon dioxide transport capability of the blood.

Question 218

Chapter 10
You are aggressively ventilating an adult patient with a​ bag-valve mask when you notice that his previously strong pulse is getting weaker. You​ should:

A. increase the concentration of oxygen.
B. reduce the concentration of oxygen.
C. begin chest compressions.
D. reduce the volume of the ventilations.

Answer 218

D. reduce the volume of the ventilations.

Question 219

Chapter 10
While ventilating an intubated patient with a​ bag-valve-mask-unit, you notice increased resistance to the ventilations. This may indicate​ that:

A. air is escaping through a hole in the lung and filling the pleural space.
B. the gag reflex is returning.
C. cardiac arrest is imminent.
D. the patient is becoming more alert and is breathing independently.

Answer 219

A. air is escaping through a hole in the lung and filling the pleural space.

Question 220

Chapter 10
Which of the following oxygen cylinders would normally run out after 50 minutes when flowing at 10 liters per​ minute? Assume a pressure of​ 2,000 psi displayed on the pressure gauge.

A. M cylinder
B. E cylinder
C. G cylinder
D. D cylinder

Answer 220

B. E cylinder

Question 221

Chapter 11
You should have a keen awareness that there may be injuries based on your scene​ size-up. This is known as which of the​ following?

A. Nature of illness
B. Index of suspicion
C. Mechanism of injury
D. Law of inertia

Answer 221

B. Index of suspicion

Question 222

Chapter 12
In the primary​ assessment, which of the following is not an acceptable method of assessing the​ patient’s circulatory​ status?

A. Assessing the​ patient’s skin color
B. Looking for serious bleeding
C. Taking a blood pressure reading
D. Checking a radial pulse

Answer 222

C. Taking a blood pressure reading

Question 223

Chapter 13
What category would include a patient with a blood pressure of​ 134/84 mmHg?

A. Hypotension
B. Hypertension
C. Prehypertension
D. Normotension

Answer 223

C. Prehypertension

Question 224

Chapter 13
You respond to a childcare center for a report of an injured​ 4-year-old. Her pulse is 130 beats per minute. Which of the following best describes this​ finding?

A. Normal for the​ child’s age
B. Tachycardic
C. Bradycardic
D. Unable to determine without knowing the family history

Answer 224

B. Tachycardic

Question 225

Chapter 13
Which of the following best describes the proper placement of the blood pressure​ cuff?

A. One inch below the armpit
B. Covering​ two-thirds of the upper arm
C. Midway between the elbow and shoulder
D. Covering the​ patient’s elbow

Answer 225

B. Covering​ two-thirds of the upper arm

Question 226

Chapter 15
In which of the following patients should you check for the possibility of spinal​ injury?

A. A responsive patient with no history of injury who is complaining of a headache and neck pain
B. An unresponsive patient found in her bed with no obvious injury
C. An unresponsive diabetic who appears to have fallen down
D. All of the above

Answer 226

C. An unresponsive diabetic who appears to have fallen down

Question 227

Chapter 15
Immediately following a rapid physical exam on an unresponsive medical​ patient, which of the following should you do​ next?

A. Obtain baseline vital signs.
B. Find out who the​ patient’s doctor is.
C. Perform a focused physical exam.
D. Check the scene for medications.

Answer 227

A. Obtain baseline vital signs.

Question 228

Chapter 15
Your patient was struck in the chest with a baseball bat during a bar fight. A crackling or crunching sensation that is felt when air escapes from its normal passageways and is trapped under the skin is​ called:

A. subcutaneous emphysema.
B. tension pneumothorax.
C. distention.
D. crepitation.

Answer 228

A. subcutaneous emphysema.

Question 229

Chapter 15
You are called for a patient who was discovered unconscious in his bed this morning. You immediately complete a primary assessment and determine that he is breathing and has a good pulse. What should you do​ next?

A. Complete a rapid physical exam.
B. Try to locate all of his medications.
C. Ask the family what happened.
D. Begin transport immediately.

Answer 229

A. Complete a rapid physical exam.

Question 230

Chapter 15
Your patient is an unresponsive​ 40-year-old woman. Which of the following should you do​ first?

A. Ask her husband if she has any known allergies.
B. Perform a rapid physical exam.
C. Take her blood pressure.
D. Immediately request advanced life support.

Answer 230

B. Perform a rapid physical exam.

Question 231

Chapter 15
Your patient has been hit in the arm with a baseball during practice. He is alert and​ oriented, complaining of pain to his left arm with obvious black discoloration of the skin. What type of assessment is called for in this​ situation?

A. Detailed physical exam
B. Rapid trauma exam
C. Focused exam
D. Area exam

Answer 231

C. Focused exam

Question 232

Chapter 15
Your patient is the​ 18-year-old male driver of a vehicle that struck a tree. He is conscious and complaining of neck pain. The passenger is obviously dead. You have performed your primary assessment. Which of the following is the next​ step?

A. Immobilize the patient on a long backboard and perform a detailed examination in the ambulance.
B. Rule out the possibility of cervical spine injury before moving the patient.
C. Perform a tertiary assessment.
D. Perform a rapid trauma assessment.

Answer 232

D. Perform a rapid trauma assessment.

Question 233

Chapter 17
Which of the following is not appropriate to document on your patient care​ report?

A. Patient’s mental status
B. Patient’s attitude
C. Patient’s race
D. All should be documented

Answer 233

D. All should be documented

Question 234

Chapter 17
Which of the following is not an objective element of documented patient​ information?

