Chapter questions Flashcards
1
Q
when people eat the foods typical of their families or geographical region, their choices are influenced by?
A
D: heritage and tradition
2
Q
what is the difference between organic and inorganic?
A
organic contains carbon, inorganic does not
3
Q
how much energy do carbohydrates, fats and proteins yield per gram? how is energy measured?
A
carbohydrates: 4kcal/g
fats: 9kcal/g
proteins: 4kcal/g
4
Q
describe how alcohol resembles nutrients. why is alcohol not considered a nutrient?
A
alcohol provides 7kcal/gram of energy but interferes with the body’s growth, maintenance and repair, therefore its not considered a nutrient
5
Q
the nutrient found most abundantly in both the human body and most foods is?
A
B: water
6
Q
the inorganic nutrients are?
A
C: minerals and water
7
Q
the energy yielding nutrients are?
A
D: carbohydrates, fats and proteins
8
Q
what is the science of nutrition?
A
the study of nutrients and other substances in food and the handling of them by the body
9
Q
explain how variables might be correlational but not causal.
A
correlational variables have an association with eachother but are not a cause
10
Q
studies of populations that reveal correlations between dietary habits and disease incidence are?
A
D: epidemiological studies
11
Q
an experiment in which neither the researchers nor the subject know who is receiving treatment is known as?
A
A: double blind
12
Q
waht judgement factors are involved in setting the energy and nutrient recommendations
A
How much of nutrient a person needs which is determined by studying deficiency states, nutrient stores, &depletion & by measuring body’s intake & excretion of the nutrient; that different individuals have different requirements; at what dividing line the bulk of the pop is covered
13
Q
an RDA represents the
A
C: average amount of a nutrient considered adequate to meet the known nutrient needs of practically all healthy people
14
Q
what methods are used in nutrition surveys? what kinds of information can these surveys provide?
A
historical information on diet and health
anthropometric measurements
physical examinations
laboratory tests
together these methods reveal the stages of a nutrient deficiency
15
Q
historical information, physical examinations, laboratory tests and anthropometric measurements are?
A
D: methods used in a nutrition assessment
16
Q
a deficiency is caused by an inadequate dietary intake is called?
A
C: primary deficiency
17
Q
behaviors such as smoking. dietary habits, physical activity and alcohol consumption that influence the development of disease are known as?
A
A: risk factors
18
Q
nutrition misinformation is often based on?
A
B: anecdotal evidence
19
Q
describe the challenges associated with digesting food and the solutions offered by the human body
A
breaking down foods into nutrients for the body to use
digestion breaks the food into nutrients and absorption brings these nutrients into the cells of the small intestine for transport to the body’s cells
20
Q
name 5 organs that secrete digestive juices. how do the juices and enzymes facilitate eachother
A
salivary glands: saliva eases swallowing, enzymes break down some carbohydrates
gastric glands: gastric juice (hydrochloride) fluid mixes with bolus; hydrochloric acid uncoils proteins; enzymes break down proteins; mucus protects stomach cells
pancreatric glands: pancreatic juice, bicarbonate neutralizes acidic gastric juices; pancreatic enzymes break down carbs, fats and proteins
liver: bile, bile is stored in the gallbladder until needed
gallbladder: storage of bile; bile emulsifies fat so enzymes can break it down
intestinal glands: intestinal juices; intestinal enzymes break down carbs, fats and protein fragments; mucus protects intestinal cells
21
Q
the semiliquid, partially digested food that travels through the intestinal tract is called?
A
C: chyme
22
Q
the muscular contractions that move food through the GI tract are called?
A
C: peristalsis
23
Q
the main function of bile is?
A
A: emulsify fats
24
Q
the pancreas neutralizes stomach acid in the small intestine by secreting
A
D: bicarbonate
25
which nutrient passes through the GI tract mostly undigested and unabsorbed?
B: fiber
26
the fingerlike projections on the small intestine that dramtically increase its surface area are called?
