chapter test 29-35, 38-41 Flashcards
Chapter 29
Which of the following signifies a failure in the patient’s compensatory response to blood loss?
A. Hypotension
B. Tachypnea
C. Tachycardia
D. Pale, cool skin
A. Hypotension
Chapter 29
Which of the following statements about treating a patient who appears to be in shock is false?
A. Airway management is a top priority.
B. Prompt transportation is a very high priority.
C. The patient should be promptly put on high-concentration oxygen.
D. Spend time on scene to correct the causes of the shock so it does not worsen.
D. Spend time on scene to correct the causes of the shock so it does not worsen.
Chapter 29
Which of the following is part of the body’s compensatory response to blood loss?
A. Blood vessels dilate and the heart rate decreases.
B. Blood vessels constrict and the heart rate decreases.
C. Blood vessels constrict and the heart rate increases.
D. Blood vessels dilate and the heart rate increases.
C. Blood vessels constrict and the heart rate increases.
Chapter 30
Which of the following is not considered soft tissue?
A. Membranes
B. Muscles
C. The skin
D. Cartilage
D. Cartilage
Chapter 30
You are dispatched to the local high school for a “person struck with a baseball.” You arrive on the scene and find a 16-year-old male sitting on the bench. Apparently he was the pitcher and was struck in the abdominal area by a line drive ball that was hit very hard. He states that nothing is hurting except he has some mild pain in the area where he was struck. He is upset that the ambulance was called and wants to go back into the game and continue pitching. Your exam reveals nothing remarkable except mild pain when you palpate the injured area. Vital signs are normal. What is the next step?
A. Tell the coach the patient is okay and he can go back into the ball game.
B. Have the patient walk to the ambulance and take him to the ED. No other care needs to be provided, as there is really no significant sign of any injury.
C. Have the coach apply cold to the area and let the pitcher back in the game if he does not get worse in the next 15 minutes.
D. Take appropriate Standard Precautions, apply high-concentration oxygen by nonrebreather mask, and transport the patient ASAP, carefully monitoring the patient during transport.
D. Take appropriate Standard Precautions, apply high-concentration oxygen by nonrebreather mask, and transport the patient ASAP, carefully monitoring the patient during transport.
Chapter 30
Which of the following statements is not true concerning the proper transport of an avulsed ear?
A. It should be labeled with the patient’s name, as well as the date and time it was bagged.
B. It should be in a dry sterile dressing.
C. It should be kept as cool as possible.
D. It should not be immersed in cooled water or saline.
B. It should be in a dry sterile dressing.
Chapter 30
You are assessing a 30-year-old male patient that had his arm caught in a piece of machinery. By the time you arrive, he has been freed. The patient tells you that he does not understand why you were called, but as you inspect the injured limb you notice a small puncture wound. You should have a high index of suspicion of which of the following injuries?
A. Crush injury
B. High-pressure injection
C. Puncture
D. Chemical burn
B. High-pressure injection
Chapter 30
Burns pose a greater risk to infants and children for which of the following reasons?
A. Pediatric patients have a greater risk of heart problems associated with the burn.
B. Pediatric patients have a greater risk of shock from the burn.
C. Infants and children have a greater risk of infection from the burn.
D. None of the above
B. Pediatric patients have a greater risk of shock from the bur
Chapter 30
Which of the following is a desirable characteristic of dressings used in the prehospital management of most open wounds?
A. Adherent
B. Occlusive
C. Absorbent
D. Sterile
D. Sterile
Chapter 30
The meatus is:
A. in a male, the area between the scrotum and the anus.
B. the tube that carries urine from the kidney to the bladder.
C. the external opening of the urethra.
D. the canal through which urine is discharged from the bladder to the exterior of the body.
C. the external opening of the urethra.
Chapter 30
Your patient is a 40-year-old man who was burned when he spilled gasoline on his pants as he was standing near the pilot light of his hot water heater. He has partial thickness burns from his feet to just above his knees, and circumferentially around both legs. Using the rule of nines, which of the following most accurately represents the extent of body surface area burned?
A. 18 percent
B. 4.5 percent
C. 36 percent
D. 9 percent
A. 18 percent
Chapter 31
Your patient was working on a car when it fell off the jack and trapped him between the tire and ground. His face is very blue and his eyes are bloodshot. Which of the following has the patient most likely suffered?
A. Traumatic asphyxia
B. Flail chest
C. Pneumothorax
D. Hemothorax
A. Traumatic asphyxia
Chapter 31
Which of the following is an unreliable sign for determining the presence of a tension pneumothorax?
A. Shortness of breath
B. Trachea that shifts to the side opposite the injury
C. Signs and symptoms of shock
D. Distended neck veins
B. Trachea that shifts to the side opposite the injury
Chapter 31
You are caring for a 27-year-old male who has a puncture wound to the right upper chest. The patient was stabbed with a serrated steak knife by his ex-girlfriend. You have placed an occlusive dressing on the site and begun emergent transport to the closest trauma center. However, while en route the patient begins to complain of increasing shortness of breath. You notice a decrease in ventilatory volume and an increase in thoracic diameter. Which of the following options would be the best step to perform next?
A. Free a corner or edge of the dressing to release pressure buildup.
B. Begin providing BVM-assisted ventilations to the patient.
C. Begin providing CPR to the patient.
D. Call dispatch for an ALS intercept en route to the hospital.
A. Free a corner or edge of the dressing to release pressure buildup.
Chapter 30
Which of the following is not a major function of the skin?
A. Excretion of wastes
B. Regulates the pH balance of the body
C. Temperature regulation
D. Protection from the environment
B. Regulates the pH balance of the body
(trick question because excretion of waste is not a function at all. and the question asks what is NOT a MAJOR function)
Chapter 31
Which of the following best describes an evisceration?
A. A penetrating chest wound in which air is “sucked” into the chest cavity
B. Movement of ribs opposite to the direction of movement of the rest of the chest wall
C. Open wound of the abdomen from which organs protrude
D. Fracture of two or more adjacent ribs in two or more places
C. Open wound of the abdomen from which organs protrude
Chapter 31
A patient with jugular vein distention is most likely suffering from which of the following injuries?
A. Pneumothorax
B. Tension pneumothorax
C. Hemothorax
D. Hemopneumothorax
B. Tension pneumothorax
Chapter 31
What is the correct terminology for a wound in which a vacuum has been created within the chest, drawing air into the thorax through a penetration of the chest wall with each breath?
A. Closed tension pneumothorax
B. Paradoxical motion
C. Open chest wound
D. Sucking chest wound
D. Sucking chest wound
Chapter 31
You are on an EMS standby for a boxing tournament. During one of the matches, one of the female boxers delivers a forcible uppercut to the chest of her opponent, who falls to the ground. The match is declared over on the basis of a TKO. However, the opponent fails to arise following a 1- to 2-minute interval. EMS is summoned to the ring. You find the patient pulseless and breathing agonal gasps. You suspect which of the following traumatic conditions?
A. Aortic dissection
B. Tension pneumothorax
C. Commotio cordis
D Cardiac tamponade
C. Commotio cordis
Chapter 32
Which of the following hazards may arise from properly splinting an injured extremity?