A. ​Patient’s blood pressure
B. ​Patient’s complaint of nausea
C. Patient’s age
D. Position in which the patient was found

Answer 234

B. ​Patient’s complaint of nausea

Question 235

Chapter 19
Which of the following signs of inadequate breathing is more prominent in children than in​ adults?

A. Grunting respirations
B. Seesawing of the chest and abdomen
C. Nasal flaring
D. All of the above

Answer 235

D. All of the above

Question 236

Chapter 20
You respond to the scene of a​ 56-year-old obese female complaining of respiratory distress. She states that she has been feeling weak and a​ “little sick” for the past two​ days, but the respiratory distress has been getting progressively worse for the past several hours. She states she has​ “heart problems,” suffers from high blood​ pressure, and takes a​ “water pill.” She is afebrile and has coarse crackles bilaterally. What is most likely the cause of her respiratory​ distress?

A. Aortic aneurysm
B. Congestive heart failure
C. Acute myocardial infarction
D. Dysrhythmia

Answer 236

B. Congestive heart failure

Question 237

Chapter 20
Which of the following is a condition that can result from fatty deposits forming in the inner lining of the​ arteries?

A. Coronary thrombosis
B. Aneurysm
C. Coronary artery disease
D. Arteriosclerosis

Answer 237

C. Coronary artery disease

Question 238

Chapter 20
What stimulates a mechanical contraction of the cells of the​ heart, creating a mechanical squeeze used to push​ blood?

A. Left and right atria
B. Electrical energy
C. Left ventricle
D. Right ventricle

Answer 238

B. Electrical energy

Question 239

Chapter 20
Which of the following is the beneficial action of a beta blocker​ medication?

A. Causes​ vasoconstriction, increasing the blood pressure
B. Slows the heart rate
C. Increases the strength of myocardial contraction
D. Increases the amount of oxygen needed by the myocardium

Answer 239

B. Slows the heart rate

Question 240

Chapter 20
What is not a result of a mechanical malfunction of the​ heart?

A. Cardiogenic shock
B. Dysrhythmia
C. Cardiac arrest
D. Pulmonary edema

Answer 240

B. Dysrhythmia

Question 241

Chapter 21
Your patient is a​ 66-year-old female who has regained a pulse after a shock with an​ AED; however, she remains unresponsive and is not breathing adequately. Which of the following should be done​ next?

A. Ventilate the patient with​ high-concentration oxygen and transport immediately.
B. Remove the​ AED, assist the​ patient’s ventilations with a​ bag-valve mask and supplemental​ oxygen, and keep reassessing the pulse.
C. Apply a nonrebreather mask with​ high-concentration oxygen and keep reassessing the pulse.
D. Deliver a fourth shock to improve the​ patient’s respiratory status.

Answer 241

A. Ventilate the patient with​ high-concentration oxygen and transport immediately.

Question 242

Chapter 22
Your patient is a​ 25-year-old female with a history of diabetes. She is​ confused, agitated, and verbally abusive to​ you, and she is very sweaty. Although she refuses to give a history of the present​ illness, which of the following should you suspect as the likely cause of the​ patient’s presentation?

A. Excessive intake of foods high in​ sugar, such as soda or candy
B. Failure to take her insulin
C. Failure to intake sufficient sugar
D. A​ nondiabetic-related problem, such as a head injury or mental illness

Answer 242

C. Failure to intake sufficient sugar

Question 243

Chapter 22
For the reticular activating system​ (RAS) to work​ correctly, what three substances are​ needed?

A. Oxygen to perfuse brain​ tissue, insulin to nourish brain​ tissue, and water to keep the brain hydrated
B. Oxygen to perfuse brain​ tissue, glucose to nourish brain​ tissue, and sodium to keep the brain hydrated
C. Oxygen to perfuse brain​ tissue, insulin to nourish brain​ tissue, and sodium to keep the brain hydrated
D. Oxygen to perfuse brain​ tissue, glucose to nourish brain​ tissue, and water to keep the brain hydrated

Answer 243

D. Oxygen to perfuse brain​ tissue, glucose to nourish brain​ tissue, and water to keep the brain hydrated

Question 244

Chapter 22
Looking at the following​ list, which of the items does NOT correctly compare the signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia and​ hyperglycemia?

A. The hyperglycemic patient often has acetone​ breath, whereas the hypoglycemic patient does not.
B. The hypoglycemic patient usually complains of a​ headache, whereas the hyperglycemic patient does not.
C. Hyperglycemia usually has a slower onset than hypoglycemia.
D. Hyperglycemic patients often have​ warm, red, dry​ skin, whereas hypoglycemic patients have​ cold, pale,​ moist, or clammy skin.

Answer 244

B. The hypoglycemic patient usually complains of a​ headache, whereas the hyperglycemic patient does not.

Question 245

Chapter 22
The most common medical emergency for the diabetic is​ hypoglycemia, or low blood sugar. Which of the factors below is NOT a cause of​ hypoglycemia?

A. Takes too much insulin
B. Vomits a meal
C. Reduces sugar intake by eating too much
D. Over-exercises or​ over-exerts himself

Answer 245

C. Reduces sugar intake by eating too much

Question 246

Chapter 22
Which of the following conditions may be mimicked by​ hypoglycemia?