A: villi
27
absorption occurs primarily in the
C: small intestine
28
all blood leaving the GI tract travels first to the
B: liver
29
which nutrients leave the GI tract by way of the lymphatic system
D: fats and fat-soluble vitamins
30
how does the composition of the diet influence the functioning of the GI tract
a well balanced diet contains a good source of microbes which support Gi tract health
31
what steps can you take to help your Gi tract function at its best
for optimal functioning the GI tracts needs a well balanced diet , enough rest and enough physical activity
32
digestion and absorption are coordinated by the
C: hormonal and nervous systems
33
gastrin, secretin and cholecystokinin are examples of
C: hormones
34
which of the following is most likely to aggravate heartburn?
D: lie down and rest immediately after eating
35
what happens in a condensation reaction? in a hydrolysis reaction?
condensation: a condensation reaction can bin 2 monosacharides together to form disacharides and water
hydrolysis: a hydrolysis reaction can use water to split a disacharide into its monosacharides
36
how are starch and glycogen similar, and how do they differ? how do fibers differ from other polysacharides
glycogen is a storage polysacharide in animals and starch in plants and can both be broken down to glucose to yield energy
fibers can not or hardly be broken down by the human digestive enzymes and yield little, if any, energy
37
disacharides include:
C: sucrose, maltose and lactose
38
the making of disacharides from two monosacharide is an example of
C: condensation
39
The significant difference between starch and cellulose is that:
D: digestive enzymes can break the bonds in starch, but not in cellulose
40
what role does fiber play in digestion and absorbtion
fibers help to regulate the passage of food through the GI tract and slow the absorption of glucose
41
descibe lactose intolerance and its symptoms
when the body doesnt contain enough lactase to break down lactose, it can cause GI distress
42
the ultimate goal of carbuhydrate digestion and absorption is to yield
B: glucose
43
the enzyme that breaks a disaccharide into glucose and galactose is
D: lactase
44
what are the possible fates of glucose in the body? what is the protein-sparing action of carbohydrate
Glucose can be converted into glycogen for storage in the muscles and liver
glucose can be stored as fat if intake exceeds usage
Glucose can be used as energy in the cells which can be derived from carbohydrates, if its derived from carbohydrates its saves the body from breaking down proteins to acquire the necessary glucose
45
the storage form of glucose in the body is
D: glycogen
46
with insufficient glucose in metabolism, fat fragments cobine to form
D: ketone bodies
47
what does the pancreas secrete when blood glucose rises? and when blood glucose falls?
A: insulin and glucagon
48
what are dietary recommendations regarding concentrated sugar intakes
concentrated sugars are low in nutrients and high in kcal and may need to be limited
49
describe the risks and benefits of using alternative sweeteners
to control weight gain. blood glucose and dental caries consumer may use alternative sweeteners to limit sugar and kcal intake
50
what foods provide starches and fibers?
plant based foods
51
carbohydrates are found in virtually all foods except
B: meats
52
what percentage of the daily energy intae should come from carbohydrates
D: 45 to 65 (40-70 Dutch regulations)
53
which of the following is true?
*A: high frusctose corn syrup is chemically similar to sucrose
B: Diets with a high glycemic index are most effective in fostering weight loss
C: energy intake from carbuhydrates has remained stable over the past 40 years
D: some people have a physiological addiction to sugar that makes it impossible for them to moderate use
54
name three classes of lipids found in the body and in foods. what are some of their functions in the body? what features do fats bring to foods?
