Chapter 9 TB Flashcards

1
Q

(T/F) The revenue cycle considered by auditors includes the sales process but not collections.

A

FALSE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

(T/F) The revenue cycle involves the procedures in generating a sales order, shipping the products, recording the transaction, and collecting the receivable.

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

(T/F) The shipping department confirms the shipment of goods by completing the packing slip and returning it to the purchasing department.

A

FALSE

STEP 6 in the Sales Process:
The shipping department records goods shipped and sends verification to the billing department for the generation of a sales invoice.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

(T/F) Monthly statements provide a detailed list of the customer’s activity for the previous month and a statement of all open items.

A

TRUE

Open Item refers to a financial transaction or record that has not yet been fully processed, reconciled, or settled. Open items are usually listed in a company’s accounting records or financial statements, and they need to be resolved or closed out to ensure the accuracy of the financial statements.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

(T/F) Invoices are normally prepared when the organization receives confirmation that goods were delivered to customers.

A

FALSE

An invoice should be issued when the vendor (or supplier) has completed a customer’s order. The order could be for products, services, or both. For a business that’s providing a product, usually an invoice will be generated shortly after delivery.

The shipping department records goods shipped and sends verification to the billing department for the generation of invoice.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

(T/F) The use of prenumbered sales invoices is the primary control procedure to satisfy the objective of authorization.

A

FALSE

The use of prenumbered sales invoices is the primary control procedure to satisfy the objective of completeness.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

(T/F) In a control risk assessment questionnaire, each negative (or “No”) answer to a question represents a potential internal control deficiency.

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

(T/F) Formal procedures for approving acceptance of returns are an appropriate control procedure for identifying and recording returned goods.

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

(T/F) One of the benefits of establishing a formal credit policy for granting credit is that management is freed from the burden of monitoring accounts receivable.

A

FALSE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

(T/F) Substantive tests of details for revenue transactions focus primarily on the completeness assertion.

A

FALSE

Management is more incentivized to overstate revenue, rather than understate it.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

(T/F) An appropriate mix of evidence for a low-risk client could include 20% tests of details, 40% analytics, and 40% tests of controls; an appropriate mix of evidence for a high-risk client could include 60% tests of details, 20% analytics, and 20% tests of controls.

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

(T/F) As required by auditing standards, auditors should ordinarily presume there is a risk of material misstatement caused by fraud relating to revenue recognition.

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

(T/F) A company that ships a large quantity of its products from its manufacturing plant to a warehouse that it leases until the customer is ready for the product should record the delivery to the warehouse as revenue.

A

FALSE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

(T/F) The intentional loading of sales at the end of a period to customers that do not need the goods at that time should not be recorded as revenues.

A

TRUE

Channel stuffing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

(T/F) The basic concept for revenue recognition is the realization of cash.

A

FALSE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

(T/F) A tendency for fraud may exist when the granting of stock options is dependent on reaching an earnings goal.

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

(T/F) A consistent pattern of earnings growth would eliminate the auditor’s concern for fraud in revenue recognition.

A

FALSE

“Too good to be true.”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

(T/F) When lapping occurs, all or most customer account balances will be overstated at any one time, making it relatively easy for auditors to detect the scheme.

A

FALSE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

(T/F) The auditor should be alert to the risk of material misstatements when cash flows from operations are negative and net income and revenues have increased.

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

(T/F) Ratio analysis performed by the audit team may include the comparison of gross profit percentage to industry averages.

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

(T/F) The auditor’s determination that the number of days’ sales in accounts receivable increased from 44 days to 100 days would usually be found through the use of ratio analysis.

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

(T/F) Edge and Gregg, LLP would most likely discover a client’s first-time use of channel stuffing through the use of trend analysis.

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

(T/F) Use of reasonableness tests by Bono Mullins, PC, will include relationships between financial but not non-financial data.

A

FALSE

Reasonableness testing – the analysis of accounts, or changes in accounts between accounting periods, that involves the development of a model to form an expectation based on financial data, non - financial data, or both.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

(T/F) The auditor has determined that the control risk for the existence assertion is low; therefore, the auditor may reduce the number of items tested on a substantive basis.