A. Intoxication
B. Heart attack
C. Respiratory distress
D. All of the above

Answer 246

A. Intoxication

Question 247

Chapter 22
You have arrived on the scene of a call for a possible stroke. On your​ arrival, the patient denies signs and​ symptoms, is alert and​ oriented, and moves all extremities well. Her husband states that before you arrived the patient could not move her right arm and the left side of her face seemed to be​ “slack.” Which of the following has most likely​ occurred?

A. The patient suffered a stroke.
B. The patient is suffering from aphasia.
C. The patient has had a subarachnoid hemorrhage.
D. The patient suffered a transient ischemic attack.

Answer 247

D. The patient suffered a transient ischemic attack.

Question 248

Chapter 22
Compared to​ hypoglycemia, which of the following is TRUE of​ hyperglycemia?

A. It is more easily treated in the prehospital environment than hypoglycemia.
B. Its onset is more gradual.
C. Its onset is more sudden.
D. Its onset is preceded by an​ aura, such as hallucinations or detecting unusual odors.

Answer 248

B. Its onset is more gradual.

Question 249

Chapter 22
Which of the following BEST describes status​ epilepticus?

A. A seizure that occurs without a known cause
B. A seizure involving convulsions on only one side of the body
C. A period of drowsiness following​ tonic-clonic seizures
D. Two or more seizures with​ tonic-clonic activity without an intervening period of consciousness

Answer 249

D. Two or more seizures with​ tonic-clonic activity without an intervening period of consciousness

Question 250

Chapter 22
Which of the following statements about seizures is NOT​ true?
A. The most common seizure that EMTs are likely to be called on is a​ tonic-clonic seizure.
B. Many seizures are followed by an aura.
C. A partial seizure affects one​ part, or one​ side, of the brain.
D. A generalized seizure affects the entire brain.

Answer 250

B. Many seizures are followed by an aura.

Question 251

Chapter 23
You are unsure whether a​ patient’s condition requires the administration of an epinephrine​ auto-injector. Which of the following actions is most​ appropriate?

A. Administer the​ epinephrine, just in case.
B. Ask a family member if this is the type of situation when the patient usually takes his​ auto-injector.
C. Consult with a paramedic on your service for advice.
D. None of the above

Answer 251

D. None of the above

Question 252

Chapter 23
You are called to a farmhouse on a sunny spring afternoon. Upon​ arrival, a frantic mother tells you that her​ 3-year-old daughter was playing in the​ yard, accidentally stepped on a​ hornets’ nest, and was stung repeatedly. The patient is​ alert, screaming and​ crying, and can follow her​ mother’s commands. Her arms and legs are swollen and show the marks of several stings. Her body is covered in hives. Her vital signs are blood pressure​ 90/40, pulse​ 110, respiratory rate​ 24, and oxygen saturation 99 percent. Her lung sounds are clear and equal bilaterally. Her mother states she put​ “nox-a-sting” on the bites but the bites only seemed to get worse. What condition is the patient suffering​ from?

A. Allergic reaction from the​ hornets’ stings
B. Anaphylactic reaction from the​ “nox-a-sting” swabs
C. Moderate anaphylactic reaction
D. Minor anaphylactic reaction

Answer 252

A. Allergic reaction from the​ hornets’ stings

Question 253

Chapter 23
A​ 35-year-old female has just eaten lobster and is now complaining of​ itchy, watery eyes. Her blood pressure is beginning to​ fall, but she denies difficulty breathing. Which of the following best describes her​ condition?

A. Shock
B. Anaphylaxis
C. Dyspnea
D. Mild allergy

Answer 253

B. Anaphylaxis

Question 254

Chapter 23
Which of the following is included in the primary assessment of a conscious patient suffering from anaphylactic​ shock?
A. Determining whether the​ patient’s systolic blood pressure is over 100 mmHg
B. Looking for hives and swelling
C. Assessing whether the patient is able to speak without difficulty
D. Finding out how the patient was exposed to the substance to which she is allergic

Answer 254

C. Assessing whether the patient is able to speak without difficulty

Question 255

Chapter 23
You are on the scene of a motor vehicle collision in which a car has driven off the roadway and is resting at the bottom of an embankment. The driver is in severe respiratory distress and is unable to speak. His skin is flushed and he has hives. A​ Medic-Alert bracelet indicates an allergy to peanuts. You notice a candy bar wrapper on the floor of the car. Which of the following should you do​ first?

A. Read the candy wrapper to see if it contains peanuts.
B. Administer​ high-concentration oxygen.
C. Perform rapid extrication.
D. Search the patient for an epinephrine​ auto-injector.

Answer 255

B. Administer​ high-concentration oxygen.

Question 256

Chapter 36
During which stage of labor is the baby​ born?

A. First
B. Second
C. Third
D. Primary

Answer 256

B. Second

Question 257

Chapter 36
You are assessing a pregnant woman whose chief complaint is vaginal bleeding. She is 8 months pregnant and has​ moderate, bright red bleeding with no abdominal pain. She says that her doctor was concerned about the location of the placenta. This condition is known​ as:

A. abruptio placentae.
B. placenta disruption.
C. unstable placenta.
D. placenta previa.

Answer 257

D. placenta previa.

Question 258

Chapter 36

Normal maternal blood loss during delivery of an infant usually does not exceed how​ much?

Answer 258

500 cc

Question 259

Chapter 36
Which of the following is the highest priority for the EMT when delivering an infant with​ meconium-stained amniotic​ fluid?