triglycerides: triglycerol with three fatty acids, main form of fat used as storage in the body. unsatured or satured fats can alter the consistency of fats at room temperature
phospholipids: the best known phospholipid is lecithin and has 2 fatty acid groups attached to a glycerol and the third site used by a phosphate group + molecule of choline. the hydrophobic fatty acids make phospholipids soluble in fat and the hydrophillic phosphate group makes them dissolvable in water. this way phospholipid can be used as emulsifiers in foods
sterols: alcohol derivatives with a steroid ring structure. the most well known sterol is cholesterol. many main body compounds are sterols like bile acids, sex hormones, adrenal hormones and vitmain D
55
what features distinguish fatty acids from eachother
the length of their carbon chain
their degree of unsaturation
the location of their double bond(s)
56
what does the term omega mean with respect to fatty acids? describe the roles of the omega fatty acids in disease prevention
omega refers to the position of the closest double bond to the methyl (CH3) end of a fatty acid
omega-3 and omega-6 are essential fatty acids the body cant make itself. help regulate blood pressure, blood clotting and other body functions
57
describe the structure of a triglyceride
a glycerol group with three fatty acid chains
58
what does hydrogenation do to fats? what are trans-fatty acids, and how do they influence heart disease
hydrogenation: add hydrogen molucules to all the points of unsaturation of a fat.
trans-fatty acids: the hydrogens next to the double bonds are on opposite sides of the carbon chain. acts more like saturated fats, increasing blood cholesterol and the risk of heart disease.
59
saturated fatty acids are?
fully loaded with hydrogens
60
a triglyceride consists of
C: three fatty acids attached to a glycerol
61
the difference between cis and trans fatty acids is:
D: the configuration around the double bond
62
which of the following is not true? lecithin is:
A: an emulsifier
B: a phospholipid
*C: An essential nutrient
D: a constituent of cell membranes
63
what do lipoproteins do? what are the differences among the chylomicrons, VLDL, LDL and HDL
lipoproteins carry triglycerides, phospholips and sterols throughout the body
chylomicrons: largest lipoprotein that transport diet derived lipids from the small intestine to the rest of the body
VLDL (very low density lipoproteins): lipids made in the liver together with remnants of chylomicrons are packaged with proteins as a VLDL
LDL(low density lipoprotein): cells remove triglycerides from the VLDL as it travels through the body, making it smaller and leaving cholesterol in the lipoprotein, which turn in the predominant lipid inside it. this turns the VLDL into LDL
HDL (high density lipoprotein): teh liver makes HDL to remove cholesterol from cells and carry it back to the liver for recycling or disposal.
64
chylomicrons are produced in the
D: small intestine
65
transport vehicles for lipids are called
B: lipoproteins
66
which of the following is not true, Fats:
*A: contain glucose
B: provide energy
C: protect against organ shock
D: carry vitmains A, D, E and K
67
the essential fatty acids include
D: Linoleic acid and linolenic acid
68
how does excessive fat intake influence health? what factors influence LDL, HDL and total blood cholesterol
too much fat provides energy without nutrients, which leads to obesity and nutrient deficiencies
too much saturated fat, trans fat and cholesterol increase the risk of heart disease and possibly cancer
69
what are the dietary recommendations regarding saturated fat and cholesterol intake? list ways to reduce intake
```
20-40% of total daily fat intake
<10% daily saturated fat intake
as little trans vet as possible
<300 mg cholesterol daily
replace foods containing high amounts of saturated fats with lower fat option or unsaturated fats.
```
70
the lipoprotein mos associated with high risk of heart disease is:
C: LDL
71
what is the daily value for fat (for a 2000kcal diet)
20-40%
72
a person consuming 2200 kcal a day who wants to meet health recommendations should limit daily fat intake to:
B: 50 to 85 grams
73
explain how the sequence of amino acids affects protein shape and function
proteins consists of chains of amino acids. the different kinds of amino acids linked together in the chain form each protein and determine their function
74
what are essential amino acids
amino acids the body cant make itself and needs be derived from foods
75
which part of its chemical structure differentiates one amino acid from another
A: its side group
76
isoleucine, leucine and lysine are
C: essential amino acids
77
in the stomach, hydrochloric acid:
A: Denatures proteins and activates pepsine
78
what are enzymes? what role do they play in chemical reactions? describe the differences between enzymes and hormones
enzymes: proteins that facilitate chemical reactions
hormones: proteins that regulate body processes
79
how does the body use amino acids? what is deanimation? define nitrogen balance. what conditions are associated with zero, positive and negative balance?
