chapter test 29-35, 38-41 Flashcards
Chapter 29
Which of the following signifies a failure in the patient’s compensatory response to blood loss?
A. Hypotension
B. Tachypnea
C. Tachycardia
D. Pale, cool skin
A. Hypotension
Chapter 29
Which of the following statements about treating a patient who appears to be in shock is false?
A. Airway management is a top priority.
B. Prompt transportation is a very high priority.
C. The patient should be promptly put on high-concentration oxygen.
D. Spend time on scene to correct the causes of the shock so it does not worsen.
D. Spend time on scene to correct the causes of the shock so it does not worsen.
Chapter 29
Which of the following is part of the body’s compensatory response to blood loss?
A. Blood vessels dilate and the heart rate decreases.
B. Blood vessels constrict and the heart rate decreases.
C. Blood vessels constrict and the heart rate increases.
D. Blood vessels dilate and the heart rate increases.
C. Blood vessels constrict and the heart rate increases.
Chapter 30
Which of the following is not considered soft tissue?
A. Membranes
B. Muscles
C. The skin
D. Cartilage
D. Cartilage
Chapter 30
You are dispatched to the local high school for a “person struck with a baseball.” You arrive on the scene and find a 16-year-old male sitting on the bench. Apparently he was the pitcher and was struck in the abdominal area by a line drive ball that was hit very hard. He states that nothing is hurting except he has some mild pain in the area where he was struck. He is upset that the ambulance was called and wants to go back into the game and continue pitching. Your exam reveals nothing remarkable except mild pain when you palpate the injured area. Vital signs are normal. What is the next step?
A. Tell the coach the patient is okay and he can go back into the ball game.
B. Have the patient walk to the ambulance and take him to the ED. No other care needs to be provided, as there is really no significant sign of any injury.
C. Have the coach apply cold to the area and let the pitcher back in the game if he does not get worse in the next 15 minutes.
D. Take appropriate Standard Precautions, apply high-concentration oxygen by nonrebreather mask, and transport the patient ASAP, carefully monitoring the patient during transport.
D. Take appropriate Standard Precautions, apply high-concentration oxygen by nonrebreather mask, and transport the patient ASAP, carefully monitoring the patient during transport.
Chapter 30
Which of the following statements is not true concerning the proper transport of an avulsed ear?
A. It should be labeled with the patient’s name, as well as the date and time it was bagged.
B. It should be in a dry sterile dressing.
C. It should be kept as cool as possible.
D. It should not be immersed in cooled water or saline.
B. It should be in a dry sterile dressing.
Chapter 30
You are assessing a 30-year-old male patient that had his arm caught in a piece of machinery. By the time you arrive, he has been freed. The patient tells you that he does not understand why you were called, but as you inspect the injured limb you notice a small puncture wound. You should have a high index of suspicion of which of the following injuries?
A. Crush injury
B. High-pressure injection
C. Puncture
D. Chemical burn
B. High-pressure injection
Chapter 30
Burns pose a greater risk to infants and children for which of the following reasons?
A. Pediatric patients have a greater risk of heart problems associated with the burn.
B. Pediatric patients have a greater risk of shock from the burn.
C. Infants and children have a greater risk of infection from the burn.
D. None of the above
B. Pediatric patients have a greater risk of shock from the bur
Chapter 30
Which of the following is a desirable characteristic of dressings used in the prehospital management of most open wounds?
A. Adherent
B. Occlusive
C. Absorbent
D. Sterile
D. Sterile
Chapter 30
The meatus is:
A. in a male, the area between the scrotum and the anus.
B. the tube that carries urine from the kidney to the bladder.
C. the external opening of the urethra.
D. the canal through which urine is discharged from the bladder to the exterior of the body.
C. the external opening of the urethra.
Chapter 30
Your patient is a 40-year-old man who was burned when he spilled gasoline on his pants as he was standing near the pilot light of his hot water heater. He has partial thickness burns from his feet to just above his knees, and circumferentially around both legs. Using the rule of nines, which of the following most accurately represents the extent of body surface area burned?