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

(T/F) Confirmations of bank accounts may help the auditor to determine if material amounts of accounts receivable have been sold to the bank on a recourse basis.

A

FALSE

Confirmations with banks will help identify any loan agreements wherein accounts receivables have been pledged as collateral.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

(T/F) When the auditor seeks evidence concerning the allowance for doubtful accounts, he or she would most likely use an aged trial balance to help identify past due balances.

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

(T/F) Current auditing standards do not require the confirmation of receivables if accounts receivable are not material.

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

(T/F) Accounts receivable confirmation letters should be prepared on the auditing firm’s letterhead.

A

FALSE

Accounts receivable confirmation letters should be prepared on the client’s letterhead.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

(T/F) Alternative procedures to the confirmation of receivables include review of subsequent collections and examination of supporting evidence.

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

(T/F) Lapping of accounts receivable is least likely to occur when there is an inadequate segregation of duties.

A

FALSE

Lapping of accounts receivable is more likely to occur when there is an inadequate segregation of duties.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

(T/F) Positive accounts receivable confirmations should be used on all accounts which represent small immaterial balances.

A

FALSE

Negative confirmations could be used on accounts which represent small immaterial balances.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

(T/F) When the client has a large number of relatively small accounts receivable and the assessed level of control risk for receivables and related revenue transactions is high, the auditor is more likely to use negative confirmations.

A

FALSE

Use positive confirmations when the assessed level of control risk for receivables and related revenue transactions is high.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

(T/F) The auditor would examine a sample of sales transactions throughout the entire period to determine if sales were recorded in the proper period when performing a sales cutoff test.

A

FALSE

Focus on before and after year-end.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

(T/F) An example of a control over the sales cycle is the authorization of price lists by the appropriate sales and marketing manager.

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

(T/F) An auditor would test controls over the occurrence of sales transactions by sampling recorded revenues and tracing them back to invoices and shipping documents.

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

(T/F) If control risk is assessed high, the auditor may send significantly fewer confirmations for a sample of accounts receivable than if the control risk is assessed low.

A

FALSE

If control risk is assessed high, the auditor may send significantly more confirmations for a sample of accounts receivable than if the control risk is assessed low.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

(T/F) In planning an audit for the revenue cycle, the auditor must consider the integrated relationship of evidence found between the accounts receivable and the notes payable accounts.

A

FALSE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

(T/F) A method of testing for the completeness of sales is to test the sequence of sales invoices used during the period under audit.

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

(T/F) Material debit balances in accounts payable for amounts due from vendors should be reclassified as accounts receivable.

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

(T/F) The use of data analytics tools makes the audit of the revenue cycle more effective, but not more efficient.

A

FALSE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

(T/F) Testing cutoff involves procedures applied to sales transactions selected from those recorded immediately prior to period end and immediately following period end.

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

(T/F) Valid evidence obtained in an audit for testing the cutoff of sales includes receiving reports for returned merchandise.

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

(T/F) An example of a test for completeness in the revenue cycle includes the sampling of shipping documents and tracing them to the sales journal and general ledger.

A

TRUE

Tracing

44
Q

(T/F) Negative confirmations are more expensive to administer than positive confirmations because of the added costs of investigating non-responses.

A

FALSE

45
Q

(T/F) Exceptions found in the confirmation of accounts receivable balances need not be projected as errors to the population as they are typically isolated errors.

A

FALSE

46
Q

(T/F) A timing difference type of exception in the confirmation process may arise when goods are in transit at the confirmation date.

A

TRUE

47
Q

(T/F) Negative confirmations are considered to be more persuasive than positive confirmations.

A

FALSE

48
Q

(T/F) Confirmation of accounts receivable is generally not effective in addressing the existence of fictitious sales recorded by the client.

A

FALSE

Confirmation of accounts receivable is generally effective in addressing the existence of fictitious sales recorded by the client.

49
Q

(T/F) An auditor’s primary concern with identifying related party sales and receivables rests with the presentation and disclosure assertion.

A

TRUE

50
Q

(T/F) Customer complaints noted in returned accounts receivable confirmations may be an indicator of fraud.