amino acids are linked together into polypeptide chains, turning into proteins
deanimation: heat, acid or other conditions that disturb a proteins stabiility they uncoil and lose their shape, rendering them disfunctional
nitrogen balance: measure of the body's assimilation of amino acids into proteins and its release of amino acids via protein degredation and excretion
zero: protein intake and excretion is balanced
positive: protein intake exceeds excretion and is prevalent in growing infants, children, adolescents, pregnant women and people recovering from protein deficiency or illness
negative: protein excretion exceeds intake; people who are starving or suffering from illness, burns, injuries; the body breaks down lean muscle tissue and other body proteins for energy.
80
proteins that maintain the acid-base balance of the blood and body fluids by accepting and releasing hydrogen ions are:
A: buffers
81
if an essential amino acid that is needed to make a protein is unavailable the cells must:
C: break down proteins to obtain it
82
protein turnover describes the amount of protein:
C: synthesized and degraded
83
how can vegetarians meet their protein needs without eating meat.
plants offer less protein than animal foods and are also lower quaality meaning that vegetarian have to use complementary proteins
complementary proteins: two or more dietary proteins whose amino acid assortment complement eachother in such a way that the essential amino acids missing from one are supplied by the other
84
which of the following foods provides the highest quality protein?
A: egg
85
how might protein excess, or the type of protein eaten, influence health
protein deficiency impairs the body's ability to grow and function optimally
excess has no benefits and may incur health problems
86
what factors are considered in establishing recommended protein intakes
* that people are healthy and do not have unusual metabolic needs for protein
* the protein eaten will be of mixed quality, high and low
* that the body will use proteins efficiently
* protein is consumed alongside enough carbohydrates and fats to provide adequate energy
* other nutrients in the diet are also adequate
87
what are the benefits and risks of taking protein and animo acid supplements
healthy people dont needs supplements to meet their demand for protein and amino acids. supplements can help with an established deficiency but it can also quickly cause an excess leading to toxicity
88
the protein RDA for a healthy adult who weighs 180 pounds is:
B: 65 mg/day (180/2.2 = 81,8 kg and 81.8 kg x 0.8 = 65,5 mg)
89
which of these foods has the least protein per 1/2 cup
D: orange juice
90
the area of study that examines how environmental factors gene expression without changing the DNA is known as:
A: epigenetics
91
Define metabolism, anabolism and catabolism, give an example of each
metabolism: te sum total of all chemical reactions that go on in living cells
anabolism: the building of body compounds, they require energy
catabolism: reactions where large molecules are broken down into smaller ones, they release energy
92
what are coenzymes and what service do they provide in metabolism
complex organic molecules that work with enzymes to facilitate their activity
93
hydrolysis is an example of a:
C: catabolic reaction
94
during metabolism, released energy is captured and transferred by:
D: adenosine triphosphate (ATP)
95
name the four basic units, derived from foods, that are used by the body in energy metabolism. how many carbons are in the backbones of each?
Glucose: 6 carbons
amino acids: 1 carbon
glycerol: 3 carbon
fatty acids: depending on chain length
96
define aerobic and anaerobic, how does insufficient oxygen influence metabolism
aerobic: with oxygen present
anaerobic: without oxygen present
insufficent oxygen will cause anaerobic reactions to take place, producing lactate from pyruvate
97
how does the body dispose of excess nitrogen
deamination results in the production of ammonia, this gets transformed into urea by the liver and excreted by the kidneys with the urine
98
the body derives most of its energy from
C: glucose and fatty acids
99
glycolysis:
C: converts glucose to pyruvate
100
the pathway from pyruvate to acetyl CoA:
C: is metabolically irreversible
101
for complete oxidation, acetyl CoA enters:
B: the TCA cycle
102
deanimation of an amino acid produces:
C: Ammonia and a keto acid
103
before entering the TCA cycle, each of the energy yielding nutrients is broken down to:
D: Acetyl CoA
104
what adaptations does the body make during a fast? what are ketone bodies? define ketosis
when fasting the body adapts to conserve energy and minimize losses by increasing fat breakdown to fuel most cells
ketone bodies: acidic compounds produced by the liver during the incomplete breakdown of fat when carbohydrate is not available
ketosis: ketone bodies with a COOH group are a keto acid, when their concentration in the blood rises, the blood pH drops
105
distinguish between a loss of fat and a loss of weight and describe how each might happen
loss of fat is a loss of body fat and doesnt necessarily mean weight loss, for example someone who excercises will lose fat but gain muscle tissue which doesnt make them lose (much) weight.