A. Ignoring life-threatening problems while focusing on an extremity injury
B. Compromising circulation to the extremity
C. Converting a closed fracture to an open one
D. All of the above
A. Ignoring life-threatening problems while focusing on an extremity injury
Key word, “properly”
Chapter 32
Your patient is a 28-year-old male who was ejected from his motorcycle after striking a parked vehicle. He has multiple deformities to his upper and lower extremities on both sides. Which of the following would be the best way to immobilize this patient’s extremities prior to transport?
A. Use moldable splints for the upper and lower extremities, padding any voids to fully stabilize the fractures.
B. Immobilize the patient to a long backboard without splinting the extremities individually.
C. Use padded board splints for the upper extremities and a PASG for the lower extremities.
D. Use traction splints for the lower extremities and allow the upper extremities to be immobilized by the long backboard.
B. Immobilize the patient to a long backboard without splinting the extre
Chapter 32
A pillow is frequently used to splint an ankle or foot injury. It is effective, rapid, and can be used for most patients. Its main weakness is:
A. you are not immobilizing the knee and the joint adjacent to the ankle.
B. it is hard to access distal pulses after application.
C. it requires three people to apply.
D. you might not have a pillow on your ambulance.
A. you are not immobilizing the knee and the joint adjacent to the ankle.
Chapter 32
What is a drawback to using sterile aluminum foil as an occlusive dressing?
A. Sterility cannot be ensured unless the foil was autoclaved.
B. A flutter valve is difficult to create with foil.
C. The foil may lacerate eviscerated organs.
D. Foil cannot create an airtight seal.
C. The foil may lacerate eviscerated organs.
Chapter 31
Which of the following describes the proper application of an occlusive dressing for an open chest wound?
A. Trim the dressing so that it is the exact size of the wound.
B. Use a porous material such as a 4” by 4” gauze pad.
C. Apply an occlusive dressing to each penetrating wound.
D. Traditional gauze dressings create the best seal over open wounds.
C. Apply an occlusive dressing to each penetrating wound.
Chapter 31
You find a middle-aged male sitting against a wall in obvious distress. The patient appears to be extremely short of breath and has an open wound to his chest that is making a sucking sound. You should:
A. place your gloved hand over the wound.
B. place a trauma dressing over the wound.
C. cover the wound with an occlusive dressing.
D. place the patient on high-concentration oxygen.
A. place your gloved hand over the wound.
Chapter 32
Which one of the following definitions is not true?
A. A sprain is the stretching and tearing of ligaments.
B. Joints are places where bones articulate.
C. Another name for manual traction is tension.
D. Tendons connect muscles to ligaments.
D. Tendons connect muscles to ligaments.
Chapter 32
Which of the following allows for smooth movement of bone surfaces against one another at joints?
A. Ligaments
B. Cartilage
C. Tendons
D. Smooth muscle
B. Cartilage
Chapter 32
Which one of the following statements is not true concerning a knee injury?
A. Fractures can occur to the proximal femur.
B. Fractures can occur to the patella.
C. Fractures can occur to the proximal tibia and fibula.
D. There could be pain and tenderness.
A. Fractures can occur to the proximal femur.
Chapter 31
Which of the following is an accurate definition of a flail chest?
A. Fracture of at least four ribs in two or more places
B. Fracture of one rib in two or more consecutive places
C. Lung that has been punctured by a fractured rib, resulting in a buildup of air
D. Section of the chest wall that is unstable, leading to breathing problems
D. Section of the chest wall that is unstable, leading to breathing problems
Chapter 32
A painter falls from his ladder and tells you he has dislocated his shoulder again. When you attempt to splint the shoulder, it “pops back into place.” What should your next step be?
A. Check distal CSM, apply a sling and swathe, and transport the patient.
B. Report the popping sound to the receiving physician when you arrive at the hospital.
C. Contact medical control for input into the best treatment for this patient.
D. Check distal CSM, apply a traction splint, and transport the patient.
A. Check distal CSM, apply a sling and swathe, and transport t
Chapter 32
What is a primary problem when treating musculoskeletal injuries?
A. Most musculoskeletal injuries are simply splinted and not a life threat to the patient.
B. Many musculoskeletal injuries have a grotesque appearance, and the EMT cannot be distracted from life-threatening conditions by a deformed limb.
C. All musculoskeletal injuries are life threatening due to the bone bleeding leading to hypoperfusion.
D. Splints do not adequately fit the patient’s extremities and must be modified with padding to ensure immobilization.
B. Many musculoskeletal injuries have a grotesque appearance, and the EMT cannot be distracted from life-threatening conditions by a deformed limb.
Chapter 32
Which of the following is not a benefit of splinting an injury to bones and connective tissues?
A. It may prevent a closed injury from becoming an open injury.
B. It restricts blood flow to the site of the injury to prevent swelling.
C. It prevents neurological damage due to movement of bone ends or fragments.
D. It reduces pain.
B. It restricts blood flow to the site of the injury to prevent swelling.
Chapter 32
Distinguishing between a knee dislocation and a patella dislocation can sometimes be difficult. Which of the following statements is not true?
A. You should always check for a distal pulse.
B. In a patellar dislocation, the knee will be stuck in flexion but the knee cap will not be displaced.
C. The lack of a distal pulse could be a signal of a real emergency.
D. In a knee dislocation, the tibia is forced anteriorly or posteriorly in relation to the distal femur.
B. In a patellar dislocation, the knee will be stuck in flexion but the knee cap will not be displaced.
Chapter 31
A patient with jugular vein distention is most likely suffering from which of the following injuries?
A. Hemopneumothorax
B. Pneumothorax
C. Tension pneumothorax
D. Hemothorax
C. Tension pneumothorax
Chapter 31
Which of the following is a strategy to maintain adherence of an occlusive dressing to bloody or diaphoretic skin?
A. Do not use adhesive tape.
B. Manually maintain pressure.
C. Wrap the dressing circumferentially with gauze.
D. Do not use occlusive dressings in this case.
B. Manually maintain pressure.
Chapter 32
Which one of the following statements is not true?
A. Muscles are the tissues or fibers that cause movement of body parts or organs.
B. Tendons are bands of connective tissue that bind the ligaments to muscles.
C. Cartilage is connective tissue that covers the outside of the bone end and acts as a surface for articulation.
D. Ligaments are connective tissues that connect bone to bone.
B. Tendons are bands of connective tissue that bind the ligaments to muscles.
Chapter 32
The PASG may be used as a splinting device for patients with which of the following suspected injuries?
A. None of the above
B. Compression fracture of the lumbar or sacral spine
C. Fractured pelvis
D. Hip dislocation
C. Fractured pelvis
Chapter 32
Your patient is a 3-year-old girl who is unable to move her elbow after her mother picked her up by the forearm. Proper splinting of this injury would be to immobilize from the ________ to the ________.
A. wrist; shoulder
B. wrist; elbow
C. forearm; humerus
D. fingertips; shoulder
C. forearm; humerus
Chapter 32
Your patient is a 37-year-old man who tripped while walking down a hill and now has a painful, deformed right leg. Your assessment reveals that the foot is cold and mottled in appearance. You cannot detect a pulse in the foot or ankle. Which of the following is the best course of action?