A. 18 percent
B. 4.5 percent
C. 36 percent
D. 9 percent
A. 18 percent
Chapter 31
Your patient was working on a car when it fell off the jack and trapped him between the tire and ground. His face is very blue and his eyes are bloodshot. Which of the following has the patient most likely suffered?
A. Traumatic asphyxia
B. Flail chest
C. Pneumothorax
D. Hemothorax
A. Traumatic asphyxia
Chapter 31
Which of the following is an unreliable sign for determining the presence of a tension pneumothorax?
A. Shortness of breath
B. Trachea that shifts to the side opposite the injury
C. Signs and symptoms of shock
D. Distended neck veins
B. Trachea that shifts to the side opposite the injury
Chapter 31
You are caring for a 27-year-old male who has a puncture wound to the right upper chest. The patient was stabbed with a serrated steak knife by his ex-girlfriend. You have placed an occlusive dressing on the site and begun emergent transport to the closest trauma center. However, while en route the patient begins to complain of increasing shortness of breath. You notice a decrease in ventilatory volume and an increase in thoracic diameter. Which of the following options would be the best step to perform next?
A. Free a corner or edge of the dressing to release pressure buildup.
B. Begin providing BVM-assisted ventilations to the patient.
C. Begin providing CPR to the patient.
D. Call dispatch for an ALS intercept en route to the hospital.
A. Free a corner or edge of the dressing to release pressure buildup.
Chapter 30
Which of the following is not a major function of the skin?
A. Excretion of wastes
B. Regulates the pH balance of the body
C. Temperature regulation
D. Protection from the environment
B. Regulates the pH balance of the body
(trick question because excretion of waste is not a function at all. and the question asks what is NOT a MAJOR function)
Chapter 31
Which of the following best describes an evisceration?
A. A penetrating chest wound in which air is “sucked” into the chest cavity
B. Movement of ribs opposite to the direction of movement of the rest of the chest wall
C. Open wound of the abdomen from which organs protrude
D. Fracture of two or more adjacent ribs in two or more places
C. Open wound of the abdomen from which organs protrude
Chapter 31
A patient with jugular vein distention is most likely suffering from which of the following injuries?
A. Pneumothorax
B. Tension pneumothorax
C. Hemothorax
D. Hemopneumothorax
B. Tension pneumothorax
Chapter 31
What is the correct terminology for a wound in which a vacuum has been created within the chest, drawing air into the thorax through a penetration of the chest wall with each breath?
A. Closed tension pneumothorax
B. Paradoxical motion
C. Open chest wound
D. Sucking chest wound
D. Sucking chest wound
Chapter 31
You are on an EMS standby for a boxing tournament. During one of the matches, one of the female boxers delivers a forcible uppercut to the chest of her opponent, who falls to the ground. The match is declared over on the basis of a TKO. However, the opponent fails to arise following a 1- to 2-minute interval. EMS is summoned to the ring. You find the patient pulseless and breathing agonal gasps. You suspect which of the following traumatic conditions?
A. Aortic dissection
B. Tension pneumothorax
C. Commotio cordis
D Cardiac tamponade
C. Commotio cordis
Chapter 32
Which of the following hazards may arise from properly splinting an injured extremity?
A. Ignoring life-threatening problems while focusing on an extremity injury
B. Compromising circulation to the extremity
C. Converting a closed fracture to an open one
D. All of the above
A. Ignoring life-threatening problems while focusing on an extremity injury
Key word, “properly”
Chapter 32
Your patient is a 28-year-old male who was ejected from his motorcycle after striking a parked vehicle. He has multiple deformities to his upper and lower extremities on both sides. Which of the following would be the best way to immobilize this patient’s extremities prior to transport?
A. Use moldable splints for the upper and lower extremities, padding any voids to fully stabilize the fractures.
B. Immobilize the patient to a long backboard without splinting the extremities individually.
C. Use padded board splints for the upper extremities and a PASG for the lower extremities.
D. Use traction splints for the lower extremities and allow the upper extremities to be immobilized by the long backboard.