106
the body stores energy for future use in:
C: triglycerides
107
during a fast, when glycogen stores have been depleted, the body begins to synthesize glucose from:
B: amino acids
108
during a fast the body produces ketone bodies by:
B: condensing acetyl CoA
109
alcohol metabolism occurs primarily in the:
A: liver`
110
a person who consistently consumes 1700 kcal a day and expends 2200 kcal a day for a month would be expected to
C: lose 4 to 5 pounds
a deficit of 500kcal a day = 15000 for a month
1kg = 7000 kcal
15000/7000 = 2.14 kg
2.14kg x 2.2 = 4.7 pounds
111
a bomb calorimeter measure:
B: energy available form foods
112
the psychological desire to eat that accompanies the sight, smell and thought of food is known as
C: appetite
113
a person watching television after dinner reaches for a snack during a commercial in response to:
A: external cues
114
the largest component of energy expenditure is:
A: basal metabolism
115
a major factor influencing BMR is:
C: body composition
116
the thermic effect of an 800 kcal meal is about:
B: 80 kcal (10% thermic effect of food)
117
what problems are involved in defining ideal body weight
body composition is usually not taken into account and can misclassify people as overweight
118
what is central obesity, and what is its relationship to disease
excess abdominal fat (occurs mostly with men) and presents greater health risks than excess fat distributed over the lower part of the body
119
for health's sake, a person with a BMI of 21 might want to
B: maintain weight
```
BMI : underweight: <18.5
healthy weight: 18.5 - 24.9
overweight: 25 - 29.9
obese: 30 - 39.9
extreme obesity >40
```
120
which of the following reflects height and weight?
A: body mass index BMI
121
which of the following increases disease risks:
D: Central obesity
122
which of the following is not commenly seen in RED-S
A: amenorrhea
B: osteoporosis
C: disordered eating
*D: muscle disphoria
123
with weight loss fat cells:
A: decrease in size only
124
describe the role of lipoprotein lipase (LDL)
removes triglycerides from the blood for storage in both adipose tissue and muscle cells
125
obesity is caused by:
D: multiple factors
126
the protein produced by fat cells under the direction of the ob gene is called:
A:leptin
127
which of the following is not used to evaluate the risks to health from obesity
B: blood leptin levels
128
gastric bypass surgery:
B: limits food intake by reducing the capacity of the stomach
129
what are the benefits of increased physical activity in a weigh-loss program
physical activity can increase energy expenditure, improve body composition, help control appetite, reduce stress and stress eating, enhance physical and psychological well-being.
130
describe the behavioral strategies for changing an individual's dietary habits. what role does personal attitude play
changes in behavior and attitude can be very effective in supporting efforts to achieve and maintain appropriate body weight and composition. behavioral modification focuses on how to change behaviors to increase energy expenditure and decrease energy intake
131
a realistic goal for weight loss is to reduce body weight:
B: by 10% over 6 months (or 500kcal less a day/ 0.5-2 pounds a week)
132
a nutritionally sound weight-loss diet might restrict daily intake to create a:
C: 500 kcal per day deficit
133
successful weight loss depends on:
D: reduce energy intake and increasing physical activity
134
physical activity does not help a person to:
D: lose fat in trouble spots
135
which strategy would not help an overweight person to lose weight
D: eat energy dense foods regurlarly
136
which strategy would not help an underweight person to gain weight
B: drink plenty of water
137
a real benefit typical of many fad diets is
B: a diet plan
138
vitamins:
C: are soluble in either water or fat
139
the rate at and the extent to which a vitamin is absorbed and used in the body is known as its:
A: bioavailability
140
which B vitamins are involved in energy metabolism? protein metabolism? cell division?