A. Gently attempt to straighten the leg to regain a pulse before splinting.
B. Explain to the patient that, because you cannot detect circulation in his foot, his leg will most likely have to be amputated above the site of the injury.
C. Transport rapidly to the nearest trauma center.
D. Splint the leg in the position in which it was found and transport without delay.
A. Gently attempt to straighten the leg to regain a pulse before splinting.
Chapter 32
What are the six Ps
Pain, pallor, paresthesia, pulses, paralysis, and pressure
Chapter 33
What is another name for the zygomatic bone?
A. Temporal
B. Malar
C. Maxillae
D. Mandible
B. Malar
Chapter 33
What is the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) of your adult male patient who has fallen off a horse, has his eyes open, and can follow your commands to squeeze his hands, but is confused about what happened and his whereabouts?
A. 13
B. 12
C. 14
D. 15
C. 14
Chapter 33
When a patient has a serious open wound to the neck, you are concerned about the possibility of an air embolism. The reason an air embolism can occur is because of:
A. the negative pressure in the chest.
B. pressure in the large neck veins that is lower than atmospheric pressure.
C. the higher pressure in the vessels of the neck.
D. damage to the trachea.
B. pressure in the large neck veins that is lower than atmospheric pressure.
Chapter 33
At which point may manual stabilization of the cervical spine be terminated?
A. When the patient is secured to a long backboard
B. After a cervical collar has been applied
C. Only when directed to do so by medical control
D. After a short immobilization device has been applied
A. When the patient is secured to a long backboard
Chapter 33
Your patient is a 38-year-old male driver of a vehicle that left the roadway and struck a bus stop shelter and a tree. He is sitting in the driver’s seat and conscious and alert, he has some abrasions on his forehead, his skin is warm and dry, and he has a strong radial pulse and no difficulty breathing. After applying a cervical collar, which of the following actions represents the most appropriate way for removing the patient from the vehicle?
A. Place a long spine board under the patient’s buttocks and then carefully lower the patient to the board in a supine position.
B. Place the backboard on the stretcher and have the patient stand, turn, and lie down on the backboard while you maintain manual inline stabilization of the cervical spine.
C. Have the patient stand up and then do a standing takedown onto a long backboard.
D. Perform rapid extrication onto a long spine board.
A. Place a long spine board under the patient’s buttocks and then carefully lower the patient to the board in a supine position.
Chapter 33
Your patient is a 35-year-old woman who was driving a minivan that was struck in the driver’s side door by another vehicle. You notice that when you apply pressure to her sternum with your knuckles she extends her legs and flexes her arms and wrists. When giving your radio report, which of the following terms should you use to describe this?
A. Tonic-clonic activity
B. Battle sign
C. Posturing
D. Cushing reflex
C. Posturing
Chapter 33
Which of the following systems includes the pairs of nerves that enter and exit the spinal cord between each pair of vertebrae?
A. Peripheral nervous system
B. Autonomic nervous system
C. Central nervous system
D. All of the above
A. Peripheral nervous system
Chapter 33
Your patient is a 16-year-old centerfielder on his high school baseball team. He was injured when he and the left fielder collided trying to catch a fly ball. He is disoriented and is unable to tell you what happened. His vital signs are pulse 88, blood pressure 132/86, respiratory rate 16, and pupils equal. As you assess his head, you do not see any cuts or bleeding, but you feel a spongy, depressed area over his left ear. You should suspect a(n):
A. open head injury.
B. indirect injury.
C. laceration injury.
D. closed head injury.
A. open head injury.
Chapter 33
Your patient has had his throat slashed during a robbery attempt. You are concerned because it is apparent that the vessels in his neck have been lacerated. A breach in which of the following vessels would be most likely to lead to an air embolism?
A. Arterioles
B. Capillaries
C. Arteries
D. Veins
D. Veins
Chapter 33
The bony bumps you feel along the center of a person’s back are known as which of the following?
A. Dermatome
B. Vertebrae
C. Foramen magnum
D. Spinous process
D. Spinous process
Chapter 33
Which of the following is not a common field finding in spinal injuries?
A. Impaired breathing
B. Tenderness
C. Deformity
D. Pain with movement
C. Deformity
Chapter 33
You are called for a man who is not acting right. His wife says he was outside working in the garden but didn’t come in for lunch when he was called. She went to check on him and found him sitting next to a stump, confused. You assessment shows a pulse rate of 58, blood pressure of 186/82, respirations of 16, and one of his pupils is dilated. You are unable to detect any signs of trauma and you don’t see any obvious indication that he has fallen. You should suspect a(n):
A. closed head injury.
B. open head injury.
C. insecticide poisoning.
D. nontraumatic brain injury.
D. nontraumatic brain injury.
Chapter 33
Which of the following describes the proper position of the patient’s head for spinal immobilization?
A. Stabilized in position found
B. The “sniffing” position
C. Neutral, inline position
D. Chin tilted upward for airway maintenance
C. Neutral, inline position
Chapter 33
Which of the following is defined as an area of the body surface that is innervated by a single spinal nerve?
A. Maxillae
B. Malar
C. Spinous process
D. Dermatome
D. Dermatome
Chapter 33
Which of the following is a potential complication of hyperventilating a patient with a brain injury?
A.
A. Increasing blood flow to the brain
B. Decreasing blood flow to the brain
C. Decreasing the patient’s blood pressure
D. Increasing the amount of carbon dioxide in the blood
B. Decreasing blood flow to the brain
Chapter 35
You arrive on the scene to find a scuba diver on board a boat slumped over in the captain’s chair with frothy blood in his mouth. The captain states that the diver was down no more than 15 feet when he ascended rapidly and called for help. Which of the following is most likely?
A. Pnemothorax
B. Decompression sickness
C. Air embolism
D. The bends
C. Air embolism
Chapter 35
In which of the following situations would a person lose heat by conduction?
A. Going outside without a coat during a cold but calm day
B. Wearing wet clothing in windy weather
C. Breathing
D. Sitting on cold metal bleachers at a football game
D. Sitting on cold metal bleachers at a football game
Chapter 35
The term gangrene means localized tissue:
localized tissue death
Chapter 35
Of the following venomous snakes, which one usually has the highest incidence of a “dry bite”?
A. Rattlesnake
B. Water moccasin
C. Coral snake
D. Copperhead
C. Coral snake
Chapter 35
You respond to a professional volleyball tournament for a potential heat stroke. Upon arrival you find a 28-year-old male patient seated inside the air-conditioned first aid trailer. He is alert and in obvious distress. He is complaining of severe cramping of his arms and legs. His vital signs are stable. What is the most likely cause of the cramping?
A. Heat exhaustion
B. Sweating too much
C. Cooling off too quickly
D. Drinking too many sports drinks
B. Sweating too much
Chapter 35
Where should constricting bands be placed to reduce lymphatic flow after a venomous snake bite?
A. 2 inches above and below the bite
B. 4 inches above and below the bite
C. Directly over the bite
D. None of the above
A. 2 inches above and below the bite
Chapter 35
Which of the following could worsen the effects of a snake bite?