A. Vigorously rubbing the​ infant’s back immediately upon delivery to stimulate breathing
B. Checking for fever
C. Being prepared to suction the infant immediately before he takes a breath
D. None of the above

Answer 259

C. Being prepared to suction the infant immediately before he takes a breath

Question 260

Chapter 36
You are assessing a newborn patient 1 minute after delivery. You notice the patient has blue extremities with a pink​ trunk, a pulse of​ 120, and strong crying with good movement of all extremities. What is the​ newborn’s APGAR​ score?

A. 8
B. 9
C. 7
D. 10

Answer 260

B. 9

Question 261

Chapter 36
By which of the following means does the fetal blood pick up nourishment from the​ mother?

A. Osmosis
B. Diffusion
C. Indirect circulation
D. Direct circulation

Answer 261

B. Diffusion

Question 262

Chapter 36
Which of the following is true concerning trauma in the pregnant​ woman?

A. She may lose up to 15 percent of her blood volume before exhibiting signs of shock.
B. She may lose up to 35 percent of her blood volume before exhibiting signs of shock.
C. The​ mother’s body will preferentially protect the life of the fetus over that of the mother.
D. The increase in blood volume during pregnancy makes shock an unlikely cause of death.

Answer 262

B. She may lose up to 35 percent of her blood volume before exhibiting signs of shock.

Question 263

Chapter 36
Which of the following is true regarding ectopic​ pregnancies?

A. It usually occurs during the second trimester.
B. The fallopian tubes cannot stretch to accommodate a fetus.
C. The fertilized egg usually implants in the wall of the uterus.
D. It may cause painless bright red bleeding.

Answer 263

B. The fallopian tubes cannot stretch to accommodate a fetus.

Question 264

Chapter 36
Which of the following is a common sign of a​ pre-delivery emergency?

A. A sensation of lightening as the baby drops into the birth canal.
B. The amniotic sac ruptures.
C. There is profuse vaginal bleeding.
D. Contractions become more intense and closer together.

Answer 264

C. There is profuse vaginal bleeding.

Question 265

Chapter 36
Which of the following is of greatest concern for the EMT in the prehospital care of a woman with vaginal​ bleeding?

A. Finding out if the patient is currently sexually active
B. Obtaining a thorough gynecological history
C. Monitoring for hypovolemic shock
D. Preventing infection

Answer 265

. Monitoring for hypovolemic shock

Question 266

Chapter 36
Which of the following describes a breech​ presentation?

A. The infant presents buttocks first.
B. The infant presents with both feet first.
C. The infant presents face first.
D. Both A and B

Answer 266

D. Both A and B

Question 267

Chapter 36
Which of the following best describes placenta​ previa?

A. The placenta prematurely separates from the uterine wall.
B. The umbilical cord is the presenting part.
C. The placenta is implanted over the opening of the cervix.
D. The pregnancy is lost before the 20th week of gestation.

Answer 267

C. The placenta is implanted over the opening of the cervix.

Question 268

Chapter 37
Obesity is defined as a body mass index greater​ than:

A. 35
B. 40
C. 25
D. 30

Answer 268

D. 30

Question 269

Chapter 37
Which of the following is the best course of action for the EMT to take when caring for a patient with an AICD who goes into cardiac​ arrest?

A. No action beyond transport is required because the patient already has an implanted defibrillator.
B. The AED should be applied and​ used, but CPR should not be started while​ on-scene or transporting the patient.
C. CPR should be​ started, but the AED should not be used while​ on-scene or transporting the patient.
D. CPR and an AED should be used as indicated while​ on-scene and transporting the patient.

Answer 269

D. CPR and an AED should be used as indicated while​ on-scene and transporting the patient.

Question 270

Chapter 37
You are transporting a resident of a nursing home to the hospital for a complaint of abdominal pain that has lasted for 3 days. During your​ assessment, you note a tube protruding from the​ patient’s nose, which is connected to a bag of​ milky-white fluid. This tube is known as​ a(n):

A. nasogastric tube.
B. endotracheal tube.
C. gastric tube.
D. ​J-tube

Answer 270

A. nasogastric tube.

Question 271

Chapter 37
Where are automatic implanted cardiac defibrillators typically placed in patients who require​ one?

A. In the lower left chest
B. In the upper right chest
C. In the upper left chest
D. In the lower right chest

Answer 271

C. In the upper left chest

Question 272

Chapter 37
How does the pain felt by a patient when receiving a shock from a pacemaker compare to the pain felt when receiving a shock from an automatic implanted cardiac defibrillator​ (AICD)?

A. Pacemakers are painless and AICDs are painful.
B. Both are painful.
C. Pacemakers are painful and AICDs are painless.
D. Both are painless.

Answer 272

A. Pacemakers are painless and AICDs are painful.

Question 273

Chapter 26
You are called to the scene of a patient with abdominal pain. Upon​ arrival, you find a​ 38-year-old Asian man on the floor next to his desk writhing in pain. He is complaining of severe​ right-sided flank pain. His blood pressure is​ 140/90, pulse​ 100, and his skin is ashen and diaphoretic. You​ suspect:

A. mid-cycle pain.
B. cholecystitis.
C. renal colic.
D. myocardial infarction.

Answer 273

C. renal colic (R for RIGHT)

Question 274

Chapter 26
Which of the following is true concerning parietal​ pain?

A. It is generally localized to a particular area.
B. It is usually intermittent in nature.
C. It is often described as​ “crampy” or​ “colicky.”
D. It arises from solid organs.

Answer 274

A. It is generally localized to a particular area.

Question 275

Chapter 26
Which of the following is a characteristic of referred​ pain?