energy metabolism: Thiamin, Riboflavin, Niacin, Biotin, Panthothenic acid
protein metabolism: Vitamin B6, Folate
cell division: Vitamin B12
141
What is the relationship between tryptophan and niacin
the amino acid tryptophan can be converted into niacin+serotonin in the body: 60 mg tryptophan = 1 NE (niacin equivalent)
142
describe the relationship between folate and vitamin B12
folate i spart of coenzyme THF that activated B12 and B12 activated Folate. excessive folate cna mask the anemia of a vitamin B12 deficiency
143
what risks are associated with high doses of niacin? vitamin B6? vitamin C?
niacin: niacin flush which causes tingling sensations
vitamin B6: nerve damage
vitamin C: GI distress, diarrhea
144
many of the B vitamins serve as:
A: coenzymes
145
with respect to thiamin, which of the following is the most nutrient dense:
C: 1 cup snow peas(69 kcal and 0.22 mg thiamin)
146
the body can make niacin from:
D: tryptophan
147
the vitamin that protects against neural tube damage is:
B: folate
148
a lack of intrinsic factor may lead to:
C: pernicious anemia
149
vitamin C serves as a:
C: antioxidant
150
which of the following is a B vitamin:
D: pantothenic acid
151
the requirement for vitamin C is highest for:
A: smokers
152
the best vitamin and mineral supplements:
D: provide 50-150% of the daily value
153
what are vitamin precursors? name the precursor of vitamin A, and tell what classes of foods they are found. Give examples of foods with high vitamin A activity
the body can producs vitamins from their precursors.
the precursor for vitamin A is beta-carotene.
retinoids are mostly found in animal foods such as liver and carotenoids are found in brightly coloured plant foods
beef liver and sweet potatoes are high in vitamin A
154
the form of vitamin A active in vision is:
A: retinal
155
vitamin A deficiency symptoms include:
C: night blindness and keratomalacia
156
good sources of vitamin A include:
B: apricots, turnip greens and liver
157
how is vitamin D unique among the vitamins
vitamin D is the only vitamin that can be synthesized by contact with sunlight.
158
to keep minerals available in the blood, vitamin D targets:
C: the intestines, the liver and the bones
159
vitamin D can be synthesized from a precursor that the body makes from:
C: cholesterol
160
vitamin E's most notable role is to:
A: protect lipids from oxidation
161
the classic sign of vitamin E deficiency is:
D: Erythrocyte hemolysis
162
what conditions may lead to vitamin K deficiency
when fat absorption falters as result of failed bile production, vitamin K production diminishes
antibiotics kill the vitamin K producing bacteria in the intestine
163
without vitamin K:
D: blood fails to clot
164
a significant amount of vitamin K comes from
C: bacterial synthesis
165
Free radicals:
A: are highly reactive
166
list the roles of water in the body
assists in the transport of nutrients and waste products
participates in chemical reactions
acts as a solvent
serves as a shock absorber
regulates body temp
167
list the sources of water intake and routes of water excretion
intake from liquid, foods and metabolism
excretion via urine via the kidneys
excretion via vapor form the lungs
from the skin as sweat
some from feces
168
what is ADH? where does it exert its action? what is aldosterone? how does it work?