A. Cutting and suctioning out the venom
B. Application of ice
C. Constricting bands above and below the bite
D. Having the patient lie still
B. Application of ice
Chapter 35
Which of the following would you expect to see in a patient with severe hypothermia
A. Irrational behavior
B. Rapid respirations
C. Loss of muscle tone
D. Tachycardia
A. Irrational behavior
Chapter 35
You respond to a landing zone to pick up a skier who was lost in the woods for 36 hours and found by the search-and-rescue helicopter. Your patient is a 19-year-old male patient. He is alert and oriented to time, person, place, and event. He is covered in blankets and shivering. He complains of not being able to feel his fingers. Physical exam reveals that the fingers of both extremities have a waxy appearance and feel “frozen” on the surface. After treating the patient for potential hypothermia and rapid transport, your next action is to:
A. gently bandage the digits.
B. actively rewarm the digits.
C. gently warm the digits by slowly massaging them.
D. keep the digits frozen on ice until they can be properly rewarmed at the hospital.
A. gently bandage the digits.
Chapter 35
The term blanching, used to describe localized cold injury, means the tissue has turned to which of the following colors?
A. White
B. Black
C. Red
D. Blue or purple
A. White
Chapter 35
Why is it important to keep patients at rest when they are hypothermic?
A. Because the blood is warmest in the extremities, exercise or unnecessary movement could quickly circulate the warm blood and raise the core body temperature.
B. Because the blood is coldest in the extremities, exercise or unnecessary movement could quickly circulate the cold blood and lower the core body temperature.
C. Because the blood is coldest in the extremities, exercise or unnecessary movement could quickly circulate the cold blood and drop the blood pressure.
D. None of the above.
B. Because the blood is coldest in the extremities, exercise or unnecessary movement could quickly circulate the cold blood and lower the core body temperature.
Chapter 35
Which of the following types of snake is not a pit viper?
A. Coral snake
B. Copperhead
C. Water moccasin
D. Rattlesnake
A. Coral snake
Chapter 35
You respond to a boat dock for a diving injury. You find a 24-year-old male patient unresponsive with frothy blood in the mouth and lung sounds absent on the right side. The patient’s friends state they were diving when he came out of the water complaining of chest pains and then collapsed. What condition do you suspect?
A. Air embolism
B. Myocardial infarction
C. Decompression sickness
D. Near drowning
A. Air embolism
Chapter 35
When the body is in water, how many times faster does it lose heat than when it is in still air?
A. 100
B. 25
C. 10
D. 2
B. 25
Chapter 35
Which of the following best describes a localized cold injury with a clear line of demarcation of its limits?
A. Late frostbite
B. Deep frostnip
C. Hypothermia
D. Early frostnip
D. Early frostnip
Chapter 35
You respond to a farm for a possible snake bite. You find a 36-year-old male patient seated against a tree. Bystanders state the patient was bitten on the arm by a rattlesnake and is “really sick.” As you approach, you notice that the patient appears to be in obvious distress and is diaphoretic and holding his right wrist. Which of the following is your highest priority?
A. Confirm the location and status of the snake.
B. Confirm the type of snake and contact medical control for specific instructions.
C. Perform a primary assessment and identify any potential life threats.
D. Immediately apply a constricting band to minimize the spread of the venom.
A. Confirm the location and status of the snake.
Chapter 35
Localized cold injury occurs due to vasoconstriction and:
A. blood clots.
B. chemical imbalance in the tissues.
C. ice crystal formation in the tissues.
D. loss of calcium.
C. ice crystal formation in the tissues.
Chapter 34
You are dispatched to a motor vehicle crash on a rural mountain highway. You have a patient who was unconscious on arrival, had a seizure, and is currently awake but combative. You suspect he may have a head injury. What is the best approach regarding transport of this patient?
A. Dispatch and await the medical helicopter, which is 20 minutes away.
B. Contact the community hospital to ask them if they think they can take this patient.
C. Transport to a local community hospital approximately 15 minutes away via ground.
D. Begin transport to the trauma center on the ground, which is 1.5 hours’ driving time.
A. Dispatch and await the medical helicopter, which is 20 minutes away.
Chapter 34
You are transporting a stable patient who was involved in a minor fall from a ladder at a height of about 10 feet to a local community hospital. You assumed full spinal precautions not only because the patient has midline back pain in the sacrum, but also because he was knocked unconscious. While transporting, the patient begins to become increasingly confused, develop an irregular respiratory rate, and experience a drop in heart rate with an increase in blood pressure. You just called in a radio report and are about 7 minutes from the hospital. A trauma center is about 10 minutes away. Which of the following is the best transport decision?
A. Continue transporting to the local hospital because you’ve already given your report and they accepted the patient.
B. Divert to the trauma center because the patient is becoming symptomatic.
C. Call medical control for advice from the trauma center.
D. Continue transporting to the local hospital because it’s the closest facility.
B. Divert to the trauma center because the patient is becoming symptomatic.
Chapter 34
You respond to a 22-year-old male patient who fell while exiting the local bar. Bystanders state he drank at least 10 beers and could not keep his balance. Physical exam reveals that the patient is alert to verbal stimuli only. He has Glasgow Coma Scale scores of 3, 4, and 6; slurred speech; and an obvious scalp laceration to the back of his head. He is refusing treatment and transport and wants his friends to drive him home. The nearest hospital is 5 minutes away, a Level II Trauma Center is 10 minutes away, and a Level I Full Service Trauma Center is 30 minutes away. Which of these is the most appropriate facility for the patient?
A. The nearest community facility
B. Level I Trauma Center
C. Level II Trauma Center
D. Nowhere, because the patient is an adult and refusing care
C. Level II Trauma Center
Chapter 34
Based on the following presentations of patient injuries, which one would be considered most severe according to the anatomic criteria of the CDC trauma triage guidelines, justifying immediate transportation to a trauma center?
A. Flail chest
B. Open (compound) midshaft femur fracture
C. Midline cervical spine pain
D. Closed head injury
A. Flail chest
Chapter 34
Which patient requires transport to a trauma center?
A. Unresponsive patient with hypotension
B. Responsive patient with tachycardia
C. Patient who responds to verbal stimuli
D. Patient responsive with a respiratory rate of 10
A. Unresponsive patient with hypotension
Chapter 34
Multiple trauma and multisystem trauma patients are situations in which the EMT is expected to perform which of the following?
A. Practice outside the scope of practice in order to provide the greatest good.
B. Respond above and beyond the call of duty.
C. Provide the best quality care possible, including definitive care on scene.
D. Make decisions beyond what is usually called for.
D. Make decisions beyond what is usually called for.
Chapter 34
Which one of the following patients would justify the need to directly transport to a trauma center based on special patient considerations?
A. An unlicensed teenage driver who has a pulse rate of 120 after a MVC and a 4 minute EMS response
B. An end-stage renal disease (ERSD) patient who tripped and fell and is complaining of shoulder pain on the same side as his shunt
C. An elderly patient who slipped out of her wheelchair and is complaining of pelvic pain
D. A pregnant female in the third trimester who is spotting (showing small amounts of vaginal bleeding) following a low mechanism of injury MVC
D. A pregnant female in the third trimester who is spotting (showing small amounts of vaginal bleeding) following a low mechanism of injury MVC
Chapter 34
What is the highest Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) measurement indicating altered mental status according to CDC guidelines?
a) 12
b) 15
c) 13
d) 9
c) 13
Chapter 38
You respond to a major automobile collision involving multiple patients. Which of the following patients would receive Priority 1 transport?