A

TRUE

51
Q

(T/F) The audit team typically reviews journal entries in the receivables ledger for unusual entries that may be indicators of fraudulent activity.

A

TRUE

52
Q

(T/F) Estimation of the allowance for doubtful accounts is a simple management decision as it is determined as a percentage of sales.

A

FALSE

53
Q

(T/F) An auditor might test the reasonableness of the client’s estimate of the allowance for doubtful accounts by developing an independent estimate of the allowance for doubtful accounts that is compared to the recorded allowance.

A

TRUE

54
Q

(T/F) While electronic confirmations of receivables are more efficient, they are seldom used because they are not considered as reliable as paper confirmations.

A

FALSE

55
Q

(T/F) Pre-numbered shipping and billing documents are examples of controls related to the completeness of sales transactions.

A

TRUE

56
Q

(T/F) An aging of accounts receivable is useful in estimating the reasonableness of the allowance for doubtful accounts.

A

TRUE

57
Q

Which of the following processes are not included in the revenue cycle?

Sending payments to suppliers.
Obtaining credit approval.
Preparing and sending monthly statements to customers.
Shipping products to customers.

A

Sending payments to suppliers.

58
Q

Which of the following is the fifth step in the five-step revenue recognition process prescribed by ASC 606?

Satisfaction of a performance obligation.
Execution of an enforceable contract for the transfer of goods or services.
Collection of substantially all of the transaction price from the customer.
None of the above.

A

Satisfaction of a performance obligation.

59
Q

Which of the following is a formal document that conveys responsibility for shipped merchandise to the shipper?

Sales invoice.
Receiving report.
Bill of lading.
Purchase order.

A

Bill of lading.

60
Q

Credit approval policies are implemented by organizations primarily to accomplish which of the following objectives?

To determine revenue recognition policies.
To ensure customer satisfaction.
To prevent lapping by the accounts receivable department.
To minimize credit losses.

A

To minimize credit losses.

61
Q

Sales transactions should be documented at initiation in order to accomplish which of the following objectives?

To provide the customer a copy of the transaction.
To provide evidence of authorization and recording.
To offer credit to customers.
To generate back orders.

A

To provide evidence of authorization and recording.

62
Q

The purpose of the bill of lading is to provide which of the following?

The warehouse personnel with the product that must be shipped to customers.
Invoices to customers for proper collection.
A credit application for customer approval.
Evidence of title transfer of goods to customers.

A

Evidence of title transfer of goods to customers.

63
Q

The risk of material misstatement due to fraud relating to revenue recognition should be

approached in a manner that is identical to control risk assessment.
given lower priority to the risk of embezzlement.
ordinarily presumed by the auditor.
assumed to have been considered by the FASB.

A

ordinarily presumed by the auditor.

64
Q

A method used by companies to fraudulently inflate revenues includes which of the following?

Use of hidden “side letters” giving the customer an irrevocable right to return the product.
Recording of fictitious sales.
Shipment of product not ordered by customers.
All of the above.

A

All of the above.

65
Q

Which of the following evidences delivery of product to customers sufficient for company recording as revenues?

A check received from the customer.
An agreement to purchase product signed by the customer.
A pick ticket in the warehouse.
A bill of lading and tracking number with the shipper.

A

A bill of lading and tracking number with the shipper.

66
Q

Which of the following must exist prior to the recognition of revenue by a company from the sale of a product?

Cash is realized on the sale of the product.
A price is discussed based upon the customer’s resale of the product.
The customer is given the option to return the product at any time.
The product is transferred to the customer.

A

The product is transferred to the customer.

67
Q

Fraud related to revenue recognition will most likely be identified by the auditor through which of the following independent situations?

Sales have increased 5% in the current period over the previous period and is consistent with the results of competitors.
Gross margin is equivalent in the current period to previous periods and is below that of the industry.
Sales are higher in the month preceding each quarter end.
Sales of a revolutionary new product are increasing beyond that of the competition in the periods immediately following its introduction.

A

Sales are higher in the month preceding each quarter end.

68
Q

Calculating the turnover of receivables is often used in testing the sales cycle by auditors when performing which of the following?