B. Immobilize the patient to a long backboard without splinting the extre
Chapter 32
A pillow is frequently used to splint an ankle or foot injury. It is effective, rapid, and can be used for most patients. Its main weakness is:
A. you are not immobilizing the knee and the joint adjacent to the ankle.
B. it is hard to access distal pulses after application.
C. it requires three people to apply.
D. you might not have a pillow on your ambulance.
A. you are not immobilizing the knee and the joint adjacent to the ankle.
Chapter 32
What is a drawback to using sterile aluminum foil as an occlusive dressing?
A. Sterility cannot be ensured unless the foil was autoclaved.
B. A flutter valve is difficult to create with foil.
C. The foil may lacerate eviscerated organs.
D. Foil cannot create an airtight seal.
C. The foil may lacerate eviscerated organs.
Chapter 31
Which of the following describes the proper application of an occlusive dressing for an open chest wound?
A. Trim the dressing so that it is the exact size of the wound.
B. Use a porous material such as a 4” by 4” gauze pad.
C. Apply an occlusive dressing to each penetrating wound.
D. Traditional gauze dressings create the best seal over open wounds.
C. Apply an occlusive dressing to each penetrating wound.
Chapter 31
You find a middle-aged male sitting against a wall in obvious distress. The patient appears to be extremely short of breath and has an open wound to his chest that is making a sucking sound. You should:
A. place your gloved hand over the wound.
B. place a trauma dressing over the wound.
C. cover the wound with an occlusive dressing.
D. place the patient on high-concentration oxygen.
A. place your gloved hand over the wound.
Chapter 32
Which one of the following definitions is not true?
A. A sprain is the stretching and tearing of ligaments.
B. Joints are places where bones articulate.
C. Another name for manual traction is tension.
D. Tendons connect muscles to ligaments.
D. Tendons connect muscles to ligaments.
Chapter 32
Which of the following allows for smooth movement of bone surfaces against one another at joints?
A. Ligaments
B. Cartilage
C. Tendons
D. Smooth muscle
B. Cartilage
Chapter 32
Which one of the following statements is not true concerning a knee injury?
A. Fractures can occur to the proximal femur.
B. Fractures can occur to the patella.
C. Fractures can occur to the proximal tibia and fibula.
D. There could be pain and tenderness.
A. Fractures can occur to the proximal femur.
Chapter 31
Which of the following is an accurate definition of a flail chest?
A. Fracture of at least four ribs in two or more places
B. Fracture of one rib in two or more consecutive places
C. Lung that has been punctured by a fractured rib, resulting in a buildup of air
D. Section of the chest wall that is unstable, leading to breathing problems
D. Section of the chest wall that is unstable, leading to breathing problems
Chapter 32
A painter falls from his ladder and tells you he has dislocated his shoulder again. When you attempt to splint the shoulder, it “pops back into place.” What should your next step be?
A. Check distal CSM, apply a sling and swathe, and transport the patient.
B. Report the popping sound to the receiving physician when you arrive at the hospital.
C. Contact medical control for input into the best treatment for this patient.
D. Check distal CSM, apply a traction splint, and transport the patient.
A. Check distal CSM, apply a sling and swathe, and transport t
Chapter 32
What is a primary problem when treating musculoskeletal injuries?
A. Most musculoskeletal injuries are simply splinted and not a life threat to the patient.
B. Many musculoskeletal injuries have a grotesque appearance, and the EMT cannot be distracted from life-threatening conditions by a deformed limb.
C. All musculoskeletal injuries are life threatening due to the bone bleeding leading to hypoperfusion.
D. Splints do not adequately fit the patient’s extremities and must be modified with padding to ensure immobilization.
B. Many musculoskeletal injuries have a grotesque appearance, and the EMT cannot be distracted from life-threatening conditions by a deformed limb.
Chapter 32
Which of the following is not a benefit of splinting an injury to bones and connective tissues?