A. 25-year-old with abdominal bruising and signs of shock
B. 45-year-old with no vital signs
C. 68-year-old with mild respiratory distress and seat belt burns
D. 6-year-old with lower leg fracture and normal vital signs
A. 25-year-old with abdominal bruising and signs of shock
Chapter 38
Which of the following is not essential equipment on an ambulance?
A. Automatic transport ventilator
B. Portable suction unit
C. Pediatric oxygen administration devices
D. Portable oxygen tanks
A. Automatic transport ventilator
Chapter 38
Which of the following is the correct order of operations when transferring a stable patient from his or her house to the ambulance?
A. Package the patient for transport, move the patient to the ambulance, select the proper patient-carrying device, and load the patient into the ambulance.
B. Select the proper patient-carrying device, package the patient for transport, move the patient to the ambulance, and load the patient into the ambulance.
C. Package the patient for transport, select the proper patient-carrying device, move the patient to the ambulance, and load the patient into the ambulance.
D. Select the proper patient-carrying device, move the patient to the ambulance, package the patient for transport, and load the patient into the ambulance.
B. Select the proper patient-carrying device, package the patient for transport, move the patient to the ambulance, and load the patient into the ambulance.
Chapter 38
Operators of emergency vehicles must drive with the safety of others in mind. This is known as driving:
A. with emergency privilege.
B. as a public servant.
C. defensively.
D. with due regard.
D. with due regard.
Chapter 38
Which of the following is optional equipment?
A. Flashlights
B. Infant oxygen masks
C. Lubricating jelly
D. Disinfectant solution
B. Infant oxygen masks
Chapter 38
Tests have shown that ________ ambulance operators tend to speed up by 10 to 15 miles per hour when the siren is sounding.
A. inexperienced
B. all
C. privately employed
D. experienced
A. inexperienced
Chapter 38
Which of the following should be checked with the vehicle engine turned off?
A. Warning lights
B. Battery
C. Dash-mounted gauges
D. Windshield wiper operation
B. Battery
Chapter 38
While staffing an emergency services dispatch center, an Emergency Medical Dispatcher (EMD) receives a call from someone who is very upset and screaming that her friend was just shot. Which of the following does the EMD need to do in this situation?
A. Ask the caller for her phone number.
B. Notify the victim’s family of the incident.
C. Provide the caller with information about local hospitals.
D. Determine the location of the shooter.
A. Ask the caller for her phone number.
Chapter 38
You are at the scene of a vehicle collision and have found that there is one patient who is in stable condition. At this point, the call can be categorized as:
A. an unfounded call.
B. no longer a true emergency.
C. triaged.
D. a non-incident.
B. no longer a true emergency.
Chapter 38
Which of the following is a purpose for carrying an aluminum foil roll on an ambulance?
A. To keep a newborn warm
B. To care for amputated parts
C. To control major arterial bleeding
D. None of the above
A. To keep a newborn warm
Chapter 39
You are an EMT on the scene of a mass-casualty incident in which there are 50 patients from a bus roll-over. Incident Command has been established and EMS, law enforcement, and rescue sectors are established. You have just discovered that one of the bus passengers was carrying a suspicious package that is now leaking a white powdery substance. Which of the following entities should you contact about this?
A. Dispatch
B. Rescue officer
C. Incident Commander
D. EMS officer
D. EMS officer
Chapter 39
An area near a hazardous materials incident that is upwind from the incident and on the same level is a good location for a:
A. treatment zone.
B. hot zone.
C. danger zone.
D. safe zone.
D. safe zone.
Chapter 39
ICS recognizes that the manageable span of control is:
A. 12 people.
B. 18 people.
C. 7 people.
D. 24 people.
C. 7 people.
Chapter 39
You arrive on the scene where a school bus has been hit by a train. The bus was in its early stages of picking up students and you only have 5 patients. Your closest unit is 30 minutes away. Triage this patient based on this scenario:Patient #2 is an 8-year-old male with the following vital signs: respirations 22, pulse 102, and alert mental status with warm dry skin.
A. Priority 1, red tag
B. Priority 3, green tag
C. Priority 2, yellow tag
D. Priority 4, black tag
B. Priority 3, green tag
Chapter 39
As it pertains to hazardous materials, the Occupational Safety and Health Administration requires employers to:
A. ensure there is at least one person on-site trained at the technician level.
B. have knowledge of all hazardous materials on the premises.
C. document the appropriate level of training for each employee.
D. train employees to handle any type of hazardous materials incident.
C. document the appropriate level of training for each employee.
Chapter 39
Which of the following is not a mechanism of decontamination from hazardous materials?
A. Disinfection
B. Deodorization
C. Disposal
D. Emulsification
B. Deodorization
Chapter 39
EMS operations generally include which six areas?
A. Extrication, Operations, Logistics, Triage, Finance, and Transportation
B. Extrication, Staging, Logistics, Triage, Operations, and Transportation
C. Extrication, Staging, Triage, Treatment, Transportation, and Rehabilitation
D. Extrication, Staging, Triage, Air operations, Transportation, and Rehabilitation
C. Extrication, Staging, Triage, Treatment, Transportation, and Rehabilitation
Chapter 39
What source will provide first aid information about hazardous materials for employees at a work site?
A. Safety Data Sheets
B. Placard
C. Bill of lading
D. Shipping manifest
A. Safety Data Sheets
Chapter 39
What is the process that removes the biological (etiological) contamination hazards because it destroys microorganisms and their toxins?
A. Emulsification
B. Dilution
C. Disinfection
D. Absorption
C. Disinfection
Chapter 39
Soraya is an EMT who volunteers for a local fire department. On the scene of a hazardous materials incident, she helps prevent the incident from becoming larger and ensures bystanders remain safe. Soraya’s level of hazardous materials training is at the ________ level.
A. Hazardous Materials Technician
B. First Responder Operations
C. Hazardous Materials Specialist
D. First Responder Awareness
B. First Responder Operations
Chapter 39
You are just leaving the scene of a multiple-casualty incident with two Priority 1 patients. Which of the following is appropriate regarding communication?
A. Have dispatch relay your patient reports to the receiving facility.
B. Notify the receiving facility by radio of the nature of the patients’ injuries.
C. Notify the receiving hospital by cellular phone of the nature of the patients’ injuries.
D. Allow the transportation supervisor to notify the receiving facility.
D. Allow the transportation supervisor to notify the receiving facility.
Chapter 39
Which of the following are desirable characteristics of the “safe or cold zone” in a hazardous materials incident?
A. Upwind, on the same level as the spill
B. Upwind, uphill from the spill
C. Downwind, downhill from the spill
D. Downwind, uphill from the spill
A. Upwind, on the same level as the spill
Chapter 39
Disaster plans are a predefined set of instructions that should be written to address the events that are conceivable for a particular location. They should also be:
A. well publicized, realistic, and rehearsed.
B. well publicized, multijurisdictional, and rehearsed.
C. written, multijurisdictional, and rehearsed.
D. written, realistic, and rehearsed.
A. well publicized, realistic, and rehearsed.
Chapter 39
Which of the following is a principle of effective Incident Command?