Trend analysis.
Ratio analysis.
Reasonableness testing.
Nonstatistical sampling.

A

Ratio analysis.

69
Q

An analysis of monthly sales compared with past years and budgets is a form of what type of testing?

Regression analysis.
Common size analysis.
Ratio analysis.
Trend analysis.

A

Trend analysis.

70
Q

Lithgow and Harris, CPAs, are performing the audit of Wild Flower Grocery Stores. Lithgow and Harris relates annual revenue to sales per square feet and sales per customer. What type of analysis is Lithgow and Harris most likely performing?

Ratio analysis.
Critical analysis.
Reasonableness tests.
Nonstatistical analysis.

A

Reasonableness tests.

71
Q

In an audit of financial statements, risks related to a high rate of return of products sold include which of the following?

Sales that are recorded improperly.
An estimate of accrued returns that reduces net income.
A reduction of net sales for an increase to the sales returns and allowance account.
Consignment goods that are returned and forwarded to third parties.

A

Sales that are recorded improperly.

72
Q

The major risk associated with receivables is related to which of the following?

They may be sold to a bank with recourse.
They may be recorded as long-term when in fact they will be realized in the current period.
They will not be realized for the entire amount due.
They are pledged as collateral as disclosed in the footnotes to financial statements.

A

They will not be realized for the entire amount due.

73
Q

Which of the following is a proper control for the detection of unusual sales transactions recorded in the general ledger?

Electronic authorization prior to posting.
Use of sequentially numbered sales documents.
Random statements to customers.
Review of transactions by upper management or the board.

A

Review of transactions by upper management or the board.

74
Q

A control that may be implemented to ensure all sales that occur are recorded in the general ledger includes which of the following?

Use of prenumbered shipping, invoice and sales documents.
Use of prenumbered statements, inventory lists and credit memos.
Reconciliation of invoices with customer statements.
Use of pre-authorized price lists.

A

Use of prenumbered shipping, invoice and sales documents.

75
Q

The internal audit department at Monument Company receives electronic exceptions reports for all sales transactions entered over $10,000 in total. This process is performed for which purpose?

Drafting financial statements.
Monitoring revenue transactions.
Providing management reports to the controller.
Providing suggestions for operational improvement.

A

Monitoring revenue transactions.

76
Q

Auditors will examine significant sales returns immediately subsequent to the period under audit in order to do which of the following?

Substantiate cutoff and the occurrence of net sales transactions.
Test the sufficiency of cash balances to cover refunds.
Monitor customer satisfaction for disclosure.
Assess the nature of procedures that will be performed for the next period’s audit.

A

Substantiate cutoff and the occurrence of net sales transactions.

77
Q

The auditor of the revenue cycle of ABC Company computes an estimate of ABC’s allowance for doubtful accounts and compares it to the estimate provided by ABC’s management. The purpose for this procedure is to substantiate which assertion?

Existence of receivables.
Cutoff of receivables.
Valuation of receivables.
Rights to receivables.

A

Valuation of receivables.

78
Q

What evidence is utilized by the auditor for analytical purposes in substantiating the completeness of the allowance for bad debt estimate?

Accounts receivable aging schedule.
Copies of checks received from customers.
Confirmations returned without exception.
Stock prices of customer companies.

A

Accounts receivable aging schedule.

79
Q

Much of the understanding of revenue transactions for compliance with GAAP can be performed by accomplishing which of the following tasks?

Examining sales contracts and inquiry of management.
Confirming sales with customers.
Discussing the transactions with qualified members of the Financial Accounting Standards Board.
Comparing shipping documents with invoices.

A

Examining sales contracts and inquiry of management.

80
Q

The auditor traces recorded sales to invoices, sales orders, and shipping documents in order to substantiate which assertion?

Cutoff.
Completeness.
Legality.
Occurrence.

A

Occurrence.

81
Q

In the audit of the revenue of Hiram Manufacturing Company, the auditors obtain a number of shipping documents shortly before year-end and immediately following the year under audit. The auditors compare the documents to the sales journal in order to test which of the following assertions?

Existence of sales.
Presentation and disclosure of receivables.
Cutoff of sales transactions.
Completeness of receivables.