A. It may prevent a closed injury from becoming an open injury.
B. It restricts blood flow to the site of the injury to prevent swelling.
C. It prevents neurological damage due to movement of bone ends or fragments.
D. It reduces pain.
B. It restricts blood flow to the site of the injury to prevent swelling.
Chapter 32
Distinguishing between a knee dislocation and a patella dislocation can sometimes be difficult. Which of the following statements is not true?
A. You should always check for a distal pulse.
B. In a patellar dislocation, the knee will be stuck in flexion but the knee cap will not be displaced.
C. The lack of a distal pulse could be a signal of a real emergency.
D. In a knee dislocation, the tibia is forced anteriorly or posteriorly in relation to the distal femur.
B. In a patellar dislocation, the knee will be stuck in flexion but the knee cap will not be displaced.
Chapter 31
A patient with jugular vein distention is most likely suffering from which of the following injuries?
A. Hemopneumothorax
B. Pneumothorax
C. Tension pneumothorax
D. Hemothorax
C. Tension pneumothorax
Chapter 31
Which of the following is a strategy to maintain adherence of an occlusive dressing to bloody or diaphoretic skin?
A. Do not use adhesive tape.
B. Manually maintain pressure.
C. Wrap the dressing circumferentially with gauze.
D. Do not use occlusive dressings in this case.
B. Manually maintain pressure.
Chapter 32
Which one of the following statements is not true?
A. Muscles are the tissues or fibers that cause movement of body parts or organs.
B. Tendons are bands of connective tissue that bind the ligaments to muscles.
C. Cartilage is connective tissue that covers the outside of the bone end and acts as a surface for articulation.
D. Ligaments are connective tissues that connect bone to bone.
B. Tendons are bands of connective tissue that bind the ligaments to muscles.
Chapter 32
The PASG may be used as a splinting device for patients with which of the following suspected injuries?
A. None of the above
B. Compression fracture of the lumbar or sacral spine
C. Fractured pelvis
D. Hip dislocation
C. Fractured pelvis
Chapter 32
Your patient is a 3-year-old girl who is unable to move her elbow after her mother picked her up by the forearm. Proper splinting of this injury would be to immobilize from the ________ to the ________.
A. wrist; shoulder
B. wrist; elbow
C. forearm; humerus
D. fingertips; shoulder
C. forearm; humerus
Chapter 32
Your patient is a 37-year-old man who tripped while walking down a hill and now has a painful, deformed right leg. Your assessment reveals that the foot is cold and mottled in appearance. You cannot detect a pulse in the foot or ankle. Which of the following is the best course of action?
A. Gently attempt to straighten the leg to regain a pulse before splinting.
B. Explain to the patient that, because you cannot detect circulation in his foot, his leg will most likely have to be amputated above the site of the injury.
C. Transport rapidly to the nearest trauma center.
D. Splint the leg in the position in which it was found and transport without delay.
A. Gently attempt to straighten the leg to regain a pulse before splinting.
Chapter 32
What are the six Ps
Pain, pallor, paresthesia, pulses, paralysis, and pressure
Chapter 33
What is another name for the zygomatic bone?
A. Temporal
B. Malar
C. Maxillae
D. Mandible
B. Malar
Chapter 33
What is the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) of your adult male patient who has fallen off a horse, has his eyes open, and can follow your commands to squeeze his hands, but is confused about what happened and his whereabouts?
A. 13
B. 12
C. 14
D. 15
C. 14
Chapter 33
When a patient has a serious open wound to the neck, you are concerned about the possibility of an air embolism. The reason an air embolism can occur is because of:
A. the negative pressure in the chest.
B. pressure in the large neck veins that is lower than atmospheric pressure.
C. the higher pressure in the vessels of the neck.
D. damage to the trachea.
B. pressure in the large neck veins that is lower than atmospheric pressure.
Chapter 33
At which point may manual stabilization of the cervical spine be terminated?