A. It is only felt in hollow organs.
B. It is caused by psychological stress.
C. It is usually described as​ “crampy” or​ “colicky.”
D. It is felt in a location other than the organ causing it.

Answer 275

D. It is felt in a location other than the organ causing it.

Question 276

Chapter 26
When the gallbladder is​ diseased, the pain is not only felt in the right upper quadrant​ (RUQ) but also in the right shoulder. This is known​ as:

A. visceral pain.
B. parietal pain.
C. tearing pain.
D. referred pain

Answer 276

D. referred pain

Question 277

Chapter 26
The detection of a bulging mass through the belly button that is not pulsating should make the EMT suspicious that the patient may be suffering from which of the​ following?

A. Gastroenteritis
B. Abdominal aortic aneurysm
C. Ulcer
D. Hernia

Answer 277

D. Hernia

Question 278

Chapter 26
Pain that the patient feels in a body part or area of the body that has nothing to do with a diseased organ is​ termed:

A. retroperitoneal pain.
B. abdominal pain.
C. referred pain.
D. epigastric pain.

Answer 278

C. referred pain.

Question 279

Chapter 26
Which of the following organs is located in the retroperitoneal​ space?

A. Uterus
B. Liver
C. Kidneys
D. Stomach

Answer 279

C. Kidneys

Question 280

Chapter 26
You respond to the scene of a​ 50-year-old male complaining of severe abdominal pain. He has a history of alcohol and drug abuse. His vital signs are stable and he presents with epigastric pain that radiates to the back. He has guarding and point tenderness in the upper quadrants. You​ suspect:

A. pancreatitis.
B. gastroesophageal reflux disease​ (GERD).
C. cholecystitis.
D. myocardial infarction.

Answer 280

A. pancreatitis.

Question 281

Chapter 27
When providing emergency care to an aggressive or hostile​ patient, what is the highest​ priority?

A. Finding out if the patient is oriented to​ person, time, and place
B. Checking the patient for possible physical causes of the behavior
C. Performing a scene​ size-up
D. Calming the patient down

Answer 281

C. Performing a scene​ size-up

Question 282

Chapter 27
You are confronted with a patient experiencing personality changes ranging from irritability to irrational​ behavior, altered mental​ status, amnesia or​ confusion, irregular​ respirations, elevated blood​ pressure, and decreasing pulse. It appears to be a psychiatric emergency. What else could cause this​ behavior?

A. Lack of oxygen
B. Head injury
C. Low blood sugar
D. Stroke

Answer 282

B. Head injury

Question 283

Chapter 27
Which of the following factors suggest that a patient is at risk for​ suicide?

A. Sudden improvement in depression
B. Alcohol and drug abuse
C. Recent emotional trauma
D. All of the above

Answer 283

D. All of the above

Question 284

Chapter 28
The​ kidney’s major​ function(s) include(s):

A. balancing electrolytes.
B. excreting urea.
C. maintaining blood volume.
D. All of the above

Answer 284

D. All of the above

Question 285

Chapter 28
A patient with renal disease who is currently on dialysis and missed an appointment may present with dangerously high levels of the​ electrolyte

A. phosphorous.
B. calcium.
C. sodium.
D. potassium.

Answer 285

D. potassium.

Question 286

Chapter 28
Peritoneal dialysis allows patients to dialyze at home​ through:

A. a dialysis machine.
B. the urethra.
C. the abdomen.
D. an AV fistula.

Answer 286

C. the abdomen.

Question 287

Chapter 28
Patients with a history of chronic sickle cell anemia​ (SCA) may present with which of the following signs and​ symptoms?

A. Bluish discoloration of the skin and shortness of breath
B. Yellowing of the skin and dyspnea on exertion
C. Pale appearance and dyspnea on exertion
D. Flushed appearance and shortness of breath

Answer 287

B. Yellowing of the skin and dyspnea on exertion

Question 288

Chapter 27
You are attending to an​ end-stage renal disease​ (ESRD) patient who has missed dialysis. Which of the following statements is most​ accurate?
A. Patients who have missed dialysis and who become unresponsive and pulseless respond very well to the use of an AED.
B. Calling for ALS would not be very helpful because they cannot really do anything that an EMT cannot do in these situations.
C. Patients who have missed dialysis and who become unresponsive and pulseless do not respond very well to the use of an AED.
D. You should delay transport if necessary to wait for ALS.

Answer 288

C. Patients who have missed dialysis and who become unresponsive and pulseless do not respond very well to the use of an AED.

Question 289

Chapter 28
Once you encounter uncontrolled bleeding from an AV​ fistula, which of the following methods would you consider using to control bleeding in addition to direct pressure and​ elevation?

A. Pressure points
B. Hemostatic dressings
C. Tourniquet
D. Internal wound management

Answer 289

B. Hemostatic dressings

Question 290

Chapter 28
One of the more serious diseases of the body is renal failure. Renal failure occurs when​ the:

A. liver fails to function properly.
B. adrenal glands stop working.
C. pancreas stops working.
D. kidneys fail to function as required.

Answer 290

D. kidneys fail to function as required.

Question 291

Chapter 28
Certain drugs are commonly referred as​ “blood thinners” or drugs that inhibit clotting. Which of the following would not be considered such a​ drug?

A. Lovenox​ (enoxaparin)
B. Coumadin​ (warfarin)
C. Prilosec
D. Aspirin

Answer 291

C. Prilosec

Question 292

Chapter 28
What is the purpose of the red blood​ cells?