ADH: antidiuretic hormone. whenever blood pressur or volume drop too low ADH is secreted by the pituitary gland signaling the kidneys to reabsorb water.
this also triggers thrist.
alcohol represses ADH activity, thus promoting fluid loss and dehydration.
aldosterone: angiotensin II stimulates the release of aldosterone from adrenal glands.
aldosterone signals the kidneys to excrete potassium and to retain more sodium, and therefore water
169
how does the body use elctrolytes to regulate fluid balance
electrolytes(charged minerals) help distribute the fluids inside and outside the cells, thus ensuring the appropriate water balance and acid-base balance
170
the body generates water during:
D: oxidation of energy nutrients through the electron transport chain
171
regulation of fluid and electrolyte balance and acid-base balance depends primarily on the
A: kidneys
172
what do the terms major and trace mean when describing the minrals in the body
major are the minrals the body needs in a larger quantity than the trace minerals for functioning
173
describe some characteristics of minerals that distinguish them from vitamins
minerals are inorganic elements
retain their chemical identity
receive special handling and regulation in the body
174
the distinction between the major and trace minerals reflects the:
B: amounts of their contents in the body
175
what is the major function of sodium in the body? describe how the kindeys regulate blood sodium. is a dietary deficiency of sodium likely? why or why not?
sodium is the principal cation of the extracellular fluid and primary regulator of its volume. also helps maintain acid-base balance and is essential to nerve impulse transmission and muscle contraction.
the kidneys filter all the sodium out of the blood and then return the exact amount of sodium the body needs, back into the blood
a dietary deficiency isnt likely since sodium is part of table salt which is used in most foods and cooking. when intakes are low the body also adapts by reducing losses in urine and sweat
176
list calcium's roles in the body. how does the body keep blood calcium constant regarding intake.
calcium is found primarily in the bones, where it provides rigid structure and a reservoir of calcium for the blood which is closely regulated by a system of hormones and vitamin D
177
name significant food sources of calcium. what are the consequences of inadequate intakes?
milk and milk products.
| inadequate intakes causes bone loss and to maintain blood calcium levels, causing osteoporosis
178
list the roles of phosphorus in the body. discuss the relationships betwen calcium and phosphorus. is a dietary deficiency of phosphorus likely? why or why not?
phosphorus accompanies calcium in the crystals of bone and in many foods such as milk
also important in energy metabolism as part of phospholipids and DNA and RNA and ATP
phosphorus is commenly found in most foods so a deficiency is unlikely.
179
state the major functions of chloride, potassium, magnesium and sulfur in the body. are deficiencies of these nutrients likely to occur in your own diet? why or why not?
chloride: major anion outside of the cells. associates closely with sodium. is part of regulating fluid balance and of the stomach's hydrochloric acid.
potassium: primary cation inside cells. plays a role in regulating fluid balance
magnesium: supports bone mineralization and participates in numerous enzyme systems and heart function
sulfur: in amino acids to stabalize proteins by forming sulfide bridges
180
the principal cation in extracellular fluids is:
A: sodium
181
the role of chloride in the stomach is to help:
C: maintain a strong acidity
182
which would provide the most potassium
B: potatoes
183
calcium homeostasis depends on:
D: vitamin D, calcitonin, parathyroid hormone
184
calcium absorption is hindered by?
B: oxalates
185
phosphorus assists in many activities in the body but not:
B: the clotting of blood
186
most of the body's magnesium can be found in the:
A: bones
187
which of the following is not a risk factor for osteoporosis?
A: overweight
188
discuss the importance of balanced and varied diets in obtaining the essential minerals and avoiding toxicities
a balanced and varied diet provides all of the essential minerals and helps decrease the risk of toxicities by not eating just one type of food in excess.
minerals are also best acquired via a varied diet and not through supplements which can quickly cause toxicity
189
describe some of the ways trace minerals interact with one another and with other nutrients
for example several of the trace minerals support insulin's work
interactions can lead to nutrient imbalances (slight manganese overload can aggravate an iron deficiency)
a deficiency of one might interfere with the owrk of another (a selenium deficiency halts the activation of the iodine containing thyroid hormones)
a deficiency might even open the way for a contaminant mineral to cause a toxic reaction (iron deficiency makes the body more vulnerable to lead poisoning)
190
distinguish between heme and nonheme iron. discuss the factors that enhance iron absorption
heme iron is only found in meat, fish and poultry is better absorbed than nonheme iron, which occurs in most foods
191
iron absorption is impaired by:
B: phytates
192
which of these people is least likely to develop an iron deficiency
B: 52 year old man
193
which of the following would not describe the blood cells of a severe iron deficiency
C: pernicious
194
which provides the most absorbable iron
C: 3 ounces of steak
195
what causes iron overload? what are its symptoms?