A. When the patient is secured to a long backboard
B. After a cervical collar has been applied
C. Only when directed to do so by medical control
D. After a short immobilization device has been applied
A. When the patient is secured to a long backboard
Chapter 33
Your patient is a 38-year-old male driver of a vehicle that left the roadway and struck a bus stop shelter and a tree. He is sitting in the driver’s seat and conscious and alert, he has some abrasions on his forehead, his skin is warm and dry, and he has a strong radial pulse and no difficulty breathing. After applying a cervical collar, which of the following actions represents the most appropriate way for removing the patient from the vehicle?
A. Place a long spine board under the patient’s buttocks and then carefully lower the patient to the board in a supine position.
B. Place the backboard on the stretcher and have the patient stand, turn, and lie down on the backboard while you maintain manual inline stabilization of the cervical spine.
C. Have the patient stand up and then do a standing takedown onto a long backboard.
D. Perform rapid extrication onto a long spine board.
A. Place a long spine board under the patient’s buttocks and then carefully lower the patient to the board in a supine position.
Chapter 33
Your patient is a 35-year-old woman who was driving a minivan that was struck in the driver’s side door by another vehicle. You notice that when you apply pressure to her sternum with your knuckles she extends her legs and flexes her arms and wrists. When giving your radio report, which of the following terms should you use to describe this?
A. Tonic-clonic activity
B. Battle sign
C. Posturing
D. Cushing reflex
C. Posturing
Chapter 33
Which of the following systems includes the pairs of nerves that enter and exit the spinal cord between each pair of vertebrae?
A. Peripheral nervous system
B. Autonomic nervous system
C. Central nervous system
D. All of the above
A. Peripheral nervous system
Chapter 33
Your patient is a 16-year-old centerfielder on his high school baseball team. He was injured when he and the left fielder collided trying to catch a fly ball. He is disoriented and is unable to tell you what happened. His vital signs are pulse 88, blood pressure 132/86, respiratory rate 16, and pupils equal. As you assess his head, you do not see any cuts or bleeding, but you feel a spongy, depressed area over his left ear. You should suspect a(n):
A. open head injury.
B. indirect injury.
C. laceration injury.
D. closed head injury.
A. open head injury.
Chapter 33
Your patient has had his throat slashed during a robbery attempt. You are concerned because it is apparent that the vessels in his neck have been lacerated. A breach in which of the following vessels would be most likely to lead to an air embolism?
A. Arterioles
B. Capillaries
C. Arteries
D. Veins
D. Veins
Chapter 33
The bony bumps you feel along the center of a person’s back are known as which of the following?
A. Dermatome
B. Vertebrae
C. Foramen magnum
D. Spinous process
D. Spinous process
Chapter 33
Which of the following is not a common field finding in spinal injuries?
A. Impaired breathing
B. Tenderness
C. Deformity
D. Pain with movement
C. Deformity
Chapter 33
You are called for a man who is not acting right. His wife says he was outside working in the garden but didn’t come in for lunch when he was called. She went to check on him and found him sitting next to a stump, confused. You assessment shows a pulse rate of 58, blood pressure of 186/82, respirations of 16, and one of his pupils is dilated. You are unable to detect any signs of trauma and you don’t see any obvious indication that he has fallen. You should suspect a(n):
A. closed head injury.
B. open head injury.
C. insecticide poisoning.
D. nontraumatic brain injury.
D. nontraumatic brain injury.
Chapter 33
Which of the following describes the proper position of the patient’s head for spinal immobilization?
A. Stabilized in position found
B. The “sniffing” position
C. Neutral, inline position
D. Chin tilted upward for airway maintenance
C. Neutral, inline position
Chapter 33
Which of the following is defined as an area of the body surface that is innervated by a single spinal nerve?
A. Maxillae
B. Malar
C. Spinous process
D. Dermatome
D. Dermatome
Chapter 33
Which of the following is a potential complication of hyperventilating a patient with a brain injury?
A.
A. Increasing blood flow to the brain
B. Decreasing blood flow to the brain
C. Decreasing the patient’s blood pressure
D. Increasing the amount of carbon dioxide in the blood
B. Decreasing blood flow to the brain
Chapter 35
You arrive on the scene to find a scuba diver on board a boat slumped over in the captain’s chair with frothy blood in his mouth. The captain states that the diver was down no more than 15 feet when he ascended rapidly and called for help. Which of the following is most likely?