A. They are critical in response to infection and are mediators of the​ body’s immune response.
B. They are crucial in the formation of clots.
C. They are responsible for the removal of oxygen from the cells.
D. They are responsible for the delivery of oxygen to the cells.

Answer 292

D. They are responsible for the delivery of oxygen to the cells.

Question 293

Chapter 28
Which of the following pathologies put patients at high risk for acute renal​ failure?

A. Shock
B. Uncontrolled diabetes
C. Polycystic kidney disease
D. Hypertension

Answer 293

A. Shock

Question 294

Chapter 28
You suspect a patient who has been having a difficult time controlling the bleeding following a small laceration to the foot may have a history​ of:

A. sickle cell anemia.
B. high blood pressure.
C. taking blood thinners.
D. poorly controlled diabetes.

Answer 294

C. taking blood thinners.

Question 295

Chapter 28
A patient with a medical history of sickle cell anemia is complaining of chest pain and shortness of breath. The patient is breathing 26 times per minute in​ short, shallow respirations.​ However, the​ patient’s oxygen saturation via pulse oximetry is​ 100% on room air. The best approach regarding supplemental oxygen is​ to:

A. place the patient on a nonrebreather mask.
B. place the patient on a nasal cannula.
C. place the patient on a simple face mask.
D. do​ nothing; no supplemental oxygen is necessary.

Answer 295

A. place the patient on a nonrebreather mask.

Question 296

Chapter 28
You are dispatched to an unconscious hemodialysis patient. On arrival to the dialysis​ clinic, the patient is​ unresponsive, apneic, and pulseless. You secure the​ ABCs, begin​ ventilation, and initiate chest compressions.​ However, the​ patient’s cardiac arrest rhythm is continuously unresponsive to defibrillations with your AED. The best approach is​ to:

A. run a​ “no-electricity” code in which compressions and ventilation are continued. No additional defibrillations are necessary.
B. call online medical control to terminate the code. The probability of survival is too low to continue resuscitation efforts.
C. continue defibrillating as the monitor recommends. The myocardium becomes increasingly responsive to successive defibrillations.
D. begin transporting and contact an ALS intercept. The​ patient’s dysrhythmia may be related to kidney failure.

Answer 296

D. begin transporting and contact an ALS intercept. The​ patient’s dysrhythmia may be related to kidney failure.

Question 297

Chapter 28
You are dispatched to a sick call. The patient was just extricated from a bathtub where he was trapped under the shower door for 2 days. The​ 72-year-old male had limited access to water from the bathtub faucet. The patient is complaining of​ disorientation, nausea, and vomiting. What do you think is the underlying cause for the​ illness?

A. Chronic renal failure
B. Gastrointestinal infection
C. End-stage renal disease
D. Acute renal failure

Answer 297

D. Acute renal failure

Question 298

Chapter 1
A written authorization for an ems provider to perform a particular skill in a specific situation is a:

Answer 298

Standing order

Question 299

Chapter 1
Primary responsibility of the EMT:

Answer 299

Maintain personal health and safety

Question 300

Chapter 1
EMT role in the quality improvement is:

Answer 300

Maintaining equipment

Question 301

Chapter 1
What is a physical trait necessary for performing the duties of an EMT:

Answer 301

Ability to speak clearly

Question 302

Chapter 1
Most common gateway for hospital services for patients:

Answer 302

Emergency department

Question 303

Chapter 2
Which one of these groups is at greatest risk of contracting and transmitting​ tuberculosis?
A. Current and former smokers
B. Uranium mine workers
C. Healthcare practitioners
D. Immunosuppressed patients

Answer 303

D. Immunosuppressed patients

Question 304

Chapter 2
One’s “cognitive​ ability” refers to his or her ability to do which of the​ following?
A. Think and solve problems
B. Use fine motor skills
C. Adapt to stress
D. Control his or her emotions

Answer 304

A. Think and solve problems

Question 305

Chapter 3

Question 306

Chapter 3
Which of the following best describes an urgent​ move?
A. Pulling a patient by her feet across a parking lot
B. Using a sheet to move a patient from a bed to the stretcher
C. Moving a patient from a car directly to a long spine board
D. Dragging a patient from a burning house using his shirt

Answer 306

C. Moving a patient from a car directly to a long spine board

Question 307

Chapter 3
Which of the following is another name for the​ squat-lift position?

A. Direct carry
B. Power lift
C. Power grip
D. Weight-lifter technique

Answer 307

B. Power lift

Question 308

Chapter 3
What is the contraindication for the use of a scoop or orthopedic​ stretcher?
A. Hip fracture
B. Spinal injury
C. Pelvic injury
D. Internal injuries

Answer 308

B. Spinal injury

Question 309

Chapter 4
You respond to the report of an unconscious female patient. You can acquire important medical information about the patient through which of the​ following?
A. Medical identification device
B. On-call Medical Director
C. Driver’s license
D. Medical history identifier

Answer 309

A. Medical identification device

Question 310

Chapter 4
While documenting a​ call, you add a false statement that was made about a local doctor. This could constitute which of the​ following?

A. Degradation of character
B. Libel
C. Slander
D. HIPAA violation

Answer 310

B. Libel

Question 311

Chapter 6
Which of the following structures receives deoxygenated blood from the body via the venae​ cavae?