A. The command location must not be revealed to anyone on the scene.
B. Police, fire, and EMS must establish separate command locations.
C. Command is most effective when one person is responsible for no more than seven other people.
D. None of the above
C. Command is most effective when one person is responsible for no more than s
Chapter 39
Which of the following agencies have developed regulations for dealing with hazardous materials emergencies?
A. NAEMT and NHTSA
B. NHTSA and NRC
C. DOT and FCC
D. OSHA and EPA
D. OSHA and EPA
Chapter 39
Which of the following is not a desirable characteristic of the rehabilitation area of a hazardous materials incident?
A. It is large enough to accommodate multiple rescue crews.
B. It allows for rapid reentry to the emergency operation.
C. It is protected from weather elements.
D. It is located in the warm zone.
D. It is located in the warm zone.
Chapter 39
When responding to a multiple-casualty incident, staging refers to which of the following?
A. Waiting in a designated location until called upon by the designated section officer
B. Keeping a log of all patients transported
C. Staying on station until called upon to receive a patient
D. Setting up a triage center from the back of your ambulance
A. Waiting in a designated location until called upon by the designated section officer
Chapter 39
When seeking expert advice on how to proceed at a hazardous materials incident, which of the following information is important to provide?
A. An estimate of the amount of the substance involved
B. Your level of EMS certification
C. Your background in chemistry
D. Both A and B
A. An estimate of the amount of the substance involved
Chapter 39
As it pertains to hazardous materials, the Occupational Safety and Health Administration requires employers to:
A. ensure there is at least one person on-site trained at the technician level.
B. have knowledge of all hazardous materials on the premises.
C. document the appropriate level of training for each employee.
D. train employees to handle any type of hazardous materials incident.
C. document the appropriate level of training for each employee.
Chapter 40
You are managing a patient who is being extricated from a vehicle by a rescue crew using hydraulic tools. Which of the following items should you use in order to protect your patient during the extrication process?
A. Wool blanket to protect the patient from broken glass
B. Aluminized rescue blanket to protect the patient from sharp edges
C. Oxygen mask to prevent inhalation of noxious fumes
D. Short spine board to prevent debris from contacting the patient
D. Short spine board to prevent debris from contacting the patient
Chapter 40
Which of the following is the first concern when you are caring for a patient who has been in a vehicle collision?
A. Preserving evidence, such as alcohol beverage bottles and vehicle positioning
B. Treating life-threatening injuries
C. Helping law enforcement get the driver’s name and insurance information
D. Your own safety
D. Your own safety
Chapter 40
You are assessing a patient in the front seat of a vehicle that was involved in a head-on collision. As you examine the interior of the vehicle, you notice the airbags have not deployed. What action should you take in order to render the scene safe to work?
A. Disconnect the battery and continue assessing the patient.
B. Turn the ignition to the “off” position and wait 2 minutes before entering the vehicle.
C. Disconnect the battery and wait 2 minutes before entering the vehicle.
D. Use a long spine board to shield yourself from the undeployed airbag.
C. Disconnect the battery and wait 2 minutes before entering the vehicle.
Chapter 40
An unresponsive patient is found sitting in the front seat of a vehicle with his legs pinned under the dash. Once his legs have been freed, which of the following methods should be used for removal of the patient?
A. Rapid extrication technique
B. Quick extraction
C. Rapid take-down
D. Scoop stretcher
A. Rapid extrication technique
Chapter 40
When attempting to extinguish a fire inside the passenger compartment, it is important to:
A. use the extinguishing agent sparingly to avoid creating a cloud of powder.
B. apply the extinguishing agent liberally to speed up the extinguishing process.
C. resist the urge to extinguish the fire and focus on extricating any patients.
D. aim the nozzle of the extinguisher away from the patient to avoid hitting the patient.
A. use the extinguishing agent sparingly to avoid creating a cloud of powder.
Chapter 40
Which of the following is the rule of thumb for determining the stability of a vehicle that has been involved in a collision?
A. It is stable if the ignition is turned off.
B. It should only be considered stable after assessment by trained rescue personnel.
C. It is stable if the transmission is in “Park” or the parking brake is on.
D. It is stable if it is upright on all four wheels.
B. It should only be considered stable after assessment by trained rescue personnel.
Chapter 40
On arrival at a vehicle collision, you observe a small fire in the engine compartment. A bystander is attempting to smother the fire with a jacket as you approach with an A-B-C extinguisher from your ambulance. Which of the following is the best method of extinguishing the fire?
A. Close the hood to contain the fire within the engine compartment.
B. Aim at the base of the fire and use short bursts until the fire is out.
C. Aim the nozzle to the side of the fire and, with a sweeping motion, push the fire at its base.
D. Sweep the nozzle of the extinguisher left and right using short bursts until you are out of extinguishing agent.
B. Aim at the base of the fire and use short bursts until the fire i
Chapter 40
Which of the following should be used to protect a patient during extrication?
A. Plastic blanket
B. Goggles
C. Netting
D. None of the above
B. Goggles
Chapter 40
When placing cribbing:
A. always squat, so you can move away quickly.
B. kneel on both knees for stabilization.
C. kneel on one knee only so you can move away quickly.
D. kneel or squat as necessary.
A. always squat, so you can move away quickly.
Chapter 40
Once access to the patient is gained, which of the following is the next goal during an auto extrication?
A. Primary assessment and rapid trauma exam
B. Extrication of the patient from the vehicle
C. Disentanglement of the patient
D. Stabilization of the vehicle
A. Primary assessment and rapid trauma exam
Chapter 40
Which of the following may be a source of ignition when rescuing people who are trapped in a car that has stopped off the roadway in a field of dried grass?
A. Catalytic converter
B. Battery
C. Mobile radio
D. Leaking coolant
A. Catalytic converter
Chapter 40
Which of the following steps of extrication comes before the other three steps?
A. Preparing for the rescue
B. Sizing up the situation
C. Recognizing and managing hazards
D. Gaining access to the patient
A. Preparing for the rescue
Chapter 41
Dangerous organisms that can grow in a variety of environments and are capable of producing toxic substances are known as:
A. biologics.
B. bacteria.
C. viruses.
D. toxins.
B. bacteria.
Chapter 41
Which of the following does not have an impact on the behavior of a chemical in a mass-casualty incident?
A. Volatility of the agent
B. Physical state of the agent
C. Route of entry into the body
D. Whether it was an intentional or accidental exposure
D. Whether it was an intentional or accidental exposure
Chapter 41
Which of the following is a type of chemical weapon?
A. Bomb containing radioactive material
B. Bacterial toxin
C. Vesicants
D. Plastic explosives
C. Vesicants
Chapter 41
The most common fatal primary injury from a blast is:
A. an extremity fracture.
B. a liver laceration.
C. an impaled object.
D. a lung injury.
D. a lung injury.
Chapter 41
Anthrax can infect an individual through which of the following routes of exposure?