A. Pnemothorax
B. Decompression sickness
C. Air embolism
D. The bends
C. Air embolism
Chapter 35
In which of the following situations would a person lose heat by conduction?
A. Going outside without a coat during a cold but calm day
B. Wearing wet clothing in windy weather
C. Breathing
D. Sitting on cold metal bleachers at a football game
D. Sitting on cold metal bleachers at a football game
Chapter 35
The term gangrene means localized tissue:
localized tissue death
Chapter 35
Of the following venomous snakes, which one usually has the highest incidence of a “dry bite”?
A. Rattlesnake
B. Water moccasin
C. Coral snake
D. Copperhead
C. Coral snake
Chapter 35
You respond to a professional volleyball tournament for a potential heat stroke. Upon arrival you find a 28-year-old male patient seated inside the air-conditioned first aid trailer. He is alert and in obvious distress. He is complaining of severe cramping of his arms and legs. His vital signs are stable. What is the most likely cause of the cramping?
A. Heat exhaustion
B. Sweating too much
C. Cooling off too quickly
D. Drinking too many sports drinks
B. Sweating too much
Chapter 35
Where should constricting bands be placed to reduce lymphatic flow after a venomous snake bite?
A. 2 inches above and below the bite
B. 4 inches above and below the bite
C. Directly over the bite
D. None of the above
A. 2 inches above and below the bite
Chapter 35
Which of the following could worsen the effects of a snake bite?
A. Cutting and suctioning out the venom
B. Application of ice
C. Constricting bands above and below the bite
D. Having the patient lie still
B. Application of ice
Chapter 35
Which of the following would you expect to see in a patient with severe hypothermia
A. Irrational behavior
B. Rapid respirations
C. Loss of muscle tone
D. Tachycardia
A. Irrational behavior
Chapter 35
You respond to a landing zone to pick up a skier who was lost in the woods for 36 hours and found by the search-and-rescue helicopter. Your patient is a 19-year-old male patient. He is alert and oriented to time, person, place, and event. He is covered in blankets and shivering. He complains of not being able to feel his fingers. Physical exam reveals that the fingers of both extremities have a waxy appearance and feel “frozen” on the surface. After treating the patient for potential hypothermia and rapid transport, your next action is to:
A. gently bandage the digits.
B. actively rewarm the digits.
C. gently warm the digits by slowly massaging them.
D. keep the digits frozen on ice until they can be properly rewarmed at the hospital.
A. gently bandage the digits.
Chapter 35
The term blanching, used to describe localized cold injury, means the tissue has turned to which of the following colors?
A. White
B. Black
C. Red
D. Blue or purple
A. White
Chapter 35
Why is it important to keep patients at rest when they are hypothermic?
A. Because the blood is warmest in the extremities, exercise or unnecessary movement could quickly circulate the warm blood and raise the core body temperature.
B. Because the blood is coldest in the extremities, exercise or unnecessary movement could quickly circulate the cold blood and lower the core body temperature.
C. Because the blood is coldest in the extremities, exercise or unnecessary movement could quickly circulate the cold blood and drop the blood pressure.
D. None of the above.
B. Because the blood is coldest in the extremities, exercise or unnecessary movement could quickly circulate the cold blood and lower the core body temperature.
Chapter 35
Which of the following types of snake is not a pit viper?
A. Coral snake
B. Copperhead
C. Water moccasin
D. Rattlesnake
A. Coral snake
Chapter 35
You respond to a boat dock for a diving injury. You find a 24-year-old male patient unresponsive with frothy blood in the mouth and lung sounds absent on the right side. The patient’s friends state they were diving when he came out of the water complaining of chest pains and then collapsed. What condition do you suspect?
A. Air embolism
B. Myocardial infarction
C. Decompression sickness
D. Near drowning
A. Air embolism