A. Right atrium
B. Left atrium
C. Left ventricle
D. Right ventricle

Answer 311

A. Right atrium

Question 312

Chapter 6
What vessel carries deoxygenated blood to the​ lungs?

A. Pulmonary veins
B. Venae cavae
C. Aorta
D. Pulmonary artery

Answer 312

D. Pulmonary artery

Question 313

Chapter 6

What is the strongest and most muscular part of the​ heart?

A. Right ventricle
B. Left atrium
C. Right atrium
D. Left ventricle

Answer 313

D. Left ventricle

Question 314

Chapter 6
our patient is an​ 84-year-old male with difficulty breathing and peripheral edema. He tells you he has been suffering for many years with​ “heart failure,” and his condition is​ worsening, especially with trouble breathing at night. Your knowledge of cardiovascular physiology suggests that his condition could have resulted from the failure of either the right or left side of his heart. Which chamber of the heart is the​ strongest, most muscular part of the heart and is primarily responsible for pumping oxygenated blood to the rest of the​ body?

A. Right atrium
B. Left ventricle
C. Right ventricle
D. Left atrium

Answer 314

B. Left ventricle

Question 315

Chapter 6

What is the long bone of the upper portion of the​ arm?

A. Radius
B. Ulna
C. Humerus
D. Scapula

Answer 315

C. Humerus

Question 316

Chapter 6

You have been dispatched to a local shopping mall where a​ 63-year-old female patient has slipped and fallen in a department store. Upon your​ arrival, you find her supine on the​ ground, conscious and oriented with stable vital​ signs, complaining of severe pain in the upper portion of her left leg and hip. Her left leg is slightly shortened and rotated outward. The bone most commonly fractured with a​ “broken hip” is​ the:

A. tibia.
B. fibula.
C. femur.
D. ilium.

Answer 316

C. femur.

Question 317

Chapter 6

What causes the​ “seesaw” breathing pattern of young​ children?

A. They rely more on the diaphragm during breathing difficulty.
B. The cricoid cartilage and trachea are both more flexible than in​ adults, making breathing more difficult.
C. The size of their tongues in proportion to their mouths is larger than an​ adult’s.
D. Young children have a pronounced inward curvature at the bottom of the ribcage.

Answer 317

A. They rely more on the diaphragm during breathing difficulty.

Question 318

Chapter 6
What condition of immediate concern results from a loss of red blood cells due to​ hemorrhage?

A. Decreased oxygen delivery to the tissues
B. Decrease in pulse rate
C. Decreased ability to fight infection
D. Decreased production of carbon dioxide

Answer 318

A. Decreased oxygen delivery to the tissues

Question 319

Ch 7

What is the best description of the​ chest’s mechanical​ functions?

A. The chest is a closed​ space, and the pleural space surrounds the​ lungs; when the diaphragm contracts and the intercostal muscles​ expand, the chest and lungs move outward and​ downward, allowing expiration and gas exchange in the lungs.
B. The diaphragm​ contracts, causing the intercostal muscles that are attached to the lungs to also​ contract, which moves the air into the lungs.
C. The chest is a closed space with only one​ opening; the​ trachea, to inspire​ air; the diaphragm contracts down and the intercostal muscles expand the​ ribs, causing a negative pressure that fills the lungs with air.
D. With the chest being an airtight​ space, the act of breathing occurs when the the diaphragm and intercostal muscles​ relax, which causes the lungs to expand and air to flow into the lungs.

Answer 319

C. The chest is a closed space with only one​ opening; the​ trachea, to inspire​ air; the diaphragm contracts down and the intercostal muscles expand the​ ribs, causing a negative pressure that fills the lungs with air.

Question 320

Ch 7
In the normal drive to​ breathe, chemoreceptors are stimulated​ by:

A. high carbon dioxide.
B. high oxygen.
C. low carbon dioxide.
D. diffusion.

Answer 320

A. high carbon dioxide.

Question 321

Ch7
In Type 1​ diabetes, which gland does not secret enough of the hormone​ insulin?

A. Adrenal glands
B. Pancreas
C. Thyroid
D. Pituitary

Answer 321

B. Pancreas

Question 322

Ch 7

Which of the following best defines adenosine triphosphate​ (ATP)?

A. It is the form of energy produced in the mitochondria and is the​ cell’s internally created fuel responsible for powering all cell function.
B. It is the form of energy produced in the endoplasmic reticulum and is the​ cell’s engine responsible for all cell function.
C. It is the form of energy that is produced in the mitochondria from glucose and DNA.
D. It is the form of energy that is produced in the nucleus from glucose and other nutrients.

Answer 322

A. It is the form of energy produced in the mitochondria and is the​ cell’s internally created fuel responsible for powering all cell function.

Question 323

Ch 7
Injuries to the brain and spinal​ cord, sepsis, and systemic allergic reactions can cause what similar cardiovascular​ problem?

A. Hypertension
B. Loss of tone
C. Permeability
D. Increased SVR

Answer 323

B. Loss of tone

Question 324

Ch 7
Which of the following statements provides reasons for the disruption of respiratory​ control?

A.
Mechanical​ failure, soft-tissue​ damage, obstruction, and lack of perfusion will interrupt this control.
B.
​Stroke, infection, brain​ trauma, toxins and​ drugs, and neurologic disorders can interrupt this control.
This is the correct answer.C.
A structural reason that has caused collapse of the upper and lower airways to block the flow of oxygen to the alveoli can interrupt this control.
D.
A​ medical, structural, and mechanical failure that has initiated the cascade of​ life-threatening problems will interrupt this control.