A. Inhalation
B. Ingestion
C. Skin
D. All of the above
D. All of the above
Chapter 41
You are responding to a suspected terrorist incident, and first reports indicate this is a biologic incident. Which PPE will you need?
A. HEPA mask
B. Self-contained breathing apparatus
C. Lead shielding
D. Fire-protection clothing
A. HEPA mask
Chapter 41
An oxygen level of ________ is required for normal breathing.
A. 10.5 percent
B. 25.5 percent
C. 16.5 percent
D. 19.5 percent
D. 19.5 percent
Chapter 41
Two elements that differentiate a hazardous materials incident from a terrorist incident are:
A. weapons of mass destruction and a political agenda.
B. targeting responders and weapons of mass destruction (WMD).
C. targeting responders and a political agenda.
D. crime scene considerations and targeting responders.
D. crime scene considerations and targeting responders.
Chapter 41
The best way for a terrorist to weaponize and disseminate a chemical nerve agent to expose a large number of people would be to:
A. throw a paper bag loaded with nerve agent onto a busy subway train.
B. put it in a paper bag in a crowded mall and puncture the bag with a stick.
C. throw a Molotov cocktail loaded with nerve agent into a windshield of a passenger bus.
D. steal a truck that sprays for mosquitos and aerosolize the nerve agent into a crowded subdivision.
D. steal a truck that sprays for mosquitos and aerosolize the nerve agent into a crowded subdivision.
Chapter 41
Which of the following is not traditionally a responsibility of an EMT on the scene of a hazardous materials incident caused by terrorism?
A. Scene size-up
B. Identification of any indicators of a particular agent
C. Activation of the notification process
D. Establishing perimeter control
D. Establishing perimeter control
Chapter 41
The type of radiation that requires lead shielding for your protection is:
A. beta.
B. delta.
C. alpha.
D. gamma.
D. gamma.
Chapter 41
Which of the following chemical agents prohibits the use of oxygen in the cells?
A. Nerve agents
B. Blister agents
C. Cyanide
D. All of the above
C. Cyanide
Chapter 41
Which of the following may be a clue that an incident is the result of terrorist violence?
A. Number of people present
B. Occurrence on the anniversary of a significant or symbolic historical event
C. Function of the target
D. All of the above
D. All of the above
Chapter 41
Which of the following animals is the direct source of exposure to the bacterium that causes the plague in humans?
A. Bees
B. Rats
C. Squirrels
D. Fleas
D. Fleas
Chapter 29
Your patient is a 12-year-old boy who ran his arm through a glass window and has an 8-inch laceration on his anterior forearm. You have applied a pressure dressing and bandage, but these have become saturated due to continued bleeding. Which of the following should you do now?
A. Remove the pressure dressing and bandage, apply an ice pack to the wound, and bandage it in place with an elastic bandage.
B. Remove the pressure dressing and bandage, apply direct pressure with your gloved hand, and elevate the arm.
C. Apply additional dressing material, bandage it in place, and apply pressure to the brachial artery.
D. Elevate the arm and prepare to apply a tourniquet or consider administering a hemostatic agent.
D. Elevate the arm and prepare to apply a tourniquet or consider administering a hemostatic agent.
Chapter 29
Which of the following signifies a failure in the patient’s compensatory response to blood loss?
A. Tachypnea
B. Tachycardia
C. Hypotension
D. Pale, cool skin
C. Hypotension
Chapter 29
Which of the following terms refers to the delivery of oxygen and nutrients and the removal of wastes at the body’s cellular level?
A. Compensation
B. Perfusion
C. Cardiopulmonary response
D. Circulation
B. Perfusion
Chapter 29
Which of the following best describes the function of blood?
A. It transports gases and nutrients, aids in excretion, and provides protection and regulation.
B. It flows from the heart with the vital gases and nutrients needed to maintain a lack of perfusion.
C. It clots, flows, transports, protects, and excretes on a daily basis.
D. It is a life-giving liquid that supports all the body’s functions to maintain hypoperfusion.
A. It transports gases and nutrients, aids in excretion, and provides protection and regulation.
Chapter 29
Which of the following is an important early indicator of hypoperfusion?
A. Increased heart rate
B. Altered mental status
C. Delayed capillary refill
D. Dilation of the pupils
B. Altered mental status
Chapter 32
Which of the following best describes the compartment syndrome?
A. A non-life-threatening condition caused by orthopedic injuries in which blood flow is stopped when the bone ends compress the blood vessels
B. A serious condition caused by the bleeding and swelling from a fracture or crush injury that becomes so strong that the body can no longer perfuse the tissues against that pressure
C. A serious condition caused by the amount of equipment that must be carried in the ambulance compartments
D. A life-threatening condition caused by trapping the blood flow by a fracture when the bone ends cut the blood vessels
B. A serious condition caused by the bleeding and swelling from a fracture or crush injury that becomes so strong that the body can no longer perfuse the tissues against that pressure
Chapter 32
Which one of the following statements is not true concerning a knee injury?
A. Fractures can occur to the patella.
B. Fractures can occur to the proximal tibia and fibula.
C. Fractures can occur to the proximal femur.
D. There could be pain and tenderness.
C. Fractures can occur to the proximal femur.
Chapter 32
Which of the following allows for smooth movement of bone surfaces against one another at joints?
A. Ligaments
B. Tendons
C. Cartilage
D. Smooth muscle
C. Cartilage
Chapter 34
Which of the following is not a significant mechanism of injury for a driver in a vehicle accident according to CDC guidelines?
A. Ejection from the vehicle
B. Encroachment greater than 12 inches of the driver’s compartment
C. Spidering of the windshield
D. Death of a passenger in the same vehicle
C. Spidering of the windshield
Chapter 34
What are the three elements of the Revised Trauma Score?
A. Level of consciousness, systolic blood pressure, and pulse rate
B. GCS, pulse rate, and respiratory rate
C. GCS, systolic blood pressure, and pulse rate
D. GCS, systolic blood pressure, and respiratory rate
D. GCS, systolic blood pressure, and respiratory rate
Chapter 41
Dangerous organisms that can grow in a variety of environments and are capable of producing toxic substances are known as:
A. biologics.
B. viruses.
C. bacteria.
D. toxins.
C. bacteria.
Chapter 41
Terrorist incidents typically involve all of the following agents
except:
A. explosives.
B. biologic agents.
C. nuclear agents.
D. allergens
D. allergens
Chapter 41
Dangerous organisms that grow inside of living cells and reproduce are known as:
A. biologics.
B. viruses.
C. bacteria.
D. toxins.
B. viruses.
Chapter 41
You are on the scene of a blast from an incendiary device. You notice that several patients are walking around with minor injuries, but they do not respond when you ask the “walking wounded” to follow you to a specific location for treatment. What should you do?
A. Use signs to give directions.
B. Speak louder.
C. Ignore them and start treating other patients.
D. Start checking vital signs and tagging each patient.
A. Use signs to give directions.
Chapter 40
When extrication will involve cutting the roof off a vehicle, stabilization of the vehicle should include:
A. placing chocks on both sides of at least two wheels.
B. deflating all tires by pulling the valve stems.
C. placing wheel chocks on both sides of all wheels.
D. deflating all tires by slashing them
B. deflating all tires by pulling the valve stems.
Chapter 40
Which of the following phases of extrication follows the other three phases?