A

Cutoff of sales transactions.

82
Q

Completeness of revenues may be tested by the auditor through the selection of a sample of which of the following?

Shipping documents and tracing them to the sales journal.
Accounts receivable and tracing them to cash receipts.
Recorded sales transactions and tracing them to the general ledger.
Inventory records and tracing them to the shipping documents.

A

Shipping documents and tracing them to the sales journal.

83
Q

Homer and Moe, PC are auditing the financial statements of Lyoncraft, Inc. and decide to confirm a sample of accounts receivable. This test is performed by Homer and Moe primarily to substantiate which of the following assertions?

Existence of related party transactions.
Existence of accounts receivable.
Obligation of debt.
Cutoff of the allowance for bad debt.

A

Existence of accounts receivable.

84
Q

The aged accounts receivable report is utilized by the auditor to accomplish which of the following?

Encourage the client to collect on receivables that are long past due.
Select the type of confirmations that will be sent to banks.
Assess the adequacy of the allowance for doubtful accounts.
Identify debits in the receivables balance that should be reclassified to payables.

A

Assess the adequacy of the allowance for doubtful accounts.

85
Q

According to auditing standards, accounts receivable confirmations are required to be used in which of the following situations?

On every audit engagement.
If the client agrees in writing to the procedure.
If the accounts receivable balance is material.
If environmental risk is low.

A

If the accounts receivable balance is material.

86
Q

The primary difference between positive and negative confirmations used in the audit of accounts receivable is which of the following?

The mode of response.
The amount of information included.
The control of the confirmation process by the auditor.
The method in which accounts are selected for confirmation.

A

The mode of response.

87
Q

For which of the following accounts receivable customer populations would the use of negative confirmations be most appropriate?

A retail truck and trailer sales company with high inherent risk and moderate control risk over the revenue cycle.
A utility company with control risk over the revenue cycle assessed high.
A mortgage banking company with excellent control over the purchasing cycle.
A cable company with control risk over the revenue cycle assessed low.

A

A cable company with control risk over the revenue cycle assessed low.

88
Q

Accounts receivable confirmations usually provide strong evidence about which of the following?

The existence of receivables.
The completeness of receivables.
The presentation and disclosure of receivables.
The obligations of receivables.

A

The existence of receivables.

89
Q

Confirmations that are sent to select customers asking them to review the current balance due the client as shown on the client’s statement and return the letters directly to the auditor indicating whether they agree with the indicated balance, are known by which of the following terms?

Direct confirmations.
Indirect confirmations.
Positive confirmations.
Negative confirmations.

A

Positive confirmations.

90
Q

Which one of the following procedures would be considered improper by the auditor in the process of confirming receivables?

The auditor allows the client’s staff to prepare the confirmation letters after the auditor has chosen the items to be confirmed.
The auditor allows the client to sign the confirmations after they are prepared.
The auditor allows the client’s staff to mail the confirmation letters after he or she has proofed the typing of the letters.
The auditor asks the addressee to return the confirmation to the audit firm’s office.

A

The auditor allows the client’s staff to mail the confirmation letters after he or she has proofed the typing of the letters.

91
Q

An auditor’s examination of the sales account using a cutoff test would most likely detect which of the following?

Kiting.
Sales made with improper credit terms.
Lapping of accounts receivable.
Sales recorded in the wrong period.

A

Sales recorded in the wrong period.

92
Q

Alternative procedures that would provide evidence of the existence of receivables would include which of the following?

Physical observation of customer facilities.
Review of subsequent collections.
Analysis of the aged trial balance.
A confirmation to the client management for customer accounts.

A

Review of subsequent collections.

93
Q

Auditors are concerned with the addresses provided for customers in the confirmation of accounts receivable because of which of the following reasons?

Confirmations are selected based upon zip codes.
A P.O. box is more reliable than a street address.
Confirmations should be sent only to business addresses and not residential.
The address may be routed to the client for retrieval and fraudulent signing.

A

The address may be routed to the client for retrieval and fraudulent signing.

94
Q

Unreturned positive confirmations for accounts receivable warrant which of the following actions?