Question 325

Ch 7
Which of the following statements provides reasons for the disruption of respiratory​ control?

A. Mechanical​ failure, soft-tissue​ damage, obstruction, and lack of perfusion will interrupt this control.
B. Stroke, infection, brain​ trauma, toxins and​ drugs, and neurologic disorders can interrupt this control.
C. A structural reason that has caused collapse of the upper and lower airways to block the flow of oxygen to the alveoli can interrupt this control.
D. A​ medical, structural, and mechanical failure that has initiated the cascade of​ life-threatening problems will interrupt this control.

Answer 325

B. Stroke, infection, brain​ trauma, toxins and​ drugs, and neurologic disorders can interrupt this control.

Question 326

Ch 7
Plasma oncotic pressure is created by the movement of which of the​ following?

A. Dilation of the vessels
B. Large proteins
C. Constriction of the vessels
D. Contraction of the heart

Answer 326

B. Large proteins

Question 327

Ch 7
What is the correct order of air flow from the nose to the alveoli in the​ lungs?

A. Nose, pharynx,​ hypopharynx, epiglottis,​ trachea, crania, mainstem​ bronchi, alveoli
B. Nose, nasopharynx,​ hypopharynx, larynx,​ trachea, bronchi, alveoli
C. ​Mouth, pharynx,​ epiglottis, hypopharynx,​ trachea, mainstem​ bronchi, crania, alveoli
D. ​Nose, hyperpharynx,​ nasopharynx, hypopharynx,​ trachea, mainstem​ bronchi, bronchi, alveoli

Answer 327

B. Nose, nasopharynx,​ hypopharynx, larynx,​ trachea, bronchi, alveoli

Question 328

Ch 7​
​Graves’ disease is an example of a condition caused​ by:

Answer 328

Too many hormones

Question 329

Ch 7
In normal​ exhalation, the diaphragm and intercostal muscles relax to contract the​ chest, which creates a positive pressure. This is what type of​ process?

Answer 329

Passive process

Question 330

Ch 7
A​ 12-year-old female patient is having an asthma attack after participating in some strenuous activity during recess at school.​ She’s taken several doses of her own bronchodilator with little relief. Your partner immediately administers oxygen. Providing supplemental oxygen will increase the amount of oxygen molecules carried by the​ ________ in her​ blood, helping oxygenate critical organs like the brain.

A. plasma
B. hemoglobin
C. white blood cells
D. albumin

Answer 330

B. hemoglobin

Question 331

Ch 7
The cellular structure that is responsible for synthesizing proteins is​ the:
A. nucleus.
B. mitochondria.
C. endoplasmic reticulum.
D. sodium pump.

Answer 331

C. endoplasmic reticulum.

Question 332

Ch 9

Which of the following is the correct method of​ suctioning?

A. Suction​ intermittently, both while inserting and withdrawing the suction tip or catheter.
B. Insert the catheter or tip to the desired depth prior to applying suction.
C. Begin suctioning as you insert the suction tip or catheter into the mouth.
D. Suction​ continuously, both while inserting and withdrawing the suction tip or catheter.

Answer 332

B. Insert the catheter or tip to the desired depth prior to applying suction.

Question 333

Ch 9
Which of the following should be kept in mind when assessing and managing the airway of a pediatric​ patient?

A. Due to their short​ necks, pediatric patients require a greater degree of hyperextension to open the airway than do adults.
B. The trachea is easily obstructed by swelling.
C. Gastric distention is unlikely.
D. The tongue is not as likely to obstruct the airway as in an adult.

Answer 333

B. The trachea is easily obstructed by swelling.

Question 334

Because EMS personnel are often exposed to both acute and chronic​ stressors, ________ management may be helpful to cope with​ on-the-job experiences.

A. crisis intervention
B. chronic stress
C. critical incident stress
D. stress prevention

Answer 334

C. critical incident stress

Question 335

You are treating a patient who has a productive cough and who reports weight​ loss, loss of​ appetite, weakness, night​ sweats, and fever. Which of the following diseases is most likely the cause of these signs and​ symptoms?
A. Tuberculosis
B. Pneumonia
C. AIDS
D. Hepatitis B

Answer 335

A. Tuberculosis

Question 336

Which hormone helps the body control​ stress, regulate​ metabolism, and influence an immune​ response?

Answer 336

Cortisol

Question 337

Which of the following is a physiologic effect of the stress triad as described by the physician Hans​ Selye?
A. Bleeding gastric ulcers
B. Atrophy of the adrenal glands
C. Amnesia for stressful events
D. Hypertrophy of the lymph nodes

Answer 337

A. Bleeding gastric ulcers

Question 338

One’s “cognitive​ ability” refers to his or her ability to do which of the​ following?

Answer 338

think and solve problems

Question 339

Which of the following is the form of stress that can cause immediate and​ long-term problems with an​ EMT’s health and​ well-being?
A. Distress
B. Hypertropy
C. Eustress
D. Megastress

Answer 339

A. Distress

Question 340

What is the contraindication for the use of a scoop or orthopedic​ stretcher?

Answer 340

spinal injury

Question 341

How far apart should your hands be when using a power​ grip?

Answer 341

10 inches

Question 342

Which of the following should you use when you want to move a patient from a wheelchair to a​ stretcher?

Answer 342

extremity lift

Question 343

While documenting a​ call, you add a false statement that was made about a local doctor. This could constitute which of the​ following?

Answer 343

libel