iron overload is an excess of iron
hemochromatosis is caused by a genetic failure to prevent unneeded iron in the diet from being absorbed
free radical damage, infections
increase risk of liver cancer, heart disease and arthritis
196
describe the differences and similarities in the absorption and regulation of iron and zinc
zinc has a circular passage from the small intestine to the body and back again
dietary factors such as phytates influence absorption like iron
197
discuss the possible reasons for a low intake of zinc. what facotrs afect the bioavailability of zinc
fibers and phytates in the diet inhibit zinc absorption, making it likely to cause a deficiency if the diet consists largely of these. this also lowers its bioavailability
198
the intestinal protein that helps to regulate zinc absorption is:
D: metallothionein
199
a classic sign of zinc deficiency is:
D: growth retardation
200
what public health measure has been used in preventing simple goiter
iodization of salt
201
cretinism is caused by a deficiency of:
B: iodine
202
the mineral best known for its role as an antioxidant is:
B: selenium
203
what measure has been recommended for protection against tooth decay
flouridation of public water
204
fluorosis occurs when fluoride:
A: is excessive
205
which mineral enhances insulin activity
C: chromium
206
which of the following does lead not compete with
C: fluoride
207
examples of phytochemicals include:
B: lycopene and lutein
208
the immune cells of the body do not include:
C: Antigens
209
which of the following produce antibodies:
D: B-cells
210
the leading cause of death in the united states is:
D: heart disease
211
plaques in the arteries contribute to the development of:
C: atherosclerosis
212
which blood lipid correlates directly with heart disease
B: LDL
213
weight loss and physical activity may protect against heart disease by:
B: raising HDL and lowering blood pressure
214
what is the most effective strategy for most people to lower their blood pressure
A: lose weight
215
describe the differences between type 1 and type 2 diabetes
type 1 diabetes is an auto immune disease where the pancreas cannot produce the necessary insulin that the body requires
type 2 diabetes is the most common version of diabetes and with this type the body becomes more resistant to the effect of insulin.
216
all of the following factors increase the risk of type 2 diabetes except:
D: smoking
217
the most important dietary strategy in diabetes is to:
A: provide for a consistent carbohydrate intake
218
describe the characteristics of a diet that might offer the best protection against the onset of cancer
limit alcohol and smoked food intake since these can initiate cancer development
limit animal fats since they can promote cancer development once it develops
increase fiber, antioxidant nutrients and phytochemical since they serve as antipromoters
219
which of the following helps to protect agains cancer
C: phytochemicals
220
describe the dietary choices that best protect against the development of most chronic diseases
optimal nutrition. dietary recommendations are aimed at populations to focus on controlling weight, limiting saturated and trans fat, increasing fiber rich fruits, vegetables and whole grains; and balancing food intake with physical activity
221
which of the following is generally considered safe:
B: aloe to promote wound healing
222
food insecurity refers to the
C: limited availability of foods
223
the most common cause of hunger in the united states is
A:poverty
224
SNAP debit cards cannot be used to purchase
D: laundry detergent
225
which action is not typical of a food recovery program
C: offering SNAP debit cards to low income people
226
the primary cause of the worst famine in the 20th century was
D: government policies
227
which of the following is most critical in providing food to all the world's people
C: decreasing poplation growth
228
the most likely cause of death in malnourished children is:
B: diarrheal disease
229
discuss the different paths by which rich and poor countries can attack the problems of world hunger and the environment
global environment is degrading largely because of our irresponsible use of resources and energy
environmental degredation reduces our ability to provide enough food for the world's people
governments, businesses and all individuals can make environmentally conscious choices to help solve world hunger, improve the quality of life and generate jobs
230
the most ecologically sound diet is
vegetable based and locally produced