A. Stabilizing the vehicle
B. Recognizing and managing hazards
C. Immobilizing and extricating the patient
D. Gaining access to the patient
C. Immobilizing and extricating the patient
Chapter 40
Which of the following is a reason that the vehicle doors are removed to extricate the patient rather than pulling the patient through an open window?
A. To allow a patient with life-threatening injuries to be removed quickly
B. To avoid being cut by glass
C. To avoid criticism from bystanders
D. To make the interior of the vehicle less accessible
A. To allow a patient with life-threatening injuries to be removed quickly
Chapter 40
If you are first on scene, what should you do first in determining where and how you should park your apparatus?
A. Provide downstream blocking if you are driving one of the larger units.
B. Immediately park in the same direction and in single file.
C. Use apparatus to institute “downstream blocking” of the scene to protect the work area.
D. Establish Command and confirm the exact location of the incident with the dispatch center before parking.
D. Establish Command and confirm the exact location of the incident with the dispatch center before parking.
Chapter 40
When controlling the scene of an emergency involving damaged power poles and downed electrical wires, the EMT must remember to:
A. use nonconductive implements to make a safe path to victims.
B. render the scene safe before entering the danger zone.
C. use double-thickness gloves to insulate the body from electrocution.
D. request appropriate personnel to cut the power source.
D. request appropriate personnel to cut the power source.
Chapter 40
Which of the following is the first concern when you are caring for a patient who has been in a vehicle collision?
A. Treating life-threatening injuries
B. Your own safety
C. Helping law enforcement get the driver’s name and insurance information
D. Preserving evidence, such as alcohol beverage bottles and vehicle positioning
B. Your own safety
Chapter 40
Which of the following is a common hazard associated with the inner circle of a typical auto extrication?
A. Penetrating injury from extrication tools
B. Broken glass and metal fragments
C. Carbon monoxide poisoning
D. Both A and C
B. Broken glass and metal fragments
Chapter 39
Which of the following is not the role of the first arriving EMT at the scene of a possible hazardous materials emergency?
A. Rescuing any victims still in the area of the spill
B. Requesting special resources to respond
C. Establishing a safe zone
D. Recognizing a hazardous materials emergency
A. Rescuing any victims still in the area of the spill
Chapter 39
You are an EMT on the scene of a mass-casualty incident in which there are 50 patients from a bus roll-over. Incident Command has been established and EMS, law enforcement, and rescue sectors are established. You have just discovered that one of the bus passengers was carrying a suspicious package that is now leaking a white powdery substance. Which of the following entities should you contact about this?
A. Incident Commander
B. Dispatch
C. Rescue officer
D. EMS officer
D. EMS officer
Chapter 39
What constitutes a multiple-casualty incident (MCI)?
A. An event that places a great demand on EMS equipment and personnel resources
B. An incident with 3 to 15 patients that the service handles without calling for additional resources
C. Any event that requires additional ambulances to adequately transport the patients from the scene
D. An event that unfolds over a long period of time and requires federal, state, and local response
A. An event that places a great demand on EMS equipment and personnel resources
Chapter 39
To respond to a hazardous materials incident, the EMT should be trained at which level?
A. Operations
B. Technician
C. Awareness
D. Specialist
C. Awareness
Chapter 39
An area near a hazardous materials incident that is upwind from the incident and on the same level is a good location for a:
A. danger zone.
B. treatment zone.
C. safe zone.
D. hot zone.
C. safe zone.
Chapter 38
When arriving as the first unit at the location of a motor vehicle collision on an interstate highway, you should position the ambulance so that:
A. you are nearest to the command post for easy communications with the incident commander.
B. it is at the bottom of the nearest on-ramp.
C. the crash is blocked by traffic with your vehicle as a barrier.
D. it is between the damaged vehicles.
C. the crash is blocked by traffic with your vehicle as a barrier.
Chapter 38
Studies have shown that drivers of other vehicles do not usually see or hear ambulances or other emergency vehicles until they are within ________ feet of it.
100 feet
Chapter 30
Which of the following is appropriate in caring for a patient with closed soft-tissue injuries and a significant mechanism of injury (MOI)?
A. Splint any swollen, deformed extremities.
B. Treat for shock if you think there are internal injuries even if the patient’s vital signs are normal.
C. Anticipate vomiting.
D. All of the above
D. All of the above
Chapter 30
In caring for a 27-year-old male who has a large laceration on his anterior forearm, you have noticed that your pressure dressing has become saturated with blood. Which of the following should you do next?
A. Remove the saturated dressings and apply a large trauma dressing.
B. Apply an ice pack over the original dressing.
C. Apply a tourniquet.
D. Apply additional dressing material over the top of the original dressing and bandage it in place.
D. Apply additional dressing material over the top of the original dressing and bandag
Chapter 30
You are dispatched to an auto repair shop for an “accident.” You arrive and are told by the owner that one of the workers apparently got his hand in the way while using a high-pressure grease gun and injected the grease into his hand. You find the patient seated in a chair with a coworker applying ice to the injured hand. Your examination reveals a minor round laceration in the hand. The patient is complaining of pain in the area but wants to let the wound take care of itself and go back to work. What should you do?
A. The patient is correct. This type of wound will heal on its own and he can go back to work.
B. Tell the patient that if it does not get better within the next few days he should consult his own doctor.
C. Remove the ice from the wound, then elevate and splint the limb. Transport the patient high priority.
D. Continue to apply cold, elevate and splint the limb, and transport the patient high priority.
Chapter 30
Which of the following is of concern with a puncture wound?
A. An object that remains impaled in the body
B. Strong possibility of contamination
C. Hidden internal bleeding with minimal external bleeding
D. All of the above
D. All of the above
Chapter 30
Your patient is a 25-year-old man who picked up an iron skillet with a very hot handle. He has a reddened area with blisters across the palm of his hand. Which of the following must be avoided in the prehospital management of this wound?
A. Application of antibiotic ointment
B. Removing rings
C. Application of a dry sterile dressing
D. Keeping the site clean
A. Application of antibiotic ointment
Chapter 31
Which of the following is a vascular organ in the abdomen that can produce blood loss quickly enough to result in life-threatening hemorrhage following high mechanism of injury blunt trauma?
A. Liver
B. Kidneys
C. Pancreas
D. Intestines
A. Liver
Chapter 31
What is the underlying cause of bluish or reddish facial discoloration following traumatic asphyxia?
A. The physiological strain of the body results in a flushed appearance and increased risk of a hypertensive event.
B. High pressure on the chest leads to blood being forced from the right atrium into the face and neck.
C. The bluish or reddish facial discoloration is not associated with traumatic asphyxia; a pale discoloration is usually present.
D. The patient has become hypoxic due to a chest injury, and the finding suggests central cyanosis.
B. High pressure on the chest leads to blood being forced from the right atrium into the face and neck.
Chapter 31
Which of the following injuries may produce distended neck veins?
A. Tension pneumothorax
B. Cardiac tamponade
C. Traumatic asphyxia
D. All of the above
D. All of the above