Replacing the sample selection with a new customer.
Sending second requests and possibly performing subsequent procedures.
The projection of larger misstatements to the population.
Requesting that the client send additional audit correspondence to customers.

A

Sending second requests and possibly performing subsequent procedures.

95
Q

An example of alternative procedures for the confirmation of accounts receivable includes which of the following actions?

Inquiry of management.
Tracing source documents to recorded amounts.
Review of subsequent collections on account by the client.
Providing an estimate of the allowance for doubtful accounts to be recorded by the client.

A

Review of subsequent collections on account by the client.

96
Q

A key indicator of fraud in the revenue cycle is the auditor’s detection of which of the following?

Customer collections that are over 90 days past due.
Credit entries in customer accounts receivable for authorized write-offs.
Recurring entries in the sales journal.
Altered shipping documents and invoices.

A

Altered shipping documents and invoices.

97
Q

In the audit of accounting estimates, such as the allowance for doubtful accounts, the auditor strives to provide reasonable assurance about which of the following?

All material accounting estimates have been developed properly.
The estimates are reasonable.
The estimates are presented in accordance with GAAP.
All of the above are true.

A

All of the above are true.

98
Q

The allowance for doubtful accounts balance will not be a precise amount because of which of the following reasons?

It is an accounting estimate based upon judgment.
GAAP is not clear on the calculation of the allowance.
It is merely a reserve that is reversed by the client as income is needed for profitable results.
The precision is determined by the results of confirmation responses.

A

It is an accounting estimate based upon judgment.

99
Q

To determine whether any accounts receivable are pledged or assigned to others, the auditor would most likely perform which of the following procedures?

Examine subsequent collections.
Test a sample of transactions to the general ledger.
Review loan agreements and board of directors’ meeting minutes.
Derive an independent estimate of the allowance and compare it to pledged assets.

A

Review loan agreements and board of directors’ meeting minutes.

100
Q

Which of the following criteria must be met in order to recognize revenue in the current accounting period?

Goods or services have been transferred to the customer.
The transaction price has been determined.
Collectability is reasonably assured.
All of the above.

A

All of the above.

Revenue Recognition Criteria
1. Parties have approved it.
2. Goods and services are clearly identified.
3. Payment terms are spelled out.
4. There is commercial value to the contract.
5. It is probable that the client will collect the payment.

101
Q

Management has been found involved in many fraudulent schemes; a common one is “channel stuffing.” What does “channel stuffing” involve?

Overly complex transactions.
Growth through stock acquisitions.
Shipment of goods not ordered.
Management compensation schemes.

A

Shipment of goods not ordered.

To detect channel stuffing, analysts and investors may look for red flags, such as: A sudden and unexplained increase in a company’s sales or revenues that is not supported by market conditions or other external factors.

102
Q

Which of the following is not a form of ratio analysis?

Turnover of receivables.
Monthly sales analysis compared with past years.
Gross margin analysis.
Sales in last month to total sales.

A

Monthly sales analysis compared with past years.

Trend analysis

103
Q

Sources of audit planning information may come from which of the following?

Knowledge of client’s business and industry.
Assessment of risk of material misstatement.
Results of analytical procedures.
All of the above.

A

All of the above.

104
Q

Which of the following audit procedures does not address existence/occurrence for accounts receivables and sales?

Trace bill of lading to sales invoice and sales journal.
Confirm balances of unpaid invoices with customers.
Examine subsequent collections.
Scan sales journal for duplicate entries.

A

Trace bill of lading to sales invoice and sales journal.

This addresses the completeness assertion.

105
Q

Substantive tests of the revenue cycle typically do not provide evidence of which of the following?

Sales transactions exist and are properly valued.
Accounts receivable exist.
The balance in the allowance account is correct.
Fraudulent transactions are not included in the financial statements.

A

The balance in the allowance account is correct.

106
Q

A sample of positive confirmations is mailed for material accounts receivable balances. Frequently there is a lack of response. Which of the following is not an acceptable alternative procedure?

Reviewing collections on the account subsequent to the confirmation date.
Inquiry of management.
Mailing second and third confirmations.
Examination of supporting documents.

A

Inquiry of management